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Dental Hygienist ! 🦷🪥 > Microbiology and Immunology 🦠 > Flashcards

Microbiology and Immunology 🦠 Flashcards

1
Q

The scientific study of microorganisms

A

Microbiology

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2
Q

Gram positive staining is what color?

A

Blue

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3
Q

Gram negative staining is what color?

A

Red or pink

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4
Q

What are bacteria original color ?

A

Colorless they have no color (naked to the human eye)

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5
Q

What is the most useful technique in determining bacteria?

A

Gram staining technique

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6
Q

Characteristics of gram positive bacteria

A

Thick
Two layered
No porin channels
No periplasmic space
No endotoxins
Susceptible to breakdown by penicillin and lysosomes

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7
Q

Characteristics of gram negative bacteria

A

Thin
Three layered
Porin channels
Periplasmic space
Endotoxin (outer membrane)
Not susceptible to breakdown of penicillin or lysosomes

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8
Q

All organisms are susceptible to the gram staining technique
True or false

A

False

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9
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is covered with an unusual waxy coating on the cell surface primarily made of ______ which makes it impervious to gram staining

A

Mycolic acid

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10
Q

What technique is used to identify mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

The acid-fast technique

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11
Q

Treponema pallidum bacteria causes what pathogen?

A

Syphilis

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12
Q

Borrelia Burgdoferi bacteria causes what type of pathogen?

A

Lyme disease

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13
Q

Spirochetes require what technique to be identified?

A

Dark field microscopy

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14
Q

What bacteria is associated with the oral disease NUG and NUP?

A

Treponema denticola, fusobacterium, p. Gingivalis, and p. Intermedia

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15
Q

Spherical shaped organisms are which bacteria?

A

Coccus or cocci

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16
Q

Rod-like shaped organisms are which bacteria?

A

Bacillus or bacilli (also referred to as rods)

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17
Q

Lacking distinct shape is called

A

Pleiomorphic

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18
Q

Spiral-shaped organisms are which bacteria?

A

Spirochetes

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19
Q

This type of bacteria require oxygen to survive are:

A

Aerobes

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20
Q

The type of bacteria that DO NOT require oxygen to survive are:

A

Anerobes

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21
Q

Where do gram negative bacteria live?

A

Deep within your gingival crevicular fluid (below the gum line)

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22
Q

Give me two obligate anerobes bacteria

A

Provotella intermedia and porphyromonas gingivalis

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23
Q

Give me three obligate aerobe bacteria

A

Neisseria, pseudomonas, mycobacterium

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24
Q

P. Intermedia and P. Gingivalis are both gram _____ so they live _____ the gum line and

A

Negative, below

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25
Q

The most commonly used source of energy and carbon for BOTH humans AND bacteria is

A

Glucose

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26
Q

P. Gingivalis produced ________ which is an enzyme capable of breaking down collagen in connective tissue and PDL fibers

A

Collagenase

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27
Q

P. Intermedia are involved in all types of hormonal gingivitis like pregnancy, puberty, etc
True or false

A

True

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28
Q

P. Intermedia causes _______ in gingivitis

A

Cellulitis (inflammation of the cells)

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29
Q

Neisseria causes what pathogen?

A

Gonnerhea

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30
Q

Neisseria is a gram negative cocci
True or false

A

True

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31
Q

Pseudomonas is a gram positive rod
True or false

A

True

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32
Q

What are facultative anaerobes?

A

They are bacteria that can survive with oxygen and without oxygen

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33
Q

Facultative anaerobes can grow in the absence of oxygen by using

A

Fermentation

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34
Q

_____ is a chemical processing way of extracting energy from carbohydrates in the absence of oxygen (anaerobe)

A

Fermentation

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35
Q

What are the MOST disease causing organisms ?

A

Facultative anaerobes

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36
Q

Give me three facultative anaerobes

A

Staplococcus, listeria, actinomyces

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37
Q

Listeria are gram ________

A

Positive rods

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38
Q

Coccus are present in _______ development in plaque formation

A

Early

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39
Q

Calcification according to the shape

A

Morphology

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40
Q

Obligate aerobes produce these enzymes in order to protect themselves from the environment

A

Catalase, peroxidase, and superoxide dismutase

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41
Q

This cycle is a series of chemical reactions that take place in the mitochondria and is used to release stored energy derived from glucose, fats and proteins

A

Krebs cycle

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42
Q

The metabolic process that breaks down glucose and produces ATP

A

Glycolysis

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43
Q

A molecule that carries energy within cells acting as a rechargeable battery for our body functions

A

ATP

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44
Q

What is is called when you can tolerant low amounts of oxygen?

A

Microaerophilic

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45
Q

Give me two bacteria’s that are microaerophilic

A

Streptococcus and spirochetes

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46
Q

Oral anerobes can live in a periodontal pocket but not in the sulcus
True or false

A

False they can live in the sulcus as well

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47
Q

Streptococcus bacteria are gram _______

A

Positive cocci

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48
Q

Cornebacterium bacteria are gram _____

A

Positive rods

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49
Q

Staphylococcus bacteria are gram _______

A

Positive cocci

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50
Q

Bacillus are gram _______

A

Positive rods

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51
Q

Clostridium are gram ____

A

Positive rods

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52
Q

Which bacteria causes tetanus “lockjaw”

A

Clostridium

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53
Q

Treponema pallidum are gram _____

A

Negative spiral

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54
Q

Borrelia Butgofonferi are gram ______

A

Negative spiral

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55
Q

Treponema denticola are gram _____

A

Negative spiral

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56
Q

Which bacteria is related to botulism ?

A

Clostridium

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57
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis is a swelling or inflammation of the colon due to an over growth of this bacteria

A

Clostridium or C. Difficile

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58
Q

Clindamycin has stop being recommended for pre meds prior to dental treatments because it has been known to cause an increase of what disease

A

Psuedomembranous colitis

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59
Q

Cornebacterium causes a condition called

A

Diphtheria

Bacterial infection that can cause damage to your heart, Kidneys, and nervous system

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60
Q

Listeria is located in contaminated foods and can lead to what two conditions

A

Meningitis and sepsis

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61
Q

_______ is the infection of meninges which is the protective tissues of the brain and spinal cord causing stiff neck, headaches, and fever

A

Meningitis

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62
Q

______ is a serious condition that happens when the body’s immune system has an extreme response to an infection

A

Sepsis

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63
Q

Non-mobile, microaerophile, gram positive cocci

A

Streptococcus bacteria

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64
Q

All streptococcal organisms are catalase positive
True or false

A

False
They are catalase negative meaning they do not contain catalase BUT they do contain superoxide dismutase and hyaluronidase

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65
Q

What two enzymes break down hydrogen peroxide

A

Catalase and peroxidase

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66
Q

What enzyme breaks down free radicals or superoxide radicals

A

Superoxide dismutase

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67
Q

“The spreading factor” that allows bacteria to breakdown the matrix of plaque and tissues

A

Hyaluronidase

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68
Q

Streptococcus bacteria are grouped together according to their ability to hemolyze _____

A

RBC’s

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69
Q

____ has the complete ability to breakdown RDC’s

A

Beta- hemolytic streptococcus

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70
Q

Which streptococcal group completely break down RBCs

A

Beta- hemolytic streptococcus

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71
Q

Which streptococcal group is unable to lose RBCs

A

Gamma hemolytic streptococcus

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72
Q

_____ can partially lyse or breakdown RBCs

A

Alpha-hemolytic streptococcus

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73
Q

Latin for green

A

Viridis “viridans”

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74
Q

Most of the viridans group are_________ hemolytic streptococcus

A

Alpha

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75
Q

Viridans or normal inhabitants of the __________ and _________

A

Nasopharynx and gingival crevices

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76
Q

What four streptococcus fit into the viridans sub group

A

Streptococcus mutans, mitis, sobrinus, and sanguinis

77
Q

What are the three main infections the viridans streptococcus is associated with

A

Dental infections like dental caries
Endocarditis
Abscesses

78
Q

Streptococcus mutans can cause periodontal disease
True or false

A

FALSE they cause dental caries in the pits and fissures

79
Q

What are two ways streptococcus mutans process sugar?

A
  1. They metabolize sugar to lactic acid which creates an acidic environment which can demineralize enamel
  2. Sucrose is also used to produce dextrans which allow the strep to adhere to the tooth and add to the volume of plaque.
80
Q

Streptococcus mutans can digest other sugars like glucose, fructose, and lactose and can still produce both lactic acid and dextrans
True or false

A

FALSE they can ONLY produce dextrans with sucrose

81
Q

Which streptococcus bacteria is the MAIN cause of endocarditis

A

Streptococcus mitis

82
Q

A variety of viridans are associated with abscesses and cellulitis of the brain, heart, and abdominal areas BUT which one MAINLY causes it?

A

Streptococccus sanguinis

83
Q

Streptococcus pyogens are gram _____

A

Positive cocci

84
Q

Which streptococcus bacteria is the causative for pharyngitis (strep throat), scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, tonsillitis, and cellulitis?

A

Streptococcus pyogens

85
Q

Streptococcus pyogens are facultative anaerobes
True or false

A

True

86
Q

Streptococcus pyogens are ______ hemolytic bacteria

A

Beta

87
Q

What bacteria is causative for periodontal disease?

A

P. Gingivalis

88
Q

Streptococcus pyogens produce two enzymes which are called

A
  1. Streptokinase
  2. Hyaluronidase
89
Q

______ causes clotting and the discoloration of the clot

A

Streptokinase

90
Q

Streptococcus sobrinus is a _____ hemolytic bacteria

A

Alpha

91
Q

Which streptococcus bacteria is the main cause of dental caries on smooth surfaces

A

Streptococcus sorbrinus

92
Q

Streptococcus mitis are _______ hemolytic bacteria

A

Alpha

93
Q

Streptococcus sanguinis are ________ hemolytic bacteria

A

Alpha

94
Q

Early plaque colonizer
Implicates dental caries, bacterial endocarditis, abscesses, pus
Which bacteria causes these?

A

Streptococcus sanguinis

95
Q

Streptococcus salivarius is a _______ hemolytic bacteria

A

Alpha

96
Q

Which bacteria is first to colonize an infants mouth?

A

Streptococcus salivarius

97
Q

What bacteria is associated with the tongue and saliva?

A

Streptococcus salivarius

98
Q

Strep pneumonia are _______ hemolytic bacteria

A

Alpha

99
Q

Which bacteria is causative for pneumonia

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

100
Q

Which bacteria can become encapsulated which makes it very resistant for destruction?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

101
Q

Staphylococcus bacteria are
A. Obligate aerobes
B. Obligate anaerobes
C. Facultative anerobes

A

C

102
Q

________ are catalase positive

A

Staphylococcus

103
Q

Spherical gram positive arranged in grape like cluster

A

Staphylococcus

104
Q

Which bacter is Penicillin G resistant?
Streptococcus or staphylococcus

A

Staphylococcus

105
Q

Staphylococcuus can typical form this type of lesion

HINT: Staph infections

A

Abscesses (pus)

106
Q

Staphylococcus aureus are gram _____

A

Positive cocci

107
Q

________ is the contribution to the breakdown of clotting and causing coagulation

A

Coagulase

108
Q

What bacteria hyaluronidase and spreads within the subcutaneous tissues and causing cellulitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

109
Q

What bacteria produced pigmented compounds called carotenoids

A

Staphylococcus aureus

110
Q

_________ produces leukocidins which breakdown WBCs which in turn creates pus

A

Staphylococcus aureus

111
Q

Which bacteria is the MOST resistant disease causing organism ?

A

MRSA or flesh eating bacteria

112
Q

Which two antibiotics are used to treat MRSA and only have been proven to work against it?

A

Vancomycin and Bactrium

113
Q

Lactobacillus are gram _______

A

Positive rods

114
Q

Once a tooth reaches to an advanced stage of being a various lesion what bacteria becomes present?

A

Lactobacillus

115
Q

Instead of dextrans this bacteria produces lexans which allows it to adhere to a various lesion of a tooth

A

Lactobacillus

116
Q

_______ used to be connected to root caries but no longer is studies have shown that both _______ and ________ have been predictive of the development of root surface lesions

A

Actinomyces viscosus
Streptococcus mutans and Lactobacillus

117
Q

What other three bacteria have been associated with the cause of root caries

A
  1. Propionibacterium acidifaciens
  2. Olsenella profusa
  3. Prevotella multisaccharivorax
118
Q

_______ is the causative agent of actinomycosis aka “lumpy jaw”

A

Actinomyces Israelii

119
Q

P. Intermedia are gram ________

A

Negative rods

120
Q

What bacteria area also associated with NUG and NUP and cause pericornitis

A

P. Intermedia

121
Q

What other bacteria is associated with pregnancy gingivitis?

A

C. Rectum

122
Q

Campylobacter rectus are gram _______

A

Negative rods

123
Q

What helps p. Gingivalis adhere to epithelial and tooth surfaces causing destruction?

A

Fimbrae

124
Q

___________ have anti- collagenase properties making them ideal treatment options for periodontal disease

A

Tetracycline like doxycycline or monocycline

125
Q

Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans or A.A are commonly known for the cause of

A

Aggressive periodontal disease

126
Q

Aggressive period affects which tooth FIRST?

A

Maxillary first molars

127
Q

Which bacteria belong in the red complex group this group is known to cause periodontal conditions

A

T. Denticola, T. Forsythia, P. Gingivalis

128
Q

Which bacteria are directly related to NUG and NUP

A

T. Denticola, P.intermedia, P. Gingivalis, Fusobacterium

129
Q

Which phase is the slow growth, and are accumulating BUT are not multiplying

A

Lag phase

130
Q

What phase is bacteria growing rapidly and multiplying

A

Log phase

131
Q

Which phase are bacteria MOST prone to breakdown by antimicrobial agents ?

A

Log phase

132
Q

What phase has no net increase or decrease in cell numbers but are just eating nutrients and excreting waste

A

Stationary phase

133
Q

What phase does the microbes die off

A

Death phase

134
Q

Most fungi are obligate _______

A

Aerobes

135
Q

______ require organic sources of carbon for their nutritional requirements and typically kill other cells and absorb their nutrients

A

Fungi

136
Q

Fungi are an _________ type of infection due to the fact of it naturally inhabiting our flora of skin and mucous membranes BUT can multiply when not suppressed

A

Opportunistic

137
Q

What fungi can be wiped off and has as a creamy white; cottage cheese appearance

A

Psuedomembranous candidiasis

138
Q

What fungi presents as red, ulcerative lesion

A

Erythematous candidiasis

139
Q

What other areas can candidiasis infect besides the oral cavity

A

Esophagus, heart, lungs, kidneys

140
Q

Topical treatments for candidiasis

A

Nystatin and clotrimazole

141
Q

Systemic treatments for candidiasis

A

Ketoconazole and Fluconazole (Diflucan)

142
Q

Fungi are ________ organisms meaning that they are ineffective against antibiotic therapy

A

Eukaryotic

143
Q

Viruses are ______ meaning they have no cells of their own

A

Acellular

144
Q

Viruses need a host cell in order to replicate
True or false

A

True

145
Q

A complete virus particle (including their envelope if they have one) are called

A

Virion

146
Q

A virus size ranges from _______ to _______

A

0.02-0.3 microns

147
Q

The protein shell that surround a virus is called a

A

Capsid

148
Q

Viruses can be either _______ which is the lipid bilayer or _______

A

Envelope, naked

149
Q

What shape does a virus have?

A

Isosahedral or helical (a symmetrical structure with 20 faces)

150
Q

________ are produced by the bodies virus affected cell. Inhibiting the bodies ability to replicate

A

Interferon

151
Q

Bbbv

A
152
Q

How do our host cell manufacture proteins?

A

First they TRANSCRIBE DNA to mRNA and then mRNA TRANSLATE into chains of amino acids

153
Q

What is the role of mRNA

A

mRNA are like the messengers so they move information contained in DNA to the host cells cytoplasm where protein synthesis takes place

154
Q

Once a host cell has been infected there are four possible outcome what are they?

A
  1. Death
  2. Chronic slow infection
  3. Latent infection
  4. Transformation
155
Q

Give me all the examples of mRNA viruses

A

Hep A,C,D,E
HIV
Measles and Mumps
Polio
Influenza
COVID-19
Rabies

156
Q

This RNA virus is very similar to mRNA of a host so they TRANSLATE very easily and rapidly

A

Positive strand RNA

157
Q

Which viruses are positive strand RNAs

A

Hep A, C, E
COVID-19
Polio

158
Q

Which viruses strand of RNA does not look similar to mRNA so takes longer to TRANSLATE and replicate

A

Negative strand RNA

159
Q

What two enzymes help negative strand rna to replicate faster

A

Replicate and polymerase

160
Q

Which viruses are negative stand RNAs

A

Hep D
Influenza
Measles and mumps
Rabies

161
Q

Which virus has its own category named the retrovirus

A

HIV

162
Q

What enzymes do HIV use to translate the RNA of the virus after it is inserted into the patients DNA and then multiply

A

Replicate and transcriptase

163
Q

In a dental setting how can you tell a patient has gon from HIV (the virus) to AIDS (the signs and symptoms)

A

Kaposi sarcoma

164
Q

Measles show up in the oral cavity as a reddish blue appearance located in the center of the palate called?

A

Koplik spot

165
Q

Measles cannot cross the placenta barrier
True or false

A

FALSE

166
Q

Give me a few examples of DNA viruses (you do not have to list all)

A

Hep B
HPV
Herpes 1 and 2
Varicella Zoster or shingles
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Epstein- Barr virus (EBV)
Smallpox

167
Q

Which two HPVs we should be most concerned about and why?

A

16 and 18
Because it can lead to oral pharyngeal issues, viral infections, or potentially causing oral cancer

168
Q

What vaccination is out there for the human papilloma virus ? (HPV)

A

Gardarsil

169
Q

Herpes type ____ the varicella- zoster viruses causes _________ and _______ upon reactivation

A

3, chickenpox and shingles (herpes zoster)

170
Q

Herpes type __ or also known as the Epstein-Barr virus is the kissing disease

A

4

171
Q

The EBV is a causative organism for infectious _______ and also be implicated in malignancies such as __________ and __________

A

Monocleosis, nasopharyngeal carcinoma and burkitt’s lymphoma

172
Q

EBV can cause _________ in HIV patients

A

Hairy leukoplakia

173
Q

HSV type ____ is the cytomegalovirus

A

5

174
Q

The Cossacks virus is also know as the hands, foot, mouth disease most common in children is causative for

A

Herpangina (not a herpes virus)

175
Q

Smallpox is another form of herpes
True or false

A

True

176
Q

What virus causes inflammation in the liver?

A

Hepatitis

177
Q

Which two hepatitis’s are related to contaminated food and water ? (Oral fecal root)

A

A and E

178
Q

Is there a vaccination for hepatitis E?

A

No

179
Q

As hygienist which hepatitis are we least susceptible to?

A

A or E

180
Q

Which hepatitis are blood borne pathogens? (Needles, drugs, blood transfusions)

A

B, C, and D

181
Q

In order to have Hepatitis D you would have to have had Hepatitis __ multiple times

A

B

182
Q

The C in hepatitis C stands for?

A

Chronic because it’s leads to chronic liver damage

183
Q

Hepatitis C has a vaccination
True or false

A

FALSE

184
Q

HBsAg stands for?

A

Hepatitis B surface antigen

185
Q

What does HBsAg mean?

A

This mean if you have Hep B surface antigen you either have an acute or chronic disease of hepatitis

186
Q

What does the Anti- HBsAg mean?

A

It proves your immunity after you’ve been vaccinated

187
Q

_________ are found on parts of an intact virus and is active

A

Dane particles

188
Q

The Hep B vaccination is what type of immunity?

A

Artificially acquired active immunity

189
Q

When proteins are found in your blood they will see gamma globulins in your blood indicating you have some type of immunity or developing immunity.
So what type of immunity is gamma globulins?

A

Passive immunity

Dental Hygienist ! 🦷🪥 (2 decks)

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