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Year 5 > Microbiology Flash cards > Flashcards

Microbiology Flash cards

1
Q

Definition of UTIs by WCC in urine?

A

> 10^5 - if mixed sample
10^4 - if isolated organism in sample
10^3 - if E.coli or S. Saprophticus

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2
Q

What is the most common cause of sterile pyuria?

A

Previous antibiotic treatment

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3
Q

Order the following in terms of immunocompromise (most to least)

  • Solid organ transplant
  • Cytotoxic chemo
  • Stem cell transplant
  • DMARD/ steroids
  • Monoclonal antibody treatment
  • HIV with a low CD4 count
  • HIV with a normal CD4 count
A

MOST IMMUNOCOMPROMISED:

1) Stem cell transplant
2) HIV with low CD4
3) Solid organ transplant (+prophylaxis)
4) Monoclonal antibody treatment
5) Cytotoxic chemotherapy
6) DMARD/ Steroid tx
7) HIV with a normal CD4 count

LEAST IMMUNOCOMPROMISED

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4
Q

What are the following also called:

HHV1, HHV2, HHV3, HHV4, HHV5, HHV8

A 
HHV 1 - oral herpes
HHV2 genital herpes
HHV3 - VZV
HHV4 - EBV
HHV5 - CMV
HHV8 - Kaposi sarcoma
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5
Q

Post transplantation malignancy:

A

Kaposi sarcoma and EBV (post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease)

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6
Q

Post transplantation infections:

A

CMV: retinitis, encephalitis + anywhere else
BK: haemorrhagic cystitis (post HSCT), glomeulonephritis (post solid organ transplant)
JC: Progressive multifocal Leukoencephalopathy

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7
Q

What does PML stand for (JC virus)

A

progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

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8
Q

Which pneumonias cause cavitation lesions

A
  • Haemophilus Influenza
  • Staph Aureus
  • Klebsiella
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9
Q

Which pneumonias are community acquired and which is most common

A

SMH
Strep - most common
Moraxella
Haemophilus

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10
Q

Which pneumonias are hospital acquired and which is the most common

A

Please Stop Killing (me)
Pseudomonas (most common)
Staph
Klebsiella

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11
Q

What is the first-line treatment for a HAP?

A

Ceftazidime (if MRSA then vancomycin)

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12
Q

What are glycopeptides bad at killing, why?

A

Bad at killing gram negative because LARGE molecules so can’t access through the cell wall layers

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13
Q

EBV testing:

A

Monospot ; heterophile antibody test for IgM
- not useful in the first week or LATE (post 3 months)
(paul bunnel is the same)

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14
Q

Which virus increases the chance of Nasopharangeal cancer?

A

EBV

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15
Q

CMV D+/R- or CMV D-/R+

which combination makes infection more likely in

1) solid organ transplant
2) Bone marrow transplant

A

1) D+/R-
2) D-/R+

  • in BM transplant the immunosuppression will reactivate the virus that the recipient already had
  • in solid organ transplant you are giving them CMV
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16
Q

Which immunosuppressive therapies increase the risk of PML?

A

Natalizumab and Mycophenalate Mofetil

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17
Q

Complication of shingles?

A

Post herpatic neuralgia

- think HHV3 (herpes) and affects dermatomes anyway

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18
Q

Which is the only dsDNA in the Hepatitis family

A

Hep B

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19
Q

Which is the only Hepatitis that doesnt have the potential to become chronic

A

Hep A

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20
Q

What is the best diagnostic criteria for Hep C

A

RNA levels

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21
Q

Someone has vacuum-packed honey and shits themselves and paralysed? What is the management?

A

Clostridium botulinum - antitoxin

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22
Q

What is the presentation of B.Cereus infection

A

early; vomiting
late; diarrhoea
(post reheated rice)

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23
Q

What are the CHESS organisms

A 
Campylobacter jejuni
Haemorrhagic E.Coli (EHEC = STEC)
Entamoeba histolytica
Shigella
Salmonella (typhi vs enteritidis)
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24
Q

Paediatric transplant patient with multiorgan damage

A

Adenovirus

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25
Q

most common organism causing encephalitis in uk? and worldwide

A

HSV 2

worldwide - arbovirus

26
Q

Most common organism causing meningitis?

A

Enteroviruses (echo + coxsackie)

27
Q

Genotypic resistance assay

A

CMV, HIV, HBV, HCV

28
Q

Phenotypic resistance assay

A

HSV

29
Q

Pathogneumonic histological feature of CMV

A

Owl’s eyes inclusion

30
Q

Spinal TB

A

Potts disease

31
Q

CMV treatment

A

1) Gancyclovir (for solid organ transplant)

2) Foscarnet (for HSCT)

32
Q

TB meningitis on MRI

A

leptomeningeal enhancement, basal cistern enhancement, dilatation of ventricles

33
Q

RSV treatment and prophylaxis

A

Ribavirin –> IVIG

Paviluzumab

34
Q

What is the vector in Lyme disease

A

Ixodes tick

35
Q

What is the vector in Leishmania

A

Sand fly

36
Q

‘Negri bodies” in nerve cells

A

Rabies

37
Q

Purple eyelids (Romana’s sign)

A

Chagas

38
Q

Crampy abdominal pain?

A

Campylobacter from Chicken, treat with Clarithromycin

39
Q

Drain a liver abscess to find anchovy paste consistency

A

Entamoeba Histolytica

40
Q

Flask shaped ulcer in the caecum

A

Entamoeba Histolytica

41
Q

Outbreak of diarrhoea + vomiting in a carehome

A

Norovirus

42
Q

Man with HIV gets severe diarrhoea, shows up on a kinyoun stain

A 
Cryptosporidium Parvum (last protozoa)
- treat with paromycin
43
Q

Diagnosis and treatment for a halo sign on CXR

A

Aspergillosus

Amphotericin

44
Q

Diagnosis and treatment for an anaerobic pneumonia

A

Aspiration pneumonia

Metronidazole

45
Q

What is present in aspergillosus cell wall

A

Galactomannan

46
Q

What is present in candida cell wall

A

Beta D Glucan

47
Q

What is present in all fungal cell walls

A

Chitin

48
Q

What is the treatment for Oral Candidiasis? Vaginal candidiasis? Pregnant candidiasis?

A

Nystatin, oral fluclox (or topical–>), topical clotrimazole

49
Q

Investigations for TB at different stages?

A

1) if active; GOLD STANDARD: sputum culture on Lowenstein-Jenson media (takes 6 weeks)
- more immediate is the ziehl nielson stain
2) if latent: GOLD STANDARD: IGRA
- mantoux test is also positive for BCG

50
Q

Dermatophytes are what? How to treat?

A

Tineas with terbafine

51
Q

Facial cellulitis + DM

A

Mucormycoses (rhinopus virus)

can also cause nasal pus and black eschars

52
Q

Leishmaniasis presentation and vector

A

cutaneous (common) - ulcers

transmitted by the sand fly

53
Q

What is trypansoma disease

A

Trypansoma (sleeping sickness)
imagine zzzzzzzzz when sleeping
also TsetSe fly (ZZZZ) transmission

54
Q

Cat scratch disease vs cat poo disease

A

Bartonella henslea vs toxoplasmosis

55
Q

What are the 3 features of influenza A which means it could cause a pandemic?

A
  • novel antigenicity (antigenic drift)
  • easy transmission between humans
  • efficient replication in human airway
56
Q

What is the main class of drugs used to treat HIV

A

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

57
Q

which e.coli cause HUS

A

E. coli 0157:H7

58
Q

What are the most common organisms in cellulitis

A

S. pyogenes (group A strep)
Staph
S. pneumoniae

59
Q

What is the most common oppourtunistic infection in AIDS

A

PCP

Treat with co-trimoxazole

60
Q

condyloma acuminate

A

syphilis - secondary

61
Q

Argyll robertson pupil

A

neurosyphilis

62
Q

treatment for influenza

A

oseltamivir, zanamivir

Year 5 (7 decks)

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