Microbiology Exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What did Leewenhoek do?

A

He created the simple one lens microscope using medium magnification- he named cells animolecules

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2
Q

Robert Hooke

A

He created the compound microscope using more than one lens. He looked at cork pieces under the compound microscope and coined the term “cells”

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3
Q

What did Koch do

A

He found that postulates were the cause of disease and said that certain microorganisms caused certain diseases “one microbe, one disease”- found tuberculosis, anthrax, and cholera

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4
Q

What did Koch do

A

He found that postulates were the cause of disease and said that certain microorganisms caused certain diseases “one microbe, one disease”- found tuberculosis, anthrax, and cholera

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5
Q

What did Semmelweis do

A

He advocated hand washing especially after touching infected cadavers. He observed higher mortality rates in birthing hospitals that examined cadavers

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6
Q

What did Lister do

A

He advocated hand washing carboxylic acid (wasn’t safe for Dr’s but safe for patients

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7
Q

What did John Snow do?

A

He was known as the father of epidemiology, tracked cholera outbreak back to a water pump

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8
Q

What did Jenner do

A

He created a small pox vaccine

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9
Q

What did Nightengale

A

She was a nurse who advocated for antiseptic technique during the Crimean war lowering soldier mortality rates and founded the Nightengale School of Nursing

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10
Q

What did Ehrlich do

A

He was known as the father of chemotherapy, he wanted to create a “magic bullet” drug that kill the pathogen but not the host

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11
Q

What did Pasteur and Redi prove

A

They proved spontaneous generation was not correct

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12
Q

What was Pasteur’s experiment

A

He put a nutrient rich broth called infusion into a swan neck flask and boiled it to kill microorganisms, then when do microorganisms grew, he tipped the flask on its side allowing microorganism trapped in the flask to go inside

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13
Q

What was Redi’s experiment

A

Redi used three jars containing meat: one was open, one had gauze over it, and one was sealed shut. After a few days, he noticed maggots in the open jar, maggots on top of the gauze, and no maggots in the sealed jar

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14
Q

What is Linneas’s naming rule

A

The name is Genus species either underlined or italicized

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15
Q

What did Linneas do

A

He created a taxonomy of 3 kingdoms: plant, animal, mineral.
Gave order to taxonomy: Kingdom, class, order, family, genus, species. Said 70% same homology = same species

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16
Q

What did Haeckel do

A

He proposed two additional kingdoms: protista and monera.
Added plants and fungi as well?

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17
Q

What did Whittaker do

A

He created the fifth kingdom, fungi. He distinguished between eukaryotes (nucleus) and prokaryotes (No nucleus, membrane bound organelles). He also created 2 classifications above kingdom, super kingdom and empire

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18
Q

What did Woese and Fox discover

A

They discovered ribosomal RNA (rRNA 16S was highly conserved and easier to access than DNA. They created the third domain Archaea so 3 are Bacteria, Archaea, and Eucarya

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19
Q

What was Otzi the Iceman found to have (3 diseases)

A
  1. Trichuris trichiura
  2. Borrelia burgdorferi (lyme disease)
  3. Piptoporus betulinus
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20
Q

What were the ideas of why disease occured

A

Vengeful gods and miasmas

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21
Q

What did Hippocrates believe

A

He created the humoral cause of disease
ex) Cold and dry = black earth bile

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22
Q

What did Marcus Varro believe

A

That microbes caused disease

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23
Q

What did Thucydides believe

A

Noticed people who survived illnesses the first time, were less affected by it another time

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24
Q

Spallanzani’s experiment

A

He wanted to disprove spontaneous generation. He tried heating broth in open and closed vials and the one exposed to air had microorganisms

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25
Q

What additional things did Koch do? (7)

A

Simple staining techniques
First photomicrograph of bacteria
First photograph of bacteria in diseased tissue
Techniques for estimating bacterial number in a solution
Use of steam to sterilize growth media
Use of Petri dishes
Bacteria as distinct species

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26
Q

Wavelength of radiation in Gamma, radio, visible light

A

Gamma: 10^-12 to 10^-8
Radio: 10 to 10^-3
Visible light: 400nm to 700nm

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27
Q

Define refraction

A

This is when light bends as it goes through different mediums

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28
Q

Resolution

A

This is the measure of how close two objects can be while still seeing them as separate objects

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29
Q

Contrast

A

The difference in intensity of the background and the object or two objects

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30
Q

Wavelength

A

Distance between two peaks

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31
Q

Amplitude

A

Distance from top to bottom of peak

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32
Q

Frequency

A

Rate of vibration of wave

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33
Q

Interference

A

Light waves interacting with eachother

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34
Q

Diffraction

A

Light waves interacting with objects

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35
Q

Refractive Index

A

The measure of refraction compared to “empty space”

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36
Q

Numerical apiture

A

The lens’s ability to gather light

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37
Q

Gram stain primary and secondary dyes

A

Primary, positive = crystal violet
Secondary, negative = safranin

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38
Q

Focal point

A

where the light entering the lens is parallel

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39
Q

What is oil immersion used for

A

In light microscopy, is has a similar refractive index as glass reducing light scatter and increasing resolution

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40
Q

Light microscopy

A

Uses light to visualize images, has a condenser lens, multiple magnification of ocular lens with objective lens. 1-2 ocular lenses

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41
Q

Dark field microscopy (a type of light microscopy)

A

makes a dark background and light object, works for paler bacteria, increasing contrast and details

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42
Q

Fluorescence microscope (a type of light microscopy)

A
  1. This uses direct UV light
  2. specimen radiates energy back as a longer, visible wavelength
  3. UV light increases resolution and contrast
  4. Some cells are naturally fluorescent; others must be stained
  5. Used in immunofluorescence to identify pathogens and to make visible a variety of proteins
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43
Q

Fluorescent dyes used

A

Blue-DAPI red-FITC green-TRITC

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44
Q

Confocal microscopes (a type of light microscopy)

A

Use fluorescent dyes
Use UV lasers to illuminate fluorescent chemicals in a single plane
Resolution increased because emitted light passes through pinhole aperture
Computer constructs 3-D image from digitized images

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45
Q

2 types of electron microscopy

A

TEM: transmission electron
SEM: scanning electron

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46
Q

Benefits of electron microscopes and what detailed view does it have

A

Magnifies objects 10,000× to 100,000×
Better resolving power and magnification
Detailed views of bacteria, viruses, internal cellular structures, molecules, and large atoms

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47
Q

Difference between TEM and SEM electron microscopes

A

TEM electrons go through specimen to magnetic lens
SEM electrons bounce off specimen

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48
Q

Simple vs differential stain

A

Simple, one dye
Differential, multiple dyes

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49
Q

What does staining accomplish

A

It allows us to see size, arrangement, and shape of cells

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50
Q

What does differential staining accomplish

A

Distinguishes between different cells, chemicals, or structures

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51
Q

4 types of differential stain

A

Gram stain
Acid-fast stain
Endospore stain
Histological stains

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52
Q

2 common stains for histological staining

A

Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) stain
Hematoxylin and eosin (HE) stain

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53
Q

What do special stains do and list 3

A

They view microbial structures
1. negative
2. flagellar
3. fluorescent

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54
Q

What chemicals are used for electron staining and what is the purpose

A

It uses heavy metals, and it binds the specimen to the background

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55
Q

What 4 things do all cells posses

A

Cytoplasm, membrane. ribosomes, DNA

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56
Q

4 processes of life

A

Growth
Reproduction
Metabolism
Responsiveness

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57
Q

Structure of a phospholipid

A

It has a hydrophilic (polar) head and a hydrophobic (non-polar) tail

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58
Q

What are the 4 compounds that make up the phospholipid

A

saturated fatty acid tail, glycerol “neck”, phosphate + organic group head

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59
Q

Iso-, hyper-, and hypotonic environment differences

A

isotonic-same solution concentration on both sides
Hypertonic- A larger amount of concentration on one side-particles will leave creating crenation
Hypotonic- A smaller amount of concentration on one side- particles will go to this side expanding the cell causing it to lyse

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60
Q

Simple vs facilitated diffusion

A

facilitated diffusion- ions go through channels going both directions
simple- ions pass through the phospholipids

61
Q

specific vs non-specific facilitated diffusion

A

specific- only certain ions can pass through

62
Q

Uniport, symport, antiport active transport

A

Uniport- one ion one direction
symport- two ions same directions
antiport- two ions different direction

63
Q

Coupled transport

A

this is when energy can be used from one ion allowing another ion to come through the channel

64
Q

Prokaryotic ribosomes are made of

A

30S small subunit and 50S large subunit each made of protein and RNA components

65
Q

Eukaryote ribosomes components

A

80S: 60S large subunit and 40S small subunit

66
Q

Difference between eukaryotic vs prokaryotic ribosomes

A

Prokaryotes- free floating, smaller,
Eukaryotes- membrane bound, larger, facilitate translation

67
Q

DNA is located in the ___ of the Eukaryotic cell, whereas its in the ___ in a prokaryotic cell

A

nucleus, nucleoid

68
Q

Since DNA in a prokaryotic cell is in the nucleoid, how does this affect its function

A

It can transcribe DNA and make protein at the same time

69
Q

List the 9 structures unique to eukaryotic organisms

A
  1. nucleus 2. Golgi 3. Smooth and 4. rough endoplasmic reticulum 5. mitochondria 6. cytoplasmic membrane 7. cytoskeleton 8. lysosomes 9. nuclear envelope
70
Q

Function of the mitochondria

A

produces most of cells ATP

71
Q

3 parts of mitochondria

A

1.outer membrane 2. inner membrane 3. matrix

72
Q

Endosymbiotic theory

A

Eukaryotes formed from union of small aerobic prokaryotes with larger anaerobic prokaryotes
Smaller prokaryotes became internal
lost ability to exist independently
dependent on for aerobic ATP production
Aerobic prokaryotes evolved into mitochondria
Similar origin of chloroplasts

73
Q

Evidence for endosymbiotic theory

A

Divide by binary fission
Both have their own genome
More closely resembles prokaryote genome
Single circular DNA
No histones
Ribosomes more closely resemble prokaryote
70S vs 80S
Antibiotics that target/inhibit prokaryote ribosomes inhibit mitochondria ribosomes

74
Q

7 arrangements of prokaryotic cells

A

1.coccus (single coccus) 2. diplococcus (two coccus) 3. tetrad (4 cells in square) 4. streptococcus (chain of cocci) 5. staphylococcus (cluster of cocci) 6. bacillus (single rod) 7. streptobacillus (chain of rods)

75
Q

6 prokaryotic cell shapes

A
  1. coccus (round) 2. bacillus (rod) 3. vibrio (curved rod) 4. coccobacillus (short rod) 5. spirillum (spiral) 6. spirochete (long loose helix)
76
Q

What types of organisms are prokaryotic (2)

A

bacteria and archaea

77
Q

3 functions of bacterial cell wall

A

structure, protection, attachment

78
Q

What is the bacteria cell wall made of (2)

A

peptidoglycan and lipid membrane

79
Q

two basic types of bacterial cell wall

A

gram + and gram -

80
Q

difference between gram positive and gram negative cell wall

A

+ has peptidoglycan and a lipid membrane whereas - has a periplasmic space

81
Q

Where is LPS found on

A

gram negative bacteria

82
Q

LPS structure and orientation

A

it has an O-antigen, an outer core, and an inner core. The o antigen has 50-100 repeating subunits of polysaccharides. it has 4-7 polysaccharides per unit. it is on the outer membrane of gram negative

83
Q

LPS is an endotoxin because…

A

it binds the CD14/TLR4/MD2 receptor promotes secretion of proinflammatory things

84
Q

What are the 5 steps of gram staining

A

first heat fix specimen
1. crystal violet
2. grams iodine
3. acetone/ethanol
4. safranin

85
Q

Why does gram + stain purple and gram - stain pink?

A

Gram + has a thicker peptidoglycan layer

86
Q

Structure of glycocalyx

A

Its a capsule surrounding outside of the cell made of poly- saccharides and peptides or both
Its function is to

87
Q

two types of glycocalyx and their function

A

Capsule- firmly attached to cell, prevents bacteria from being recognized by the host
slime layer-loosely attached, water soluble, and allows prokaryotes to attach

88
Q

4 flagella arrangements

A

mono-, amphi-, lopho, peretri- trichous

89
Q

Run-and-tumble movement of flagella

A

Run-counter-clockwise rotation and moving forward
tumble- clockwise rotation, flagella separate

90
Q

spirochetes flagella 4 parts

A

cell membrane, outer membrane, endoflagella, and axial filament

91
Q

chemotaxis

A

overall directional movement toward the higher concentration of the attractant.​

92
Q

5 inclusions

A
  1. volutin
  2. sulfur
  3. PHB
  4. magnetosomes
  5. carboxysome
93
Q

describe 4 parts of flagella

A

Tip- end of filament
Hook- what connects the body to the filament
Filament- long thing attached to flagella
Basal Body- the whole body of the flagella

94
Q

Structure and function of fimbriae

A

Bristle like projections, shorter than flagella, creates biofilms allowing bacteria to adhere to each other

95
Q

Structure and function of pili

A

bacteria have 1-2 per cell, longer than fimbriae shorter than flagella, they transfer DNA between bacteria cells

96
Q

4 things a virus has

A

genetic material- RNA or DNA
protein coat- capsid or capsomere
Obligate intracellular- due to host and cell specificity and tropism
can’t successfully reproduce

97
Q

3 virus shapes

A

complex, helical, polyhedral

98
Q

virus capsid structure

A

individual proteins to create a large subunit

99
Q

Viral envelope is composed of 2 things

A

Composed of phospholipid bilayer and viral specific proteins (glyco-spike proteins)

100
Q

Enveloped viruses are more ___ than naked viruses

A

fragile

101
Q

Envelopes of viruses play a role in ___ recognition

A

host

102
Q

external glycoproteins on viruses dictates what?

A

Which cells are targeted- tropism

103
Q

Where can glycoproteins be imbedded (2)

A

envelope or capsid

104
Q

Negative sense RNA must do what to allow for translation to occur

A

Must convert into positive sense for translation to occur

105
Q

top 2 important classifications for viruses

A

nucleic acid and presence of an envelope

106
Q

6 stages of viral replication

A

Attachment
Entry/penetration
Uncoating
Biosynthesis
Assembly
Release/Budding

107
Q

What does the first step of viral replication, attachment entail?

A

tropism- done through receptor on host and molecular structure on virus

108
Q

In the second step of viral replication, entry occurs through what 2 ways

A
  1. it tricks the cell into thinking it needs to do endocytosis
  2. membrane fusion
109
Q

entry via membrane fusion occurs in what type of virus

A

enveloped viruses

110
Q

In the viral replication steps, synthesis does what

A

the goal of the virus is to make genetic material for progeny (offspring)

111
Q

The fifth step in viral replication, assembly, when does this occur

A

When there’s a sufficient amount of proteins it occurs

112
Q

Difference in assembly of enveloped vs naked viruses

A

naked viruses leave when the cell lyses and dies
Enveloped leave via budding, pinching off or exocytosis- take pieces to get through

113
Q

For genome replication, DNA viruses require ___

A

RNA polymerases

114
Q

How do DNA viruses get ahold of RNA polymerases

A

they go into the nucleus since this is where DNA to RNA occurs for genome replication

115
Q

What are retro viruses

A

The start as positive sense viruses and are able to convert RNA back into DNA. it integrates its own DNA in yours through viral integrase

116
Q

List the 5 viral effects on its host

A
  1. Lytic infection- cell lyses and dies
  2. Latent infection- the virus stays present but isn’t infecting (cold sores)
  3. Cell fusion
  4. Persistent infection is a slow release of virus and doesn’t leave host
  5. Transformation/cancer development- tumor cell created and divides
117
Q

viroid

A

Circular pieces of self replicating RNA

118
Q

Virusoid

A

Non-self replicating ssRNA
Requires a “helper virus”- Hep B

119
Q

3 prion diseases that affect the PRNP protein found in the brain

A
  1. chronic wasting disease
  2. mad cow disease
  3. Creutzfeldt-Jacob Disease (CJD)
120
Q

what are prions made of

A

proteins

121
Q

3 ways someone can get prion diseases

A

sporadic , genetic, acquired

122
Q

2 things prions do

A
  1. cause neurodegenerative diseases
  2. replicate without DNA or RNA
123
Q

Prion diseases cause loss of ___ and ___ function

A

loss of coordination and cognitive function

124
Q

Accumulation of PrPsc causes brain tissue to take on a ___ appearance (for prion diseases)

A

spongy

125
Q

Prion diseases are always ___ and have no ___

A

always fatal and have no cure

126
Q

DNA viruses often have to be ___ into the nucleus

A

trafficked

127
Q

DNA viruses often causes these 3 effects on the host

A
  1. latency
  2. persistent infection
  3. cancer
128
Q

Which of the following organelles is not part of the endomembrane system?

A

peroxisome

129
Q

Which type of cytoskeletal fiber is important in the formation of the nuclear lamina?

A

intermediate filaments

130
Q

Sugar groups may be added to proteins in which of the following?

A

golgi apparatus

131
Q

Which of the following structures of a eukaryotic cell is not likely derived from endosymbiotic bacterium?

A

outer membrane

132
Q

Which of the following is not composed of microtubules?

A

desmosomes

133
Q

T/F: Mitochondria in eukaryotic cells contain ribosomes that are structurally similar to those found in prokaryotic cells.

A

true

134
Q

Microfilaments are composed of ______________ monomers.

A

actin

135
Q

Who wrote the general morphology of organisms

A

Ernst Haechel

136
Q

Low G+C gram positive bacteria 3

A

Lactobacillales
streptococcus
clostridia

137
Q

High G+C gram positive bacteria (3)

A

Streptomyces
Mycobacterium
Bifidobacterium

138
Q

some Bacteroides can break down ___ an example of this is ___ ___

A

cellulose, grazing mammals

139
Q

Gram negative alphaproteobacteria example

A

oligotrophs- chlamydia

140
Q

Gram negative betaproteobacteria

A

Eu- and copiotrophs. Neisseria

141
Q

Gram negative gammaproteobacteria

A

Enterics- vibrio and Escherichia

142
Q

Gram negative gammaproteobacteria are the largest group in terms of # of ___

A

species

143
Q

Epsilonproteobacteria is the ___ group in terms of species

A

smallest

144
Q

Epsilonproteobacteria gram negative 2 examples

A

Bacteroides and spirochetes

145
Q

Bacteroides are important in human and grazing mammal _

A

guts

146
Q

Gram negative nonproteobacteria that is phototrophic is

A

cyanobacteria

147
Q

Gram positives bacteria high G+C

A

class: actinobacteria
genus: streptomyces
genus: mycobacterium

148
Q

Gram positive low G+C bacteria (1 with class,order,genus & 1 with class and 2 genus)

A

Class: clostridium Order: lactobacillales Genus: streptococcus
Class: bacilli Genus: staphylococcus Genus: bacillus

149
Q

What does G+C refer to?

A

The proportion of guanine and cytosine nucleotides