Microbiology and Immunology 🦠 Flashcards
(189 cards)
1
Q
The scientific study of microorganisms
A
Microbiology
2
Q
Gram positive staining is what color?
A
Blue
3
Q
Gram negative staining is what color?
A
Red or pink
4
Q
What are bacteria original color ?
A
Colorless they have no color (naked to the human eye)
5
Q
What is the most useful technique in determining bacteria?
A
Gram staining technique
6
Q
Characteristics of gram positive bacteria
A
Thick
Two layered
No porin channels
No periplasmic space
No endotoxins
Susceptible to breakdown by penicillin and lysosomes
7
Q
Characteristics of gram negative bacteria
A
Thin
Three layered
Porin channels
Periplasmic space
Endotoxin (outer membrane)
Not susceptible to breakdown of penicillin or lysosomes
8
Q
All organisms are susceptible to the gram staining technique
True or false
A
False
9
Q
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is covered with an unusual waxy coating on the cell surface primarily made of ______ which makes it impervious to gram staining
A
Mycolic acid
10
Q
What technique is used to identify mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A
The acid-fast technique
11
Q
Treponema pallidum bacteria causes what pathogen?
A
Syphilis
12
Q
Borrelia Burgdoferi bacteria causes what type of pathogen?
A
Lyme disease
13
Q
Spirochetes require what technique to be identified?
A
Dark field microscopy
14
Q
What bacteria is associated with the oral disease NUG and NUP?
A
Treponema denticola, fusobacterium, p. Gingivalis, and p. Intermedia
15
Q
Spherical shaped organisms are which bacteria?
A
Coccus or cocci
16
Q
Rod-like shaped organisms are which bacteria?
A
Bacillus or bacilli (also referred to as rods)
17
Q
Lacking distinct shape is called
A
Pleiomorphic
18
Q
Spiral-shaped organisms are which bacteria?
A
Spirochetes
19
Q
This type of bacteria require oxygen to survive are:
A
Aerobes
20
Q
The type of bacteria that DO NOT require oxygen to survive are:
A
Anerobes
21
Q
Where do gram negative bacteria live?
A
Deep within your gingival crevicular fluid (below the gum line)
22
Q
Give me two obligate anerobes bacteria
A
Provotella intermedia and porphyromonas gingivalis
23
Q
Give me three obligate aerobe bacteria
A
Neisseria, pseudomonas, mycobacterium
24
Q
P. Intermedia and P. Gingivalis are both gram _____ so they live _____ the gum line and
A
Negative, below
25
The most commonly used source of energy and carbon for BOTH humans AND bacteria is
Glucose
26
P. Gingivalis produced ________ which is an enzyme capable of breaking down collagen in connective tissue and PDL fibers
Collagenase
27
P. Intermedia are involved in all types of hormonal gingivitis like pregnancy, puberty, etc
True or false
True
28
P. Intermedia causes _______ in gingivitis
Cellulitis (inflammation of the cells)
29
Neisseria causes what pathogen?
Gonnerhea
30
Neisseria is a gram negative cocci
True or false
True
31
Pseudomonas is a gram positive rod
True or false
True
32
What are facultative anaerobes?
They are bacteria that can survive with oxygen and without oxygen
33
Facultative anaerobes can grow in the absence of oxygen by using
Fermentation
34
_____ is a chemical processing way of extracting energy from carbohydrates in the absence of oxygen (anaerobe)
Fermentation
35
What are the MOST disease causing organisms ?
Facultative anaerobes
36
Give me three facultative anaerobes
Staplococcus, listeria, actinomyces
37
Listeria are gram ________
Positive rods
38
Coccus are present in _______ development in plaque formation
Early
39
Calcification according to the shape
Morphology
40
Obligate aerobes produce these enzymes in order to protect themselves from the environment
Catalase, peroxidase, and superoxide dismutase
41
This cycle is a series of chemical reactions that take place in the mitochondria and is used to release stored energy derived from glucose, fats and proteins
Krebs cycle
42
The metabolic process that breaks down glucose and produces ATP
Glycolysis
43
A molecule that carries energy within cells acting as a rechargeable battery for our body functions
ATP
44
What is is called when you can tolerant low amounts of oxygen?
Microaerophilic
45
Give me two bacteria’s that are microaerophilic
Streptococcus and spirochetes
46
Oral anerobes can live in a periodontal pocket but not in the sulcus
True or false
False they can live in the sulcus as well
47
Streptococcus bacteria are gram _______
Positive cocci
48
Cornebacterium bacteria are gram _____
Positive rods
49
Staphylococcus bacteria are gram _______
Positive cocci
50
Bacillus are gram _______
Positive rods
51
Clostridium are gram ____
Positive rods
52
Which bacteria causes tetanus “lockjaw”
Clostridium
53
Treponema pallidum are gram _____
Negative spiral
54
Borrelia Butgofonferi are gram ______
Negative spiral
55
Treponema denticola are gram _____
Negative spiral
56
Which bacteria is related to botulism ?
Clostridium
57
Pseudomembranous colitis is a swelling or inflammation of the colon due to an over growth of this bacteria
Clostridium or C. Difficile
58
Clindamycin has stop being recommended for pre meds prior to dental treatments because it has been known to cause an increase of what disease
Psuedomembranous colitis
59
Cornebacterium causes a condition called
Diphtheria
Bacterial infection that can cause damage to your heart, Kidneys, and nervous system
60
Listeria is located in contaminated foods and can lead to what two conditions
Meningitis and sepsis
61
_______ is the infection of meninges which is the protective tissues of the brain and spinal cord causing stiff neck, headaches, and fever
Meningitis
62
______ is a serious condition that happens when the body’s immune system has an extreme response to an infection
Sepsis
63
Non-mobile, microaerophile, gram positive cocci
Streptococcus bacteria
64
All streptococcal organisms are catalase positive
True or false
False
They are catalase negative meaning they do not contain catalase BUT they do contain superoxide dismutase and hyaluronidase
65
What two enzymes break down hydrogen peroxide
Catalase and peroxidase
66
What enzyme breaks down free radicals or superoxide radicals
Superoxide dismutase
67
“The spreading factor” that allows bacteria to breakdown the matrix of plaque and tissues
Hyaluronidase
68
Streptococcus bacteria are grouped together according to their ability to hemolyze _____
RBC’s
69
____ has the complete ability to breakdown RDC’s
Beta- hemolytic streptococcus
70
Which streptococcal group completely break down RBCs
Beta- hemolytic streptococcus
71
Which streptococcal group is unable to lose RBCs
Gamma hemolytic streptococcus
72
_____ can partially lyse or breakdown RBCs
Alpha-hemolytic streptococcus
73
Latin for green
Viridis “viridans”
74
Most of the viridans group are_________ hemolytic streptococcus
Alpha
75
Viridans or normal inhabitants of the __________ and _________
Nasopharynx and gingival crevices
76
What four streptococcus fit into the viridans sub group
Streptococcus mutans, mitis, sobrinus, and sanguinis
77
What are the three main infections the viridans streptococcus is associated with
Dental infections like dental caries
Endocarditis
Abscesses
78
Streptococcus mutans can cause periodontal disease
True or false
FALSE they cause dental caries in the pits and fissures
79
What are two ways streptococcus mutans process sugar?
1. They metabolize sugar to lactic acid which creates an acidic environment which can demineralize enamel
2. Sucrose is also used to produce dextrans which allow the strep to adhere to the tooth and add to the volume of plaque.
80
Streptococcus mutans can digest other sugars like glucose, fructose, and lactose and can still produce both lactic acid and dextrans
True or false
FALSE they can ONLY produce dextrans with sucrose
81
Which streptococcus bacteria is the MAIN cause of endocarditis
Streptococcus mitis
82
A variety of viridans are associated with abscesses and cellulitis of the brain, heart, and abdominal areas BUT which one MAINLY causes it?
Streptococccus sanguinis
83
Streptococcus pyogens are gram _____
Positive cocci
84
Which streptococcus bacteria is the causative for pharyngitis (strep throat), scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, tonsillitis, and cellulitis?
Streptococcus pyogens
85
Streptococcus pyogens are facultative anaerobes
True or false
True
86
Streptococcus pyogens are ______ hemolytic bacteria
Beta
87
What bacteria is causative for periodontal disease?
P. Gingivalis
88
Streptococcus pyogens produce two enzymes which are called
1. Streptokinase
2. Hyaluronidase
89
______ causes clotting and the discoloration of the clot
Streptokinase
90
Streptococcus sobrinus is a _____ hemolytic bacteria
Alpha
91
Which streptococcus bacteria is the main cause of dental caries on smooth surfaces
Streptococcus sorbrinus
92
Streptococcus mitis are _______ hemolytic bacteria
Alpha
93
Streptococcus sanguinis are ________ hemolytic bacteria
Alpha
94
Early plaque colonizer
Implicates dental caries, bacterial endocarditis, abscesses, pus
Which bacteria causes these?
Streptococcus sanguinis
95
Streptococcus salivarius is a _______ hemolytic bacteria
Alpha
96
Which bacteria is first to colonize an infants mouth?
Streptococcus salivarius
97
What bacteria is associated with the tongue and saliva?
Streptococcus salivarius
98
Strep pneumonia are _______ hemolytic bacteria
Alpha
99
Which bacteria is causative for pneumonia
Streptococcus pneumoniae
100
Which bacteria can become encapsulated which makes it very resistant for destruction?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
101
Staphylococcus bacteria are
A. Obligate aerobes
B. Obligate anaerobes
C. Facultative anerobes
C
102
________ are catalase positive
Staphylococcus
103
Spherical gram positive arranged in grape like cluster
Staphylococcus
104
Which bacter is Penicillin G resistant?
Streptococcus or staphylococcus
Staphylococcus
105
Staphylococcuus can typical form this type of lesion
HINT: Staph infections
Abscesses (pus)
106
Staphylococcus aureus are gram _____
Positive cocci
107
________ is the contribution to the breakdown of clotting and causing coagulation
Coagulase
108
What bacteria hyaluronidase and spreads within the subcutaneous tissues and causing cellulitis
Staphylococcus aureus
109
What bacteria produced pigmented compounds called carotenoids
Staphylococcus aureus
110
_________ produces leukocidins which breakdown WBCs which in turn creates pus
Staphylococcus aureus
111
Which bacteria is the MOST resistant disease causing organism ?
MRSA or flesh eating bacteria
112
Which two antibiotics are used to treat MRSA and only have been proven to work against it?
Vancomycin and Bactrium
113
Lactobacillus are gram _______
Positive rods
114
Once a tooth reaches to an advanced stage of being a various lesion what bacteria becomes present?
Lactobacillus
115
Instead of dextrans this bacteria produces lexans which allows it to adhere to a various lesion of a tooth
Lactobacillus
116
_______ used to be connected to root caries but no longer is studies have shown that both _______ and ________ have been predictive of the development of root surface lesions
Actinomyces viscosus
Streptococcus mutans and Lactobacillus
117
What other three bacteria have been associated with the cause of root caries
1. Propionibacterium acidifaciens
2. Olsenella profusa
3. Prevotella multisaccharivorax
118
_______ is the causative agent of actinomycosis aka “lumpy jaw”
Actinomyces Israelii
119
P. Intermedia are gram ________
Negative rods
120
What bacteria area also associated with NUG and NUP and cause pericornitis
P. Intermedia
121
What other bacteria is associated with pregnancy gingivitis?
C. Rectum
122
Campylobacter rectus are gram _______
Negative rods
123
What helps p. Gingivalis adhere to epithelial and tooth surfaces causing destruction?
Fimbrae
124
___________ have anti- collagenase properties making them ideal treatment options for periodontal disease
Tetracycline like doxycycline or monocycline
125
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans or A.A are commonly known for the cause of
Aggressive periodontal disease
126
Aggressive period affects which tooth FIRST?
Maxillary first molars
127
Which bacteria belong in the red complex group this group is known to cause periodontal conditions
T. Denticola, T. Forsythia, P. Gingivalis
128
Which bacteria are directly related to NUG and NUP
T. Denticola, P.intermedia, P. Gingivalis, Fusobacterium
129
Which phase is the slow growth, and are accumulating BUT are not multiplying
Lag phase
130
What phase is bacteria growing rapidly and multiplying
Log phase
131
Which phase are bacteria MOST prone to breakdown by antimicrobial agents ?
Log phase
132
What phase has no net increase or decrease in cell numbers but are just eating nutrients and excreting waste
Stationary phase
133
What phase does the microbes die off
Death phase
134
Most fungi are obligate _______
Aerobes
135
______ require organic sources of carbon for their nutritional requirements and typically kill other cells and absorb their nutrients
Fungi
136
Fungi are an _________ type of infection due to the fact of it naturally inhabiting our flora of skin and mucous membranes BUT can multiply when not suppressed
Opportunistic
137
What fungi can be wiped off and has as a creamy white; cottage cheese appearance
Psuedomembranous candidiasis
138
What fungi presents as red, ulcerative lesion
Erythematous candidiasis
139
What other areas can candidiasis infect besides the oral cavity
Esophagus, heart, lungs, kidneys
140
Topical treatments for candidiasis
Nystatin and clotrimazole
141
Systemic treatments for candidiasis
Ketoconazole and Fluconazole (Diflucan)
142
Fungi are ________ organisms meaning that they are ineffective against antibiotic therapy
Eukaryotic
143
Viruses are ______ meaning they have no cells of their own
Acellular
144
Viruses need a host cell in order to replicate
True or false
True
145
A complete virus particle (including their envelope if they have one) are called
Virion
146
A virus size ranges from _______ to _______
0.02-0.3 microns
147
The protein shell that surround a virus is called a
Capsid
148
Viruses can be either _______ which is the lipid bilayer or _______
Envelope, naked
149
What shape does a virus have?
Isosahedral or helical (a symmetrical structure with 20 faces)
150
________ are produced by the bodies virus affected cell. Inhibiting the bodies ability to replicate
Interferon
151
Bbbv
152
How do our host cell manufacture proteins?
First they TRANSCRIBE DNA to mRNA and then mRNA TRANSLATE into chains of amino acids
153
What is the role of mRNA
mRNA are like the messengers so they move information contained in DNA to the host cells cytoplasm where protein synthesis takes place
154
Once a host cell has been infected there are four possible outcome what are they?
1. Death
2. Chronic slow infection
3. Latent infection
4. Transformation
155
Give me all the examples of mRNA viruses
Hep A,C,D,E
HIV
Measles and Mumps
Polio
Influenza
COVID-19
Rabies
156
This RNA virus is very similar to mRNA of a host so they TRANSLATE very easily and rapidly
Positive strand RNA
157
Which viruses are positive strand RNAs
Hep A, C, E
COVID-19
Polio
158
Which viruses strand of RNA does not look similar to mRNA so takes longer to TRANSLATE and replicate
Negative strand RNA
159
What two enzymes help negative strand rna to replicate faster
Replicate and polymerase
160
Which viruses are negative stand RNAs
Hep D
Influenza
Measles and mumps
Rabies
161
Which virus has its own category named the retrovirus
HIV
162
What enzymes do HIV use to translate the RNA of the virus after it is inserted into the patients DNA and then multiply
Replicate and transcriptase
163
In a dental setting how can you tell a patient has gon from HIV (the virus) to AIDS (the signs and symptoms)
Kaposi sarcoma
164
Measles show up in the oral cavity as a reddish blue appearance located in the center of the palate called?
Koplik spot
165
Measles cannot cross the placenta barrier
True or false
FALSE
166
Give me a few examples of DNA viruses (you do not have to list all)
Hep B
HPV
Herpes 1 and 2
Varicella Zoster or shingles
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Epstein- Barr virus (EBV)
Smallpox
167
Which two HPVs we should be most concerned about and why?
16 and 18
Because it can lead to oral pharyngeal issues, viral infections, or potentially causing oral cancer
168
What vaccination is out there for the human papilloma virus ? (HPV)
Gardarsil
169
Herpes type ____ the varicella- zoster viruses causes _________ and _______ upon reactivation
3, chickenpox and shingles (herpes zoster)
170
Herpes type __ or also known as the Epstein-Barr virus is the kissing disease
4
171
The EBV is a causative organism for infectious _______ and also be implicated in malignancies such as __________ and __________
Monocleosis, nasopharyngeal carcinoma and burkitt’s lymphoma
172
EBV can cause _________ in HIV patients
Hairy leukoplakia
173
HSV type ____ is the cytomegalovirus
5
174
The Cossacks virus is also know as the hands, foot, mouth disease most common in children is causative for
Herpangina (not a herpes virus)
175
Smallpox is another form of herpes
True or false
True
176
What virus causes inflammation in the liver?
Hepatitis
177
Which two hepatitis’s are related to contaminated food and water ? (Oral fecal root)
A and E
178
Is there a vaccination for hepatitis E?
No
179
As hygienist which hepatitis are we least susceptible to?
A or E
180
Which hepatitis are blood borne pathogens? (Needles, drugs, blood transfusions)
B, C, and D
181
In order to have Hepatitis D you would have to have had Hepatitis __ multiple times
B
182
The C in hepatitis C stands for?
Chronic because it’s leads to chronic liver damage
183
Hepatitis C has a vaccination
True or false
FALSE
184
HBsAg stands for?
Hepatitis B surface antigen
185
What does HBsAg mean?
This mean if you have Hep B surface antigen you either have an acute or chronic disease of hepatitis
186
What does the Anti- HBsAg mean?
It proves your immunity after you’ve been vaccinated
187
_________ are found on parts of an intact virus and is active
Dane particles
188
The Hep B vaccination is what type of immunity?
Artificially acquired active immunity
189
When proteins are found in your blood they will see gamma globulins in your blood indicating you have some type of immunity or developing immunity.
So what type of immunity is gamma globulins?
Passive immunity
