Microbiology (ICS) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the process of gram staining?

A

1) Stain the slide with CRYSTAL VIOLET (30-40seconds) then rinse with water.

2) Stain it with iodine (1 min)

3) Wash the slide with Acetate/Alcohol (slide is tilted, and alcohol dripped using dropper) –> At this stage, gram positive will be purple and gram negative bacteria will be colourless

4) Use safranin counterstain (20-30sec) –> Gram positive bacteria will be purple and gram negative bacteria will be pink.

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2
Q

What is a commensal?

What is an opportunist pathogen?

A

An organism which colonises the host but causes no disease in normal circumstance. (occasionally they can cause infections, especially when the patient is immunocompromised)

Opportunist pathogen - a microbe which only causes disease if host defences are compromised.

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3
Q

What are the differences in structure between gram positive and gram negative bacteria?

Explain using this why the gram positive bacteria retain the crystal violet-iodine stain and gram negative bacteria do not.

A

Gram positive bacteria
- Thick peptidoglycan layer
- Lack an outer membrane
- Have lipoteichoic acid which provides structural support

Gram negative bacteria
- Thin peptidoglycan layer
- Have an outer membrane composed of lipopolysaccharides (endotoxin)

The thick peptidoglycan layer of gram positive bacteria have extensive cross-linking of peptide chains which form a dense meshwork to trap the crystal violet-iodine complex.

The presence of the lipid rich outer membrane in gram negative bacteria is not permeable to the crystal violet-iodine complex. - so alcohol/acetate washes off the stain

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4
Q

What is an obligate? e.g. obligate intracellular bacteria

A

An organism. which requires a host cell in order to survive and replicate.

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5
Q

What is endotoxin and exotoxin?

A

Endotoxin - Component of the outer membrane in bacteria e.g. lipopolysaccharide in gram negative bacteria

Exotoxin - Secreted proteins of both gram positive and negative bacteria.

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6
Q

What are the differences between endotoxin and exotoxin?

A

Exotoxin - composed of protein
Endotoxin - composed of lipopolysaccharide

Action
Exotoxin - Specific (target specific cell types, specific receptors)
Endotoxin - Non-specific (generalised effect)

Heat sensitivity:
Exotoxin - Heat labile and can be neutralised by heat
Endotoxin - Heat stable, not easily neutralised by heat

Exotoxin - Produced by both gram positive and negative bacteria
Endotoxin - Found only in gram negative bacteria.

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7
Q

What are the methods of genetic variation in bacteria?

A

Mutation - Base substitution, deletion, insertion

Gene transfer
1) Transformation via UPTAKE of free DNA from the environment

2) Transduction via phage - DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus.

3) Conjugation via sex pilus - Bacterium transfers genetic material to another through direct contact. ( via a plasmid e.g. transfer promotion genes, plasmid maintenance genes, antibiotic or virulence determinant genes)

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8
Q

What stain do you use for mycobacteria? Why?

A

Ziehl-Neelsen stain. This is because their cell wall has a high lipid content with mycolic acids, which makes them resistant to gram stain .

Their cell wall contains lipoarabinomannan.

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9
Q

What are some challenges when dealing with mycobacteria e.g. M.tuberculosis?

A

1) It has a thick lipid rich cell wall making it difficult for immune cells to effectively kill it and for drugs to penetrate to exert their effect.

2) They have a slow growth rate, meaning that symptoms would gradually develop over time, which leads to a delay in diagnosis and treatment.

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10
Q

What are the 3 main forms of tuberculosis?

A

Primary tuberculosis
- Occurs when a person is first exposed to M.tuberculosis.
- Although initially alveolar macrophages can kill the bacteria, some bacteria survive within the macrophage and spread to the hilar lymph nodes (within the macrophage, within the lymphatic system) where immune responses are triggered.

Granuloma + lymphatics + lymph nodes = primary complex.

Latent tuberculosis
- Individuals do not exhibit symptoms as bacteria are in a dormant state.
- T cells specific to M.tuberculosis antigen are still active to maintain the immune response.
- Latent TB is detectable on a tuberculin skin test

Pulmonary tuberculosis
- Granulomas form around the bacilli (usually in the apex of the lungs) to control the infection
- Some granulomas can undergo caeseous necrosis which lead to formation of abscesses)
- TB can spread within the lungs leading to additional lesion and abscess formation

Take note: Pulmonary TB can occur immediately following a primary infection or months later following a reactivation of latent TB

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11
Q

Describe Blood, Chocolate and Cled Agar

A

Blood - Contains Sheep or horse blood and provides a good medium for growing many different types of bacteria

Chocolate - Contains blood agar heated to 80degrees celcius for 5 mins to release some nutrients which make it easier for FASTIDIOUS organisms to grow - an organism which has a complex or particular nutritional requirement)

Cled- Cysteine lactose electrolyte deficient –> Used to differentiate micro-organisms in urine. You can identify lactose fermenting bacteria (E.coli) as yellow and non-lactose fermenting bacteria (Salmonella, shigella) as blue.

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12
Q

What are drug resistance mechanisms that mycobacteria have?

A
  • Drug inactivation via production of beta-lactamase
  • Target overproduction – bacteria increase production of another target which is specific for an enzyme or protein of the drug which makes it difficult for the drug to exert its effect.
  • Alteration of drug target - Missense mutations can modify the structure of target proteins which reduces the drug’s affinity for the bacterial antigen.
  • Altered cell envelope - mycobacteria can modify its cell envelope to increase permeability and drug efflux.

Take note: XDR-TB (resistant to the 4 commonly used TB drugs) is very complicated to treat and that treatment can fail with TTR TB (totally drug resistant tuberculosis)

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13
Q

Describe MacConkey, XLD and Gonococcus agar.

State the colour of any differentiating agar

A

MacConkey - Primarily grows gram negative bacilli –> Allow for differentiation between lactose fermenting bacteria (E.coli)- as pink and non-lactose fermenting bacteria (Salmonella, shigella)- as yellow/colourless.

XLD - Xylose lysine deoxycholate - Very selective growth medium used to differentiate/isolate salmonella species and shigella species. (Red at pH 7.4)
Most gut bacteria ferment xylose and lower the pH turning the colour yellow.
Shigella –> Red colonies
Salmonella –> Red with black centres (salmonella reduces thiosulphate to hydrogen sulphide)

Gonococcus agar - Used for Neisseria cultures. (Neisseria species)

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14
Q

Describe Sabourad’s agar, CCDA agar and Lowenstein Jensen medium

A

Sabourad’s agar - Used to culture fungi. (Inhibition of bacteria is aided by presence of antibiotics)

CCDA agar - Charcoal cefoperazone deoxycholate agar. –> Selective and supports growth of Campylobacter

Lowenstein Jensen medium - Used for mycobacterium species. e.g. M.tuberculosis.

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15
Q

Draw the gram positive cocci map

A

Check with sheet

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16
Q

Draw the gram negative cocci map

A

Check with sheet

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17
Q

What is lancefield type grouping and what types of diseases is each group of antibiotics likely to cause?

A

The lancefield test uses antibodies (bound to latex beads) to detect antigens on the surface of beta haemolytic streptococci. (determined based on clumping of specific antibody e.g. group A,B,C to antigen) so if bacteria do not have the corresponding antigen to antibodies, clumping doesn’t occur.

A,C,G: Tonsilitis and skin infection
B: Neonatal sepsis and meningitis
D: Urinary tract infection = enterococci.

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18
Q

Which are the sterile sites of the body?

If there happen to be active bacteria, what could it cause in each of the sites?

A

Blood - Sepsis

CSF - Meningitis

Pleural fluid - Pericarditis, pleural effusion

Peritoneal cavity - spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

Joints - Septic arthritis

Urinary tract - UTIs

Lower respiratory tract - TB + pneumonia

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19
Q

Where are the common sites of bacterial colonies?

A

Mouth - alpha haemolytic strep, corynebacterium species, non-pathogenic neisseria species, non-pathogenic haemophilus species

Skin- Staphylococcus epidermidis, corynebacterium species, proprionibacterium acnues, enteric bacilli

Vagina - Streptococcus species, bacteroides species, lactobacillus acidophilus (which produces lactic acid keeping vaginal secretions acidic to prevent pathogenic bacteria from establishing infection)

Urethra - Enterobacteriacea, staphylococcus saprophyticus

Large intestine:
Anaerobes - Clostridium species and bacteroides species
Aerobes - enterococci, lactobacilli, E.coli

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20
Q

What tests could you do to diagnose viral infections?

A
  • Electron microscopy (takes a long time and is operator dependent but it can detect any virus even a novel one)
  • PCR - fast and sensitive but there is a risk of false positive. (Also, not possible to detect a virus unless you suspect it first and use relevant primers) –. diagnostic swab would be a green viral swab (whereas black charcoal swab for bacteria)
  • Serology - Detection of antibody responses in serum - can indicate current or past infection/vaccination
    ELISA - Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay - detects antibodies using an enzyme based reaction.
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21
Q

What is a purple and yellow top tube for? How long will results take to get back for each?

A

Purple top tube - FBC and film. - to detect atypical lymphocytes - results should be out on the same day

Yellow top tube - Serum - detects antibodies to virus - results take 1-2 days to come out.

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22
Q

What is a main differential for EBV? How would you diagnose EBV?

A

An infection caused by S.pyogenes.
They both present with tonsillitis with a purulent (discharging pus) lining of the tonsils.

To differentiate you would do a blood test (FBC) and check for atypical lymphocytes (irregular shape and larger nucleus)
OR
do a serology test to check for IgM antibodies for EBV - acute infection. IgG antibodies for EBV- chronic/prior infection.

(In some cases can check for antistreptolysin which is an antibody for S.pyogenes as it produces streptolysin toxin)

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23
Q

Examples of vaccine preventable diseases

A

Diphtheria, poliomyelitis, tetanus, hepatitis B, pertussis, meningitis, haemophilus influenzae type B

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24
Q

What is a virus?

What is a virion?

A

An infectious, obligate intracellular parasite which comprises genetic material surrounded by a protein coat and/or membrane.

A virion is the infectious particle of a virus which exists outside host cells. It contains genetic material and has an outer protein shell - capdis (A virus encompasses both the virion and intracellular components)

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25
Q

Differences between virus and bacteria

A

Virus - No cell wall
Bacteria - have cell wall

Virus - no organelles
Bacteria- have organelles

Virus - Dependent on the host cell
Bacteria - not dependent on the host cell

Virus - Do not have both DNA and RNA (only 1 of them)
Bacteria - Has both DNA and RNA

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26
Q

What is the process of viral replication?

A

1) The virus attaches to a specific receptor on a cell
2) (Only) The virion (viral core) enters the cell and undergoes uncoating (removal of protein coat to expose viral genetic material)
3) The viral genome migrates to the cell nucleus and it is transcribed to mRNA using host materials (Enzymes, nucleotides, amino acids)
4) The viral mRNA is translated to produce structural proteins, viral genome and non-structural proteins e.g. enzymes
5) The virion is assembled, which can occur in the nucleus (herpes virus), cytoplasm (poliovirus) or at the cell membrane (influenza virus)
6) The new virus particles are released either via cell lysis or bursting:
= The cell ruptures, releasing accumulated viral particles into the extracellular space
= The assembled virion bud out of the host’s cell membrane, exiting the cell while acquiring an envelope (lipid coat) from the host’s cell membrane.

–> In lysis, the cell dies.
–> In budding, the host cell does not die immediately and can continue to produce more virus.

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27
Q

How do viruses cause disease?

A

1) Direct destruction of host cells –> poliovirus causes host cell lysis and death after viral replication (of 4 hours) –> paralysis

2) Modification of host cell –> rotavirus can cause atrophy of villi and flatten epithelial cells – decreasing the small intestine surface area for absorption of nutrients – leading to a hyperosmotic state (low concentration of solute) – PROFUSE diarrhoea.

3) Over-reactivity of the immune system –> Hep B can cause jaundice, pale stool, dark urine, etc.
- Hep B triggers activation of the cytotoxic T cells which lyse the whole host cell (as they can’t kill only the virus).
- In some cases the immune system produces excessive cytokines which can lead to severe inflammation, tissue damage and organ failure (cytokine storm)

4) Damage through cell proliferation –> HPV acquired through sexual contact - viral DNA is integrated into host chromosome and every time the host DNA is replicated, more viral proteins are made which interact with tumour suppressor genes of the cell –> leading to abnormal cell proliferation (carcinoma in situ)

5) Evasion of host defence
- Latency - when a virus becomes dormant and will reactivate in the future
- Antigenic variability due to small mutations over time which accumulate to change the antigen.
- It interferes with the host cell antigen processing pathway
- Down regulation of interferon and other intracellular host defence proteins.

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28
Q

How does a virus evade host defence?

A

Latency - when a virus becomes dormant and will reactivate in the future
- Antigenic variability due to small mutations over time which accumulate to change the antigen.
- It interferes with the host cell antigen processing pathway
- Down regulation of interferon and other intracellular host defence proteins.

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29
Q

What is meningitis? What are its infectious and non-infectious causes?

A

Meningitis is the inflammation of the meninges. (commonly affects extremes of ages due to impaired/waning immunity)

Main bacterial causes - S.pneumoniae (pneumococcus), N.meningitidis (meningococcus).
Main viral causes - Coxsackievirus, herpes virus
(Rarely caused by fungi and protozoa)

Non infectious causes
- Medication - antibiotics, NSAIDS
- Cancer - melanoma, lung cancer, lymphoma, leukemia
- Autoimmune disease - SLE, Behcet’s syndrome

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30
Q

What do you do when you encounter a notifiable disease?

How will this protect the community?

A

(It is a legal obligation for any doctor that suspects a case to report on clinical suspicious)

Doctors should notify UKHSA - UK Health Security Agency ASAP within 3 days of a case being notified or within 24 hours for urgent cases.

This will protect the community by:
- Investigation- Contact tracing, partner notification
- Identify and protect vulnerable people e.g. by chemoprophylaxis, immunisation, isolation
- Educate, inform, raise awareness

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31
Q

What is the point of notifying UKHSA about notifiable diseases?

A

1) Surveillance and monitoring - allows for tracking of occurrence and spread.

2) Early detection - to implement control measures to prevent further spread.

3) Monitoring disease severity - allows for the assessment of the extent and severity of these conditions.

4) Allows development of interventions targeted at vulnerable groups. (e.g. education campaigns or vaccination strategies aimed at high risk groups or geographic areas)

32
Q

What are the 5 major groups of protozoa?

A

Single celled eukaryotes (with nucleus) - type of parasite
- Flagellate
- Microsporidia
- Amoeba
- Sporozoa
- Cilliate

33
Q

Name some protozoal disease in each of the groups of protozoa

A

Flagellate
- African trypanosomiasis - trypanosoma brucei gambiense and trypanosoma brucei rhoedisense
(BITE OF INFECTED TSETSE FLY)
- American trypanosomiasis - trypanosoma cruzi. (CONTACT WITH FAECES OF TRIATOMINE BUG)
- Leishmaniasis - leishmania species
(BITE OF INFECTED SANDFLY)
- Trichomonas vaginalis - sexually transmitted - treat with metronidazole
Giardiasis –> giardia lambia (Faeco-oral spread) - treat with metronidazole

Amoeba
- Amoebiasis - Entameoba histolytica (faeco-oral spread) - treat with metronidazole

Sporozoa
- Cryptosporidiosis - Cryptosporidium hominis and C.parvum (WATERBORNE - spread via unsanitary conditions, infected water bodies)
- Toxoplasmosis - toxoplasma gondii (INGESTION OF CONTAMINATED FOOD AND WATER WITH FEINE SPECIES - also rare beef/lamb, unpasteurised milk)
- Malaria - plasmodium species (BITE OF INFECTED ANOPHELES MOSQUITO)

34
Q

What is the difference between treatment and prophylaxis?

A

Treatment - addresses an existing disease or condition that a person is currently experiencing

Prophylaxis - preventive measures taken before exposure, to prevent the disease.

Chemoprophylaxis - the use of medication or chemical agents to prevent the development or spread after exposure to a disease.

35
Q

What are the few things that anti-fungal drugs target? (As there are limited options for selective toxicity when developing anti-fungal drugs)

A
  • Fungi have cell walls composed of substances like chitin while human cells lack cell walls.
  • Fungal cell membranes contain ergosterol while the cell membranes of human contain cholesterol.
36
Q

Describe candidiasis

A
  • A fungal infection caused by Candida species (most common is candida albicans)
  • Normal commensal –>
    But are capable of local infection of mucous membranes (Mucosal candidiasis) –> oropharyngeal, oral cavity, genitals

Presents with: ORAL THRUSH (white patches on tongue), genital areas (itching, irritation, discharge),
INVASIVE/systemic CANDIDIASIS - can affect internal organs and bloodstream –> systemic infections (immunocompromised people - fever, tachycardia)

Risk factors: Poor oral hygiene, immunosuppression, diabetes antibacterial therapy, mucosal disruption

Treat with topical or oral azoles (FLUCONAZOLE)

37
Q

Describe cryptococcosis briefly

A

An opportunistic fungal infection caused by cryptococcus species (opportunistic - wouldn’t really cause illness in healthy person)
TYPICALLY ONLY C.NEOFORMANS causes disease (also C.gattii)

Manifests as a lung infection upon inhalation of fungal spores. (similar to TB, it can be brought to the hilar lymph nodes via macrophages in the lymphatic system and remain dormant - latent infection) –> dyspnoea and cough

  • Can cause morbidity and morality in immunosuppressed populations e.g. HIV
    Presents also with dyspnoea and productive cough

Treat with amphotericin B and fluconazole

38
Q

Name some fungal infections

A

Candidiasis/thrush - caused by candida species

Cryptococcosis - caused by cryptococcus species

Invasive aspergillosis - caused by aspergillus species

39
Q

Describe invasive aspergillosis

A

Inhalation of spores of the aspergillus species causes the infection. (fungal infection)

Typically infects mainly immunocompromised people

can present with pneumonia like symptoms : cough, fever, chest pain or can even spread beyond lungs in severe cases to other organs (brain, heart)
- use CT scan to diagnose

Treat with Voriconazole

40
Q

Describe mucoraceous moulds briefly

A

Rare but cause devastatingly rapidly progressive infections that cross tissue planes
(belong to group called Mycorales) - found in soil mainly
Treat with amphotericin B

41
Q

What is an antibiotic?

A

Antibiotics are molecules that work by binding a target site on a bacteria.

42
Q

Life cycle of malaria

A

Mosquito bites and infected human and ingests plasmodium gametocytes
Gametocytes undergo development in the midgut of the mosquito to become sporozoites which are stored in the salivary glands of the mosquito.
The mosquito takes its next blood meal and injects the sporozoites into the human.
Liver stage - Sporozoites replicate (asexually) within the hepatocytes of the liver, forming a schizont. The schizont ruptures the hepatocyte, releasing merozoites into the bloodstream which then infect the red blood cells
Blood stage - The merozoites replicate further in the RBCs and become trophozoites (which are the ones seen on a blood film). The trophozoites develop into a schizont which then ruptures and infects other RBCs. The blood stage lasts for 48 hours and results in cyclical fever (chills, fever, sweating), haemolysis which leads to anaemia, jaundice from bilirubinemia and haemoglobinuria, black water fever.

43
Q

Are gram positive or gram negative bacteria more susceptible to beta lactam antibioics?

A

In order for antibiotics to bind to penicillin-binding proteins, they must first diffuse through the bacterial cell wall.

Gram negative organisms have an additional lipopolysaccharide layer decreasing antibiotic penetration. Thus, gram positive bacteria are more susceptible to beta lactams.

44
Q

What is the spectrum and activity of beta lactam antibiotics dependent on?

A

The antibiotics’ affinity for different Penicillin binding proteins.

(penicillins poorly penetrate mammalian cells and so are ineffective in the treatment of intracellular pathogens)

45
Q

How are bacteria pathogenic? (consequences)

A

1) Direct - Cell destruction - bacteria directly destroy phagocytes or the host cells in which they replicate

2) Toxins
- Exotoxin - Proteins secreted by bacteria which can damage host cells
- Endotoxin - Lipopolysaccharides found in gram negative bacteria (which can trigger immune responses leading to inflammation)

3) Inflammation - can damage surrounding tissues

4) Immune pathology - overreaction of the immune system causing collateral damage to healthy tissues

5) Diarrhoea

46
Q

What are the 2 possible ways that all antibiotics try to get rid of the bacteria?

A

1) Bactericidal antibiotics
- The agent kills the bacteria by inhibiting cell wall synthesis (by reducing peptidoglycan synthesis or by reducing cross linking of peptidoglycan)

2) Bacteriostatic antibiotics
- Which inhibits the growth of bacteria. This is via the inhibition of protein synthesis, DNA replication or metabolism.
(Defined as a ratio of minimum bactericidial

47
Q

What is the minimum inhibitory concentration of a antibiotic defined as?

A

The lowest concentration of an antimicrobial that will inhibit the visible growth of a microorganism after overnight incubation.

48
Q

What are the 2 major determinants of anti bacterial effects?

A

The concentration of the drug (allowing it to bind to more target sites)

Concentration dependent killing - Key parameter is how high the concentration of antibiotic is above the minimum inhibitory concentration

The time the antibiotic remains on the binding sites (as they must remain there for sufficient time for the metabolic processes to be inhibited)

Time dependent killing - Key parameter is the time that serum concentrations of antibiotic remains above the minimum inhibitory concentration during dosage interval

49
Q

What are the 4 ways bacteria can resist antibiotics?

A
  • Change antibiotic target - Bacteria changes the molecular configuration of antibiotic binding site or masks it
    –> (In MRSA, flucloxacillin is no longer able to bind to PBP of staphs)
    –> (In VRE, wall components of enterococci change and reduce vancomycin binding)
    –> In Multidrug resistane tuberculosis, rifampicin activity is reduced by changes to RNA polymerase
  • Destroy/inactivate antibiotic - beta lactam ring is hydrolysed by beta lactamase, thus unable to bind to PBP
  • Prevent antibiotic access -
    –> Bacteria can alter membrane permeability by modifying the size, numbers or selectivity of their membrane pore channels (gateways for antibiotics)
    E.g. pseudomonas aeruginosa can decrease permeability of their porins restricting entry of antibiotics like imipenem.
  • Remove antibiotic from bacteria
    –> Proteins in bacterial membranes can act as an export or efflux pumps
    E.g. S.aureus or S.pneumoniae are resistant to fluoroquinolones.
50
Q

Why do bacteria develop resistance?

A

Intrinsic - they are naturally resistant
e.g. Aerobic bacteria are unable to reduce metronidazole to its active form. OR vancomycin can’t penetrate the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria

Acquired resistance (extrinsic)
1) Spontaneous gene mutation

2) Horizontal gene transfer
i) Transformation- uptake free DNA from the environment
ii) Transduction via phage (DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus(which infects bacteria))
iii) Conjugation via sex pilus (Bacterium transfers genetic material to another through direct contact) - Sharing of extra-chromosomal DNA plasmids

51
Q

Name 2 examples each of bacterial resistance in gram positive and 3 in gram negative bacteria

A

Positive
1) MRSA - methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus
- Bacteriophage mediated acquisition of staphylococcal cassette chromosome mec which contains the resistance gene mecA which encodes for penicilling binding protein 2a –> (lower affinity for binding to the antibiotics compared to other penicillin binding proteins) thus resistant to b-lactam antibiotics in addition to methicillin

2) VCE - Vancomycin resistant enterococci
- Plasmid mediated acquisition of gene encoding altered amino acid on peptide chains which prevent vancomycin binding (promoted by cephalosporin use)

Negative
1) ESBL - extended spectrum beta lactamase
- They hydrolyse oxyimino side chains of cephalosporins and monobactams (beta lactams). (still sensitive to beta lactamase inhibitors)

2) AmpC beta lactamase resistance
- An enzyme produced by bacteria which confers resistant to broad spectrum of beta lactam antibiotics e.g. penicillin, cephalosporin and monobactam - commonly found in E.coli, klebsiella, proteus mirabillis
- use carbapenems

3) Carbapenem resistant enterobacteriaceae (CPE/CRE)
- They produce carbapenemases
- CRE can spread easily in health care settings through person-to-person contact
- Most common cause of UTI and intra-abdominal infection (they are colonisers of the large bowel)

52
Q

What is Clostridium difficile associated disease?

A

Infection of the colon caused by the bacteria C.diff. It occurs in patients whose normal bowel flora (intestinal microbiota) are disrupted by recent antibiotic use.

Risk factors: prolonged hospital stay, antibiotic exposure, advanced age.

Can be caused by endogenous or exogenous contamination

Vancomycin first line treatment

Endogenous cause - gut flora disrupted by antibiotic use

Exogenous cause - transmission from external source –> contact with spore-contaminated surfaces or medical equipment

53
Q

How to prevent endogenous HCAI

A
  • Good nutrition and hydration
  • Antisepsis preparation
  • Remove lines and catheters as soon as clinically possible
  • Change from IV to oral treatment whenever appropriates
54
Q

What are the ways in which the 5 functional groups of antibiotics can affect bacteria?

A

1) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis (BETA LACTAMS e.g. cephalosporin, penicillin, glycopeptides)
2) Inhibitors of membrane function
(POLYMYXINS)
3) Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis
(QUiNOLONES - ciprofloxacin)
4) Anti metabolites
- Folic acid synthesis (TRIMETHOPRIM, sulphamethoxazole)
- Disruption of DNA and RNA via formation of ROS (NITROFURANTOIN)
5) Inhibition of protein synthesis
- Inhibition of 50s (MACROLIDES) and 30s ribosomal subunits (TETRACYCLINES)

55
Q

When would you use vancomycin (and teicoplanin)?

A

1) When a patient is allergic to penicillin

2) When gram positive bacteria have resistance to beta-lactams e.g. MRSA

(Only used for gram positive bacteria)

56
Q

How would you treat S.aureus, Lancefield groups A,C,G strep, and S.pnuemoniae?

A

s.aureus - Flucloxacillin

ACG strep –> Penicillin V (PO), Benzylpenicillin (IV)

S.pneumoniae –> Amoxicillin (PO), Benzylpenicillin (IV)

57
Q

Name 2 beta lactams + beta-lactamase inhibitors

And their uses

A

Amoxicillin + Clavulanate = Co-amoxiclav
- Used for S.aureus, Streps, enterococi, gram negatives –> in cases of Aspiration pneumonia, severe community acquired pneumonia, resistant urinary organisms

Piperacillin + Tazobactam = Tazocin
- Used for HA pneumonia, systemic pseudomonas infections, immunocompromised. (No cover for ESBL and AmpCs)

58
Q

State antibiotics which are in the 5 functional groups and their uses
1) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
2) Inhibitors of membrane function
3) Inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis
4) Anti metabolites
5) Inhibition of protein synthesis

A

1) Betalactams
- Co-amoxiclav - S.aureus, streps, gram negatives – Aspiration pneumonia, severe community acquired pneumonia, resistant urinary organisms
- Tazocin - HA pneumonia, systemic pseudomonas infections, immunocompromised.
- Cephalosporins (CEFUROXIME) - Gram positive and gram negatives. - Used for surgical prophylaxis and intrabdominal infections (in <65s)
- Carbapenems (Meropenem) - Broad spectrum (G+/-) - Active against ESBLs and AmpCs –> used for severe healthcare associated infections, immunocompromised.

2) Polymyxins - increase permeability of cell membrane to allow leakage of essential ions like potassium.

3) Quinolones - Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin - G negatives –> used when there is penicillin allergy, UTIs intrabdominal infections. –> IT CAN CAUSE C.diff and AAA rupture.

4)
Trimethoprim - intereferes iwth folic acid synthesis - broad spectrum antibiotic mainly for G negatives. Used for UTI

Nitrofurantoin - disrupts DNA and RNA via formation of ROS. (G+/-). Used for lower UTI

5) 50s
Macrolides (Azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin) - G+ (S.aureus, b haemolytic strep) - atypical pneumonia pathogens (Legionella pneumophilia)

Clindamycin - G+ - used for cellulitis in penicilling allergy and necrotising fasciitis

30s
Tetracyclin - doxycyclin - G+ –> used for cellulitis (pen allergy) and for pneumonia

Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin) - G- and staphs. used in UTI and infective endocarditis (synergystically with another drug)

59
Q

What is HIV?

What is HIV1 and 2 specifically?

A

HIV is a virus which infects CD4+ T cells and destroys them thus impairing cell mediated immunity. This increases the risk of cancer and opportunistic infections. (it increases the risk of any cancer associated with a virus e.g. HHV8-kaposi sarcoma, lymphoma (EBV), cervical cancer (HPV), hepatocellular carcinoma (hep B/C)

HIV 1 - most common species worldwide

HIV 2 - mostly restricted to west africa

60
Q

What are some of the genes that make up HIV’s RNA?

A

Gag, Pol, Env - provides instructions that will form the new virus particle
Gag –> core proteins (structural proteins)
Pol –> enzymes
Env –> Envelope glycoprotein

Nef - reduces cell surface expression of HLA class 1 (MHC 1) molecules needed for cytotoxic T cell recognition and upregulates Fas ligand that kills CTL.

Rev - binds to viral RNA to allow export from the nucleus

Tat - contributes to viral replication

61
Q

Life cycle of HIV

A

1) HIV enters the body and makes contact with CD4+ T cells. Glycoprotein 120 on the surface of the virus locks onto the CD4 receptor and the Co receptors CCR5 (early infection) or CXCR4 (may switch to this in later infection)
2) This results in the fusion of the viral membrane with the cell membrane via Gp 41
3) HIV capsid enters the cell –> releasing the viral RNA, reverse transcriptase and integrase
4) Reverse transcriptase converts viral RNA into viral DNA.
5) Integrase attaches to the end of the viral DNA and brings it to the cell nucleus where the HIV DNA is inserted/integrated into the host cell DNA.
6) HIV can continue using the cell’s machinery to replicate or can remain dormant within the cellular DNA (latency) - asymptomatic but enlarged lymph nodes
7) When the cell is activated, HIV uses the host’s RNA polymerase to form mRNA (which is translated to form new viral proteins) and genomic RNA (which will be assembled with viral enzymes)
8) The newly formed virus leaves the cell by pushing through the cell membrane, using the lipids to form Gp41 and 120 in the process.
9) The viral protease cleaves some precursor proteins –> forming the mature capsid (making the virus infectious

62
Q

Which are the cells that are vulnerable to HIV infection?

What are the routes of transmission for HIV?

A

Cells that have CD4 receptors: T lymphocytes, macrophages, monocytes, dendritic cells and microglia (highest concentration in GALT and lymph nodes)

Sexual intercourse, parenteral/blood, vertical transmission from mother to baby

63
Q

What is the Set point on a HIV graph and at what point does a person start developing AIDS related illness?

A

The viral load of HIV usually increases sharply to a peak (peak viremia) and then drops (due to CD8 T cells and antibodies) to a steady state where it remains until progression to AIDS (that point it reaches steady state is the set point)

AIDS related illnesses can develop when CD4 count drops to 500 or less e.g. oral candidiasis, fatigue, kaposi’s sarcoma.
AIDS is defined as when your CD4 cell count falls below 200

64
Q

What should you do if a patient presents with a recurring disease or a of the immunosuppressed?
or/and may present with symptoms like fever, sore throat, myalgia, rash.

A

Take note that Fever, sore throat, myalgia and rash which are non-specific symptoms of HIV, seroconversion illness and are also symptoms of glandular fever.

Therefore if a patient should present with these symptoms, ask about sexual history (and think of HIV seroconversion, where antibodies for HIV are produced and therefore he is experiencing symptoms)

As these are self limiting sickness, doctors might not think much of it but it is crucial that HIV is identified early.

65
Q

Why can HIV 1 evolve rapidly?

A

HIV 1 shows a huge viral sequence diversity that increases over time. This is due to:
- Error prone replication (there is 1 mutations in every 2 new viruses produced - due to reverse transcriptase error)
- Rapid viral replication - 10 billion new virus particles each day
- Large population size
- Recombination between different subtypes/clades in amino acid sequence - increases HIV diversity

66
Q

Why does the immune response to HIV-1 fail to clear the virus?

Why is it difficult for antibodies to bind to HIV-1?

How does HIV-1 escape T cell recognition?

A
  • CD4+ helper cells which are key in immune responses are lost from very early on in the infection as these are the cells that HIV infects first.
  • Although there is vigorous response from CD8+ cells which are a major force in controlling viral replication, they fail when immune exhaustion sets in.
  • As the HIV-1 envelope is heavily glycoslyated (resembling human cells), it is difficult for antibodies to bind to the surface.
  • The envelope proteins (Gp 120/Gp 41) which are targets of immune response can be changed via mutations
  • HIV can evolve to escape T cell recognition (rapid replication, large population size, error prone replication, recombination of subclasses in amino acid sequences)
67
Q

What are the epitopes targeted by broadly neutralising antibodies (which can neutralise multiple HIV strains)?

What are the types of antiretrovirals?

A
  • CD4 binding site (on Gp 120) - prevents virus from binding to CD4 receptor
  • Membrane-proximal region (on Gp 41) - interferes with the fusion of the viral and cellular membranes
  • V2V3 conformational epitope (epitope of glycoprotein 120) - disrupts viral attachment and entry
  • Envelope glycans - which cover the HIV glycoproteins (glycans play a role in shielding vulnerable parts of the virus from the immune system - antibodies can target and neutralise these glycans)

Types of antiretrovirals
1) Integrase inhibitors
2) Protease inhibitors
3) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
4) Fusion/entry inhibitors

68
Q

Why is the life expectancy still reduced in HIV-infected people on combined antiretroviral therapy?

A
  • Issues of adherence
  • Side effects of medication
  • Drug resistance
  • Increase in non-AIDS defining illnesses (e.g lung, cardiovascular, renal disease)
    = Even with effective antiretroviral therapy, a poorly defined reservoir of latently infected cells can persist for years and HIV can start replicating again. (reservoir size correlates with persistent immune activation)
69
Q

3 routes of perinatal HIV-1 infection (from mother to child/baby)

A
  • Transplacental exposure - in utero
  • Intra partum - exposure to maternal blood and genital secretions during delivery
  • Breast milk - ingestion of large amounts of contaminated milk

(Can be prevented by antiretroviral therapy (mother) and breast feeding infant takes nevirapine for 4-6 weeks after cessation of breastfeeding)

Delayed diagnosis - can lead to heart muscle abnormalities, chronic lung disease, etc

70
Q

What are the 2 markers in the blood that you look out for during HIV screening test?

What are the 2 markers that are used to monitor HIV infection?

A
  • HIV antibody for Gp120
  • HIV p24 antigen
  • CD4 cell count
    -HIV viral load
71
Q

What are some early symptoms of HIV?

A

multi-dermatomal shingles, lymphadenopathy, weight loss, diarrhoea, night sweats, oral candidiasis (oral thrush)

72
Q

What is the most common opportunistic infection of AIDS defining illness?

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia - caused by the fungi pneymocystis jirovecii.

Presents with: fever, SOB, dry cough, pain, drop in oxygen saturation.

  • treat with Co-trimoxazole

TAKE NOTE: All patients with TB (AIDS defining) requires a HIV test

73
Q

What should be done if a HIV positive patient presents with headache?

A

Could be meningitis - DO A LUMBAR PUNCTURE

74
Q

Just take note:

A

With current Highly active anti-retroviral therapy, (usually at least 3 antiretroviral drugs), HIV infection is a manageable condition with a good prognosis.

75
Q

How can HIV develop drug resistance?

A
  • It can evolve rapidly (via mutations, error during replication)
  • Non-adherence (not taking meds on time)
  • Drug-drug interactions (can either reduce concentration of HIV medication where it becomes less effective or can increase drug levels where it can be toxic)

So good adherence and avoidance of drug drug interactions are key to suppressing HIV replication and avoiding drug resistance.

76
Q

What is MRSA resistant to?

A

All beta-lactams.

So if a isolate of S.Aureus is resistant to any beta lactam it is MRSA, you treat with vancomycin.

Also take note that drugs starting with cef are usually broad spectrum antibiotics. (Also those that cause C.diff)

77
Q
A