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First Aid Step 1 > Microbiology (Basic Bacteriology) > Flashcards

Microbiology (Basic Bacteriology) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the flagellum made of? What is its function?

A

Proteins; Motility

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2
Q

What is the Pilus/Fimbria made of? What is its function?

A

Glycoprotein;

1) Adherance
2) Conjugation

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3
Q

List the 4 components of a spore

A

1) Keratin-like coat
2) Dipicolinic acid
3) Peptidoglycan
4) DNA

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4
Q

What is the function of a spore?

A

Resists heat, dehydration, chemicals.

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5
Q

Are spores found in Gram + or Gram - bacteria?

A

Gram +

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6
Q

What is the capsule made of? What is its function?

A

Discrete layer of polysaccharides; Protection against phagocytosis

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7
Q

What is the slime layer made of? What is its function?

A

Loose network of polysaccharides;

1) Adherance
2) Biofilm formation

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8
Q

What are the components of the outer membrane? What do they contain?

A

1) Outer Leaflet: Endotoxins (LPS)
2) Embedded proteins: Porins and Outer Membrane Proteins (OMPs)
3) Inner Leaflet: Phospholipids

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9
Q

What is the function of endotoxin?

A

Induces TNF, IL-1, and antigenic O polysaccharide

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10
Q

What is the periplasm?

A

Space between the cytoplasmic membrane and the outer menbrane

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11
Q

Is the outer membrane found in Gram + or Gram - Bacteria?

A

Gram -

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12
Q

What is the function of the periplasm?

A

Accumulates components exiting Gram - cells, like hydrolytic enzymes (ex. B-Lactamase)

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13
Q

Are lipotechoic acids found in Gram + or Gram - bacteria?

A

Gram +

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14
Q

Gram + bacteria stain _____(violet/red), while Gram - bacteria stain _____ (violet/red).

A

Violet; Red

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15
Q

Which bacteria cannot be stained with a gram stain because they are too thin to be seen?

A

Treponema and Leptospira

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16
Q

Which bacteria cannot be stained with a gram stain because their cell wall has high lipid content?

A

Mycobacteria

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17
Q

Which bacteria cannot be stained with a gram stain because they do not have a cell wall?

A

Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma

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18
Q

Which 6 bacteria cannot be stained with a gram stain because they are mostly intracellular?

A

1) Legionella
2) Rickettsia
3) Chlamydia
4) Bartonella
5) Anaplasma
6) Ehrlichia

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19
Q

Which bacteria cannot be stained with a gram stain because they lack peptidoglycan?

A

Chlamydia

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20
Q

Which 6 bacteria stain with Giemsa stain?

A

1) Chlamydia
2) Rickettsia
3) Trypanosomes
4) Borrelia
5) H. Pylori
6) Plasmodium

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21
Q

What does the Periodic Acid Schiff (PAS) stain target?

A

Glycogen and mucopolysaccharides

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22
Q

What disease does PAS stain diagnose? Which bacteria causes it?

A

Whipple disease; Tropheryma whipplei

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23
Q

Which stain is used for acid-fast bacteria?

A

Ziehl-Neelson stain (Carbol fuschin)

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24
Q

Give 3 examples of acid-fast bacteria.

A

1) Mycobacteria
2) Nocardia
3) Protozoa (Cryptosporidium oocysts)

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25
Q

What is a better alternative to the Ziehl-Neelson stain?

A

Auramine-rhodamine

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26
Q

Which stain is used for Cryptosporidium neoformans?

A

India Ink

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27
Q

Silver stain is used for which organisms?

A

1) Fungi (Coccidioides, Pneumocystis jirovecii..etc.)
2) Legionella
3) H. Pylori

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28
Q

Fluorescent Antibody stain is used for many bacteria and viruses such as:

A

1) Pneumocystis jirovecci
2) Giardia
3) Cryptosporidium

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29
Q

Give an example of a fluorescent antibody stain.

A

FTA-ABS for syphilis

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30
Q

Growth media can either be:

A

Selective or Indicator/differential

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31
Q

A selective growth media _____(changes color/inhibits growth of other organisms) while an indicator or differential media _____(changes color/inhibits growth of other organisms)

A

Inhibits growth of other organisms; changes color.

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32
Q

Which media does H. Influenza need? What are the special factors?

A

Chocolate agar; Factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin)

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33
Q

What are the antiobiotics added to the Thayer- Martin Agar in order to make it selective for N. meningitidis and N. gonorrhoeae?

A

1) Vancomycin to inhibit Gram + bacteria
2) Trumethoprim & Colistin for other Gram - bacteria
3) Nystatin for fungi

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34
Q

Bordet-Gengoi agar and Regan-Lowe medium is used to culture which bacteria?

A

Bordetella pertussis

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35
Q

Which media is made up of potato extract, charcoal, blood, and antibiotics?

A

Bordet-Gengou agar

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36
Q

What media are used for Clostridium diphtheriae?

A

Tellurite agar; Löffler medium

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37
Q

Which 3 media are used for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

1) Löwenstein-Jenson
2) Middlebrook
3) Rapid Automated Broth

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38
Q

Eaton agar requires:

a) Gylcerol
b) Proteins
c) Cholesterol
d) Iron

A

C) Cholesterol

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39
Q

E. coli needs ____ (Sabourad agar/Eosin-methylene blue agar) and produces a ____(pink/green) color when fermented.

A

Eosin-methylene blue agar; green

40
Q

What media do lactose-fermenting enterics need?

A

MacConkey agar

41
Q

Lactose-fermenting enterics

A
42
Q

The bacteria cultured in MacConkey agar produce acid that turns the colonies ____ (blue/purple/pink)

A

Pink

43
Q

Which 4 bacteria are cultured in charcoal yeast extract buffered with cysteine and iron?

A

1) Brucella
2) Francisella
3) Legionella
4) Pasteurella

44
Q

Which media do fungi need?

A

Sabourad agar

45
Q

List 4 aerobic bacteria

A

1) Nocardia
2) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
4) Bordetella pertussis

46
Q

Which of the following is anaerobic?

a) Bordetella pertussis
b) Clostridium botulinum
c) Nocardia
d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

B) Clostridium botulinum

47
Q

List 4 anaerobes.

A

1) Clostridium
2) Bacteroids
3) Fusobacteria
4) Actinomyces israelii

48
Q

What are the 3 characteristics of anaerobic bacteria?

A

1) Foul smelling
2) Difficult to culture
3) Produce gas (CO2 & H2O) in tissue

49
Q

Which drugs are useless against anaerobes?

A

Aminoglycosides

50
Q

One of the following is incorrect:

a) Clostridium produces gas in tissues
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa depends on oxygen for ATP production
c) Anaerobes are easy to culture
d) Fusobacteria is an example of an anaerobic bacteria

A

C) Anaerobes are easy to culture

51
Q

Which 3 bacteria are facultative anaerobes?

A

1) Staphylococcus
2) Streptococcus
3) Enteric Gram - bacteria

52
Q

Name 3 obligate intracellular bacteria

A

1) Rickettsia
2) Chlamydia
3) Coxiella

53
Q

Name 8 facultative intracellularbacteria.

A

1) Salmonella
2) Neisseria
3) Brucella
4) Mycobacterium
5) Listeria
6) Francisella
7) Legionella
8) Yersinia pestis

54
Q

Which 3 encapsulated bacteria need or have vaccines?

A

1) Streptococcus pneumoniae
2) Haemophilus influenza Type B
3) Neisseria meningitidis

55
Q

Which organ opsonizes and clears encapsulated bacteria?

A

The spleen.

56
Q

List 8 encapsulated bacteria.

A

1) Strep. Pneumoniae
2) Pseudomonas aeruginoa
3) H. Influenza Type B
4) Neisseria meningitidis
5) E. Coli
6) Salmonella
7) Klebsiella pneumoniae
8) Group B Strep.

57
Q

Capsules are antiphagocytic virulence factors. What do we add to them to make antigenic vaccines?

A

Capsular polysaccharide + protein conjugate.

58
Q

Asplenics have higher risk fot severe infections. Why?

A

Because they have less opsonizing ability = less clearance for encapsulated bacteria.

59
Q

Which of these caccines does NOT have a protein conjugate?

a) PCV13
b) PPSV23
c) H. Influenza type B vaccine
d) meningococcal vaccine

A

B) PPSV23

60
Q

What does urease do?

A

Urease hydrolyzes urea = releases ammonia and carbon dioxide = increased pH.

61
Q

Which bacterial enzyme predisposes yo struvite stones?

A

Urease.

62
Q

Which bacteria particularly disposes to struvite stones?

A

Proteus.

63
Q

List 8 bacteria that are urease positive.

A

1) Proteus
2) Nocardia
3) Cryptococcus
4) H. Pylori
5) Ureaplasma
6) Klebsiella
7) Staph. Epidermis
8) Staph. Saprophyticus

64
Q

What does catalase do?

A

Catalase degrades hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen BEFORE it can be converted by myeloperoxidase.

65
Q

People with what disease have recurrent infections with catalase + organisms?

A

Chronic granulomatous disease (NADPH oxidase deficiency)

66
Q

Give 11 examples of catalse + organisms.

A

1) Nocardia
2) Staphylococcus
3) Serratia
4) Candida
5) Listeria
6) E. Coli
7) Burkholderia cepacia
8) Pseudomonas
9) Aspergillus
10) H. Pylori
11) Bordetella pertussis

67
Q

What color is Actinomyces israelii?

A

It has yellow sulfur granules made up of filaments, giving it the color yellow.

68
Q

What color is Staph. aureus?

A

Golden yellow

69
Q

What color is Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Blue-green (pyocyanin&pyoverdin)

70
Q

What color is Serratia marcescens?

A

Red

71
Q

Which 4 bacteria form biofilms?

A

1) Staph. Epidermis
2) Viridans strep. (mutans&sanguinis)
3) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
4) Nontypable (unencapsulated) H. Influenza

72
Q

Where does S. Epidermis form biofilms?

A

On catheters and prosthetics.

73
Q

Where do Viridans strep (mutans&sanguinis) form biofilms?

A

Dental plaques and heart (infective endocarditis)

74
Q

Where does P. aeruginosa form biofilms?

A

Respiratory tree in people with cystic fibrosis, ventilator pneumonia, and comtact lens (keratitis)

75
Q

Where does nontypable H. Influenza form biofilms?

A

Ear (otitis media)

76
Q

What gives spores their heat resisting property?

A

Dipiclonic acid

77
Q

Why do some bacteria form spores?

A

Because nutrients are limited

78
Q

Give 2 ways spores can be killed

A

1) Autoclaving by steaming at 121C for 15 minutes.

2) By hydrogen peroxide and iodine-based agents.

79
Q

Name 6 spore-forming bacteria.

A

1) B. anthracis
2) B. cereus
3) C. botulinum
4) C. difficile
5) C. perfringens
6) C. tetani

80
Q

Name the 3 bacterial virulence factors that promote evasion of the immune response.

A

1) Protein A
2) IgA Protease
3) M Protein

81
Q

Protein A, explain:

a) Mode of operation
b) Function
c) Bacterial examples

A

a) Binds to the Fc region of IgG
b) Prevents opsonization and phagocytosis
c) S. aureus

82
Q

IgA Protease, explain:

a) Mode of operation
b) Function
c) Bacterial examples

A

a) An enzyme that cleaves IgA
b) Allows adhesion and colonization of mucus membranes
c) S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, B. neisseria

83
Q

What is the function of M protein? Give bacterial examples.

A

Help pevent phagocytosis; Group A strep.

84
Q

M protein shows molecular mimicry with which 2 human proteins?

A

Topomyosin & Myosin

85
Q

Which protein underlies the autoimmune response in Rheumatic Fever?

A

M protein

86
Q

List the 4 types of DNA transfers in bacteria.

A

1) Transformation
2) Conjugation
3) Transduction
4) Transposition

87
Q

Give 3 examples of bacteria that use transformation.

A

1) S. Pneumoniae
2) H. Influenzae Type B
3) Neisseria

88
Q

Which enzyme inhibits transformation due to degradation of DNA?

A

Deoxyribonuclease.

89
Q

Transformation is the inportant of what kind of DNA?

A

Short, naked, chromosomal DNA

90
Q

What encodes for the sex pilus?

A

Plasmid.

91
Q

What are the 2 types of conjugation?

A

1) F+ x F-

2) Hfr x F-

92
Q

F+xF- Conjugation is the transfer of which kind of DNA?

A

Single strand of plasmid DNA.

93
Q

F+ x F- conjugation ends up with both bacteria being:

a) F+
b) F-
c) Stay the same

A

A) F+

94
Q

Which one has the sex pilus? The F+ bacteria or the F- bacteria?

A

The F+ bacteria.

95
Q

Explain Hfr x F- conjugation.

A

The plasmid first incorporates itself into the bacterial chromosomal DNA = High frequency recombination cell.
Then this mix of genes transfers to the other cell.

96
Q

Hfr x F- conjugation ends up with the receiving bacteria being ___(F+/F-)

A

F-; but it may have new bacterial genes.

97
Q

What are the 2 types of Transduction?

A

1) Generalized

2) Specialized

First Aid Step 1 (4 decks)

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