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Microbiology Final Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following individuals is considered to be the “Father of Microbiology”?
a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Robert Koch
d. Rudolf Virchow

A

A. Anton van Leeuwenhoek

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2
Q

The microbes that usually live on or in a person are collectively referred to as
a. germs
b. indigenous microbiota
c. nonpathogens
d. opportunistic pathogens

A

B. Indigenous microbiota

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3
Q

Microbes that live on dead and decaying organic material are known as
a. indigenous microbiota
b. parasites
c. pathogens
d. saprophytes

A

D. Saprophytes

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4
Q

The study of fungi is called
a. algaeology
b. botany
c. mycology
d. phycology

A

C. Mycology

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5
Q

The field of parasitology involves the study of which of the following types of organisms?
a. arthropods, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and viruses
b. arthropods, helminths, and certain protozoa
c. bacteria, fungi, and protozoa
d. bacteria, fungi, and viruses

A

B. Arthropods, helminths, and certain protozoa

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6
Q

Rudolf Virchow is given credit for proposing which of the following theories?
a. abiogenesis
b. biogenesis
c. germ theory of disease
d. spontaneous generation

A

B. biogenesis

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7
Q

Which of the following microbes are considered obligate intracellular pathogens?
a. chlamydias, rickettsias, M. leprae, and T. pallidum
b. M. leprae and T. pallidum
c. M. tuberculosis and viruses
d. rickettsias, chlamydias, and viruses

A

D. rickettsias, chlamydias, and viruses

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8
Q

Which of the following statements is true?
a. Koch developed a rabies vaccine
b. Microbes are ubiquitous
c. Most microbes are harmful to humans
d. Pasteur conducted experiments that proved the theory of abiogensis

A

B. Microbes are ubiquitous

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9
Q

Which of the following are even smaller than viruses?
a. chlamydias
b. prions and viroids
c. rickettsias
d. cyanobacteria

A

B. prions and viroids

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10
Q

Which of the following individuals introduced the terms “aerobes” and “anaerobes”?
a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Robert Koch
d. Rudolf Virchow

A

B. Louis Pasteur

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11
Q

_______ developed vaccines for anthrax and rabies

A

Louis Pasteur

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12
Q

Proposed the theory of biogenesis

A

Rudolf Virchow

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13
Q

Discovered the causative agent of plague

A

Alexandre Emile Jean Yersin

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14
Q

The first person to observe live bacteria and protozoa

A

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

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15
Q

Developed an experimental procedure that could be used to prove that a specific microbe is the cause of a specific infectious disease

A

Robert Koch

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16
Q

Organisms that live on dead of decaying organic matter

A

Saprophytes

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17
Q

Microbes that do not cause disease

A

Nonpathogens

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18
Q

Microbes that usually do not cause disease, but can cause disease under certain circumstances

A

Opportunistic pathogens

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19
Q

The microbes that live on us and in us

A

Indigenous microbiota

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20
Q

The most common causes of infectious diseases or microbial intoxications

A

Pathogens

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21
Q

All infectious diseases are caused by pathogens

A

True

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22
Q

Pathogens greatly outnumber nonpathogens

A

False
Nonpathogens outnumber pathogens

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23
Q

Using microbes to clean up the environment is known as bioremediation

A

True

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24
Q

Microbes are essential in the field of genetic engineering

A

True

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25
Q

Microbes probably appeared on earth about 3.5 million yrs ago

A

False
3.5 billion years ago

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26
Q

Anton van Leeuwenhoek’s experiments helped to prove that microbes cause disease

A

False
Leeuwenhoek observed only; Pastuer and Koch made the connections that microbes cause disease

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27
Q

Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch made significant contributions to the “germ theory of disease”

A

True

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28
Q

Pasteurization is a process that kills all microbes present in the liquid being pasteurized

A

False
Pasteurization kills pathogens; it does not kill all the microbes that might be present in the liquid being pasteurized

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29
Q

Microbes contribute more oxygen to our atmosphere than plants do

A

True

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30
Q

Infectious diseases that are transmitted from animals to humans are known as zoonoses

A

True

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31
Q

A millimeter is equivalent to how many nanometers?
a. 1,000
b. 10,000
c. 100,000
d. 1,000,000

A

D 1,000,000

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32
Q

What is the total magnification when using the high-power (hi-dry) objective of a compound light microscope equipped with a x10 ocular lens

A

400x

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33
Q

The limiting factor of any compound light microscope is the
a. number of condenser lenses it has
b. number of magnifying lenses it has
c. number of ocular lenses it has
d. wavelength of visible light

A

D. wavelength of visible light

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34
Q

Who is given credit for developing the first compound microscope
a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b. Hans Jansen
c. Louis Pasteur
d. Robert Hooke

A

B. Hans Jansen

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35
Q

A compound light microscope differs from a simple microscope in that the compound light microscope contains more than one
a. condenser lens
b. magnifying lens
c. objective lens
d. ocular lens

A

B. Magnifying lens

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36
Q

The number of nanometers in a micrometer

A

1000

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37
Q

The resolving power of the compound light microscope is _________ times better than the resolving power of the unaided eye

A

1000

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38
Q

The number of micrometers in a millimeter

A

1000

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39
Q

The resolving power of the transmission electron microscope is _________ times better than the resolving power of the scanning electron microscope

A

100

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40
Q

The width of a typical coccus

A

1 um

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41
Q

The resolving power of the unaided eye

A

0.2 mm

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42
Q

The resolving power of the scanning electron microscope

A

20nm

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43
Q

The resolving power of the transmission electron microscope

A

0.2nm

44
Q

The resolving power of the transmission electron microscope

A

0.2um

45
Q

Anton van Leeuwenhoek is given credit for developing the first compound light microscope

A

False
He made simple microscopes

46
Q

The wavelength of visible light limits the size of objects that can be seen with the compound light. microscope

A

True

47
Q

The resolving power of compound light microscopes can be improved by adding additional magnifying lenses

A

False
it does nothing; it’s called empty magnification

48
Q

The total magnification achieved when the oil immersion lens is used is x1000

A

True

49
Q

Molecules of extrachromosomal DNA are also known as

A

Plasmids

50
Q

A bacterium possessing a tuft of flagella at one end of its cell would be called what kind of a bacterium?
a. amphitrichous
b. lophotrichous
c. monotrichous
d. peritrichous

A

B. lophotrichous

51
Q

One way in which an archaean would differ from a bacterium is that the archaean would possess no:
a. DNA in its chromosome
b. peptidoglycan in its cell walls
c. ribosomes in its cytoplasm
d. RNA in its ribosomes

A

B. peptidoglycan in its cell walls

52
Q

Some bacteria stain gram positive and others stain gram negative as a result of differences in the structure of their
a. capsule
b. cell membrane
c. cell wall
d. ribosomes

A

C. cell wall

53
Q

Of the following, which one is not found in prokaryotic cells?
a. cell membrane
b. chromosome
c. mitochondria
d. plasmids

A

C. mitochondria

54
Q

The Three-Domain System of Classification is based on differences in which of the following molecules?
a. mRNA
b. peptidoglycan
c. rRNA
d. tRNA

A

C. rRNA

55
Q

Which of the following is in the correct sequence?
a.Kingdom, Class, Division, Order, Family, Genus
b. Kingdom, Division, Class, Order, Family, Genus
c. Kingdom, Division, Order, Class, Family, Genus
d. Kingdom, Order, Division, Class, Family, Genus

A

B. Kingdom, Division, Class, Order, Family, Genus

56
Q

Which one of the following is never found in prokaryotic cells?
a. flagella
b. capsule
c. cilia
d. ribosomes

A

C. cilia

57
Q

The semipermeable structure controlling the transport of materials between the cell and its external environment is the
a. cell membrane
b. cell wall
c. cytoplasm
d. nuclear membrane

A

A. cell membrane

58
Q

In eukaryotic cells, what are the sites of photosynthesis
a. mitochondria
b. plasmids
c. plastids
d. ribosomes

A

C. Plastids

59
Q

Membrane-bound organelles where photosynthesis occurs

A

Plastids

60
Q

The sites of protein synthesis in prokaryotic cells

A

Ribosomes

61
Q

Considered a “packaging plant” where proteins are packaged into membrane-bound vesicles

A

Golgi complex

62
Q

Membrane-bound organelles where energy is produced by the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain

A

Mitochondria

63
Q

Found in prokaryotic cells as well as eukaryotic cells

A

Ribosomes

64
Q

short, hairlike projections used as organelles of locomotion by some eukaryotic cells

A

Cilia

65
Q

Found on some bacteria; they serve an antiphagocytic function

A

Capsules

66
Q

Found on some bacteria; they enable the bacteria to adhere to surfaces

A

Pili

67
Q

composed of a protein called flagellin

A

Prokaryotic flagella

68
Q

Long, whiplike structures having an internal organization that is described as a “9+2” arrangement of microtubules

A

Eukaryotic flagella

69
Q

The internal structure of eukaryotic cilia is the same as the internal structure of eukaryotic flagella

A

True

70
Q

Bacteria never have cilia and eukaryotic cells never have pili

A

True

71
Q

Tyndallization is a process that kills spores as well as vegetative cells

A

True

72
Q

Prokaryotic cells do not contain endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies, mitochondria, plastids, or membrane-bound vesicles

A

True

73
Q

In eukaryotic cells, ribosomal RNA (rRNA) molecules are manufactured in the nucleolus

A

True

74
Q

Which one of the following steps occurs during the multiplication of animal viruses, but not during the multiplication of bacteriophages
a. assembly
b. biosynthesis
c. penetration
d. uncoating

A

D. uncoating

75
Q

Which one of the following diseases or groups of diseases is not caused by prions?
a. certain plant diseases
b. chronic wasting disease of deer and elk
c. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease of humans
d. mad cow disease

A

A. certain plant diseases

76
Q

Most prokaryotic cells reproduce by
a. binary fission
b. budding
c. gamete production
d. spore formation

A

A. binary fission

77
Q

The group of bacteria that lack rigid cell walls and take on irregular shape is
a. chlamydias
b. mycobacteria
c. mycoplasmas
d. rickettsias

A

C. mycoplasmas

78
Q

At the end of the Gram staining procedure, Gram-positive bacteria will be
a. blue to purple
b. green
c. orange
d. pink to red

A

a. blue to purple

79
Q

Which one of the following statements about rickettsias is false
a. diseases caused by rickettsias are arthropod borne
b. rickets is caused by a rickettsia species
c. rickettsia species cause typhus and typhus-like diseases
d. rickettsias have leaky membranes

A

B. Rickets is caused by a rickettsia species

80
Q

Which one of the following statements about Chlamydia and Chlamydophila spp. is false
a. they are obligate intracellular pathogens
b. they are considered to be ‘energy parasites’
c. the disease they cause are all arthropod borne
d. they are considered to be gram-negative bacteria

A

D. the diseases they cause are all arthropod borne

81
Q

Which one of the following statements about cyanobacteria is false
a. Although cyanobacteria are photosynthetic, they do not produce oxygen as a result of photosynthesis
b. at one time, cyanobacteria were called blue-green algae
c. some cyanobacteria are capable of nitrogen fixation
d. some cyanobacteria are important medically because they produce toxins

A

A. although cyanobacteria are photosynthetic, they do not produce oxygen as a result of photosynthesis

82
Q

Which one of the following statements about archaea is false
a. Archaea are more closely related to eukaryotes than they are to bacteria
b. both archaea and bacteria are prokaryotic organisms
c. some archaea live in extremely hot evironments
d. the cell walls of archaea contain a thicker layer of peptidoglycan than the cell walls of bacteria

A

D. the cell walls of archaea contain a thicker layer of peptidoglycan than the cell walls of bacteria

83
Q

An organism that does not require oxygen, grows better in the absence of oxygen, but can survive in atmospheres containing some molecular oxygen is known as an
a. aerotolerant anaerobe
b. capnophile
c. facultative anaerobe
d. microaerophile

A

A. aerotolerant anerobe

84
Q

Spherical bacteria arranged in pairs are. called

A

Diplococci

85
Q

Rod-shaped bacteria arranged in chains are called

A

Streptobacilli

86
Q

Spherical bacteria arranged in clusters are called

A

Staphylococci

87
Q

Rod-shaped bacteria arranged in pairs are called

A

Diplobacilli

88
Q

Spherical bacteria arranged in chains are called

A

Streptococci

89
Q

The bacteria that cause syphilis and Lyme disease are

A

Spirochetes

90
Q

_______ are obligate intracellular pathogens that cause diseases such as trachoma, inclusion conjunctivitis and urethritis

A

Chlamydias

91
Q

________ are photosynthetic

A

Cyanobacteria

92
Q

___________ have no cell walls

A

Mycoplasmas

93
Q

_________ are obligate intracellular pathogens that cause diseases such as typhus and Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A

Rickettsias

94
Q

All diseases caused by Rickettsia spp. are arthropod-borne

A

True

95
Q

Rickettsia spp. and Chlamydia spp. cannot be grown on artificial media

A

True

96
Q

HIV is an enveloped, single-stranded RNA virus

A

True

97
Q

Organisms in the genus Vibrio are curved bacilli

A

True

98
Q

Which of the following statements are true about algae and fungi
a. algae are photosynthetic, whereas fungi are not
b. algal cell walls contain cellulose, whereas fungal cell walls do not
c. fungal cell walls contain chitin, whereas algal cell walls do not
d. all of the about

A

D. all of the above

99
Q

All of the following are algae except
a. desmids
b. diatoms
c. dinoflagellates
d. sporozoa

A

D. sporozoa

100
Q

All of the following are fungi except
a. moulds
b. amebas
c. microsporidia
d. yeasts

A

B. amebas

101
Q

A protozoan may possess any of the following except
a. cilia
b. flagella
c. hyphae
d. pseudopodia

A

C. hyphae

102
Q

Which of the following terms is not associated with fungi
a. conidia
b. hyphae
c. mycelium
d. pellicle

A

D. pellicle

103
Q

All of the following terms can be used to describe hyphae except
a. aerial and reproductive
b. septate and aseptate
c. sexual and asexual
d. vegetative

A

C. sexual and asexual

104
Q

A lichen usually represents a symbiotic relationship between
a. a fungus and an ameba
b. a yeast and an ameba
c. an alga and a cyanobacteria
d. an alga and a fungus

A

D. an alga and a fungus

105
Q

A stigma is a
a. light-sensing organelle
b. primitive mouth
c. thickened membrane
d. type of plastid

A

A. light-sensing organelle

106
Q

If a dimorphic fungus is causing a respiratory infection, which of the following might be seen in a sputum specimen from that patient
a. amebae
b. conidia
c. hyphae
d. yeasts

A

D. yeasts

107
Q

Which one of the following is not a fungus
a. Aspergillus
b. Candida
c. Penicillium
d. Prototheca

A

D. Prototheca

Microbiology (3 decks)

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