Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Gram Stain

A

Bacteria- peptidoglycan layer
except treponema, leptospira, mycobacteria, mycoplasma, ureaplasma, legionella, rickettsia, chlamydia, bartonella, anaplasma, ehrlichia
(-) pink
(+) violet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Giemsa Stain

A

Rickettsia, chlamydia, trypanosomes, plasmodium, borrelia, H. pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

PAS stain

A

stains glycogen, mucosaccharides

Whipple disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ziehl Neelsen stain

A

Acid bast bacteria (mycobacteria, Nocardia, protozoa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

India Ink Stain

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Silver stain

A

Fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Fluorescent Ab Stain

A

PJ, giardia and cryptosporidium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Chocolate Agar

A

H. influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Thayer Martin agar

A

N. gonorrhoeae, N. meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bordet Genou agar

A

B. pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tellurite agar

A

C. diphtheriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lowenstein Jensen medium

A

M. tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MacConkey agar

A

Lactose fermenting enterics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

EMB agar

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Charcoal yeast agar

A

Brucella, francisella, legionella, pasteurella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Obligate intracellular

A

Rickettsia, Chlamydia, Coxiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Facultative intracellular

A

Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, Yersinia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Encapsulated bacteria

A

Pseudomonas, strep, H. flu, Neisseria, E. coli, Salmonella, Klebsiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

urease (+) organisms

A

proteus, Cryptococcus, H. pylori, Ureaplasma, Nocardia, Klebsiella, S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Pigment producing

A

Actinomyces israeli- yellow
S. aureus- yellow
P. aeruginosa- green
Serratia- red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Exotoxin

A

polypeptide secreted from cell located on pasmid or bacteriophage. high adverse effects. toxoid vaccines
Tetanus, botulism, diphtheria, cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Endotoxin

A

out cell membrane of gram (-) that is not secreted from the cell. Made of Lipid A component of LPS from bacterial chromosome. low adverse effects. cause fever, shock, DIC. Induce TNF, IL1 and IL6. No vaccines.
Meningococcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriase

A 
Diphtheria toxin (exotoxin) --> inactivate EF2 --> pharyngitis with pseudomembranes on throat and severe LAD, myocarditis, neuropathies
Gram + rods with metachromatic granules and Elek +
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Exotoxin A –> inactivate EF2 –> host cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Shigella

A

Shiga toxin (exotoxin) –> inactivate 60S ribosome by removing adenine from rRNA –> GI mucosal damage, dysentery, enhance cytokine release –> HUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli (O157’H7)

A

Shiga like toxin (exotoxin) –> inactivate 60S ribosome by removing adenine from rRNA –> enhance cytokine release –> HUS
DOES NOT INVADE HOST CELL
gram -
via undercooked meat, raw leafy vegetables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (Heat labile)

A

Heat Labile toxin (exotoxin) –> overactivates adenylate cyclase (increase cAMP) –> increase Cl- secretion in gut and H2O efflux –> watery diarrhea (travelers)
gram -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Enterotoxigenic E. Coli (Heat stable)

A

Heat stable toxin (exotoxin) –> overactivates guanylate cyclase (increase cGMP) –>decrease resorption of NaCl and H2O in gut –> watery diarrhea (travelers)
gram -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Bacillus anthracis

A

Anthrax toxin (exotoxin) –> mimic adenylate cyclase –> edematous borders of black eschar in cutaneous anthrax
Gram +, spore forming rod
colonies show halo projections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Vibrio cholerae

A

cholera toxin (exotoxin) –> overactivates adenylate cyclase by inactivating Gs –> increase Cl- secretion in gut and H2O efflux –> rice water diarrhea
Gram -, flagella, comma shaped, oxidase +
via ingestion of water or food (shellfish)
T(x): rehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Bordetella pertussis

A 
Pertussis toxin (exotoxin) --> inactivate Gi --> activate adenylate cyclase --> whooping cough
Gram -
Catarrhal- low grade fever
Paroxysmal- whooping cough
Convalescent- recovery
Prevent with Tdap, DTaP
T(x): macrolides or bactrim
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

Tetanoplasmin (exotoxin) –> proteases that cleave SNARE –> release inhibitory neurotransmitters from Renshaw cells in spinal cord –> spastic paralysis, lockjaw
Gram +, spores, obligate anaerobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Clostridium botulism

A 
Botulinum toxin (exotoxin) --> proteases that cleave SNARE --> release stimulatory signals at NMJ --> flaccid paralysis, diplopia, dysarthria, dysphagia and dyspnea
Gram +, spores, obligate anaerobe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Clostridium perfringens

A

alpha toxin (exotoxin) –> phosphilipase that degrades tissue and cell membranes –> myonecrosis and hemolysis
Gram +, spores, obligate anaerobe
Food poisoning in 10-12 hours, resolution in 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Streptolysis O (exotoxin) –> protein that degrades cell membrane –> lyse RBC, host Ab against toxin used to d(x) rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Staph aureus

A

toxic shock syndrome (exotoxin) –> cross link B region of TCR to MHC II –> overwhelming release of IL1 IL2 IFNy TNFa –> shock, fever, rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Streptococcus pyrogenes

A

Erythrogenic exotoxin A –> cross link B region of TCR to MHC II –> overwhelming release of IL1 IL2 IFNy TNFa –> shock, fever, rash, scarlet fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

a hemolytic bacteria

A 
Gram + cocci, partial oxidation of Hb --> green/brown color
Strep pneumoniae (Catalase - and optochin sensitive)
Viridans streptococcus (Catalase - and optochin resistant)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

B hemolytic bacteria

A

Gram (+) cocci. Complete lysis of RBCs –>pale
S.aureus (catalase and coagulase +)
Strep pyogenes (Catalase - bacitracin sensitive)
strep agalactiae (Catalase - bacitracin resistant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

A

Gram +, B hemolytic, catalase +, coagulase +, cocci
Protein A binds Fc-IgG –> inhibit complement.
Causes inflammatory disease, TSST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

MRSA

A

nosocomial and community acquired infections. Resistant due to altered penicillin binding protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

TSST

A

fever, vomiting, rash, desquamation, shock, end organ failure
Increase AST and ALT, bilirubin
Prolonged use of tampons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis

A

Gram +, catalase + coagulase - urease + cocci, novobiocin sensitive,
Does not ferment mannitol
Normal skin flora
infects prothetic devices and IV catheters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

A

Gram + catalase + coagulase - rease +. Novobiocin resistant
Normal flora of female genitalis
Uncomplicated UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Gram +, a hemolytic, lancet shaped diplococci, encapsulated, IgA protease, optochin sensitive, bil soluble
Meningitis, otitis media, pneumonia, sinusitis
Rusty sputum, sepsis in SCD and asplenic patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Streptococcus viridans

A

Gram +, a hemolytic cocci, Optochin resistant, bile insoluble
Normal oropharynx flora
mutans and mitis –> dental caries
sanguinis –> damaged heart valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Streptococccus pyogenes

A

Gram + cocci, M protein (rheumatic fever)
Pyogenic: pharyngitis, cellulitis, impetigo
Toxogenic: scarlet fever, TSST
Immunologic: rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae

A

Gram +, bacitracin resistant, B hemolytic. Babies
colonized vagina, causes pneumonia, meningitis and sepsis
Hippurate test + PYR-, produce CAMP factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Streptococcus bovis

A

Gram +, colonizes the gut

cause bacteremia and subacute endocarditis and associated with colon cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Enterococci

A

Gram + cocci, penicillin G resistant
Normal colonic flora
cause UTI, biliary tract infection and subacute endocarditis
Catalase - PYR +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Cutaneous anthrax

A

painless papule surrounded by vesicles –> ulcer with black eschar –> uncommonly progress to bacteremia and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Pulmonary Anthrax

A

inhalation of spores –> flu like symptoms that progress to fever, pulm hemorrhage, mediatstinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Bacillus cereus

A

Gram + rod, sores
causes food poisoning (rice)
emetic: nausea and vomiting within 1-5 hours via cerulide (preformed toxin)
Diarrhea: watery, nonbloody diarrhea and GI pain within 8-18 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Clostridium difficile

A

Gram +, spores, obligate anaerobe
Produce toxins A and B –> damage entorcytes –> water diarrhea –> pseudomembranous colitis
Toxic megacolon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

A

Gram + facultative intracellular rod
ingestion of unpasteurized dairy
Rocket tails via actin polymerization
causes amnionitis, septicemia, spontaneous abortion
meningitis in immunocompromised, neonates and older adults
self limited gastroenteritis in healthy
T(x) ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Nocardia

A

Gram +, long branching, aerobe, acid fast
soil
causes pulm infections in immuocompromised. cutaneous infections after trauma in immunocompromised
T(x) bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Actinomyces

A 
Gram +, long branching, anaerobe
normal oral, reproductive and GI flora
causes oral/facial abscesses that drain through sinus tracts, dental caries
yellow sulfur granules
T(x) penicillin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Mycobacteria

A

Gram +
tuberculosis- resistant to multiple drugs, fever, night sweats, weight loss, cough, hemoptysis. Serpentine cord
avium- causes disseminated disease in AIDS, resistant to multiple drugs
scrolfulaceum- cervical LAD in children
marinum- hand infection in aquarium handlers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Tuberculosis

A

+PPD if current or past infection
-PPD if no infection, sarcoidosis or HIV
Caseating granulomas with central necrosis and Langerhan giant cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Leprosy

A

Mycobacterium leprae, acid fast bacilli, likes cool temperatures –> glove and stocking loss of sensation
d(x) skin biopsy or tissue PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Lepromatous Leprosy

A

presents diffusely over the skin with lion-like facies and is communicable
low cell mediated immunity with Th2 response
Lethal
T(x): clofazimine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Tuberculoid Leprosy

A

few hypoesthetic, hairless skin plaques
high cell mediated immunity with Th1 response and low bacterial load
T(x) dapsone and rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Neisseria

A

Gram - diplococci
metabolize glucose and produce IgA proteases
LOS with endotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Neisseria gonococci

A

No polysaccharide capsule, maltose acid detection, vaccine
STI
causes gonorrhea, septic arthritis, neonatal conjunctivitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome
D(x) NAT
T(x): certriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Neisseria Meningococci

A

Polysaccharide capsule, maltose acid detection, vaccine
via resp and oral
causes petechial hemorrhages and gangrene toes, meningitis, Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome
D(x): culture
T(x) rifampin, ciprofloxacin, ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Waterhouse Friderichsen Syndrome

A

adrenal insufficiency, fever, DIC, shock

caused by N. meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Haemophilus influenzae

A

Gram - rod, produce IgA protease
aerosol
causes otitis media, conjunctivitis, bronchitis, pneumonia and epiglottitis
Vaccine: type b capsular polysaccharide
T(x): amoxicillin, clavulamate, ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Actinebacter baumannii

A

Gram - aerobic, oxidase -
Resistant hospital acquired infection
cause ventilator associated pneumonia and septicemia in immunocompromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Brucella

A

Gram - aerobic
ingestion of contaminated animal products
Survives in macrophages in the reticuloendothelial system
Non caseating granulomas
undulant fever, night sweats, arthralgia
t(x) doxycycline, rifampin, streptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Legionella

A 
Gram - rod
Silver stain, charcoal yeast agar
Ag in urine, hyponatremia
aerosol (air conditioning)
T(x): macrolide or quinolone
Severe pneumonia, fever, GI and CNS symptoms (smokers and chronic lung disease)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Aerobic, motile, catalase +, gram -
Water
Pneumonia, sepsis, ecthyma gangrenosum (cutaneous necrotic lesions), UTI, DM, osteomyelitis, otitis externa, nosocomial infection, addicts, skin infection
Mucoid polysaccharide capsule
Produces phospholipase C, endotoxin (fever shock), exotoxin A (inactivate EF2), pigments
T(x): carbapenems, aminoglycosides, monobactams, polymixins, fluoroquinolones, 3rd and 4th gen cephalosporins, extended spectrum penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Salmonella typhii

A

Gram - rods oxidase - , produce H2S, flagella, endotoxin, Vi capsule
disseminate in blood
monocytic immune response
Constipation then diarrhea
oral vaccine or IM vaccine
Typhoid fever (rose sots on abdomen, constipation, ab pain, fever, GI ulceration, hemorrhage
T(x): ceftriaxone, fluoroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

All other salmonella species

A 
Gram - rods oxidase - , produce H2S, flagella, endotoxin
Poultry, eggs, pets
PMN in disseminated disease via blood
diarrhea
no vaccine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Shigella

A 
Gram - rod oxidase- 
cell to cell spread
endotoxin and exotoxin
PMN infiltration, M cell invasion
crampy ab pain --> tenesmus, bloody stools
No vaccine
from fingers, flies, good, feces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica

A

Gram -
transmitted via pet feces, contaminated milk, pork
acute bloody diarrhea, pseudoappendicitis, reactive arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Enteropathogenic E. Coli

A

Gram -
No toxin produced
adhere to apical surface, flattens villi, prevents absorption
Diarrhea (children)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Enteroinvasive E. Coli

A

Gram -

invade intestinal mucosa and causes necrosis and inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Klebsiella

A 
Gram - 
intestinal flora
lobar pneumonia in alcoholics and DM when aspirated
Currant jelly sputum
nosocomial UTI, multidrug resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Campylobacter jejuni

A

Gram - comma shaped, oxidase +
bloody diarrhea (children)
fecal-oral
Guillain Barre syndrome and reactive arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Helicobacter pylori

A

curved, flagella, gram -, + catalase, oxidase and urease
colonize in antrum of the stomach –> gastritis and PUD
D(x): breath test
T(x): amoxicillin, clarithromycin, PPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Spirochetes

A

spiral shaped

Borrelia, leptospira, Treponema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Lymes Disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi (via tick need deer)
1) erythema migrans
2) secondary dissemination, carditis, AV block, Bell palsy, migratory myalgias
3) encephalopathy chronic arthritis
T(x): doxycycline, amoxicillin, ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Leptospira interrogans

A

spirochete with hook shaped ends found in water with animal urine
Leptospirosis: flu like symptoms, myalgia, jaundice, photophobia
Weil Disease: jaundice and azotemia from liver and kidney dysfunction, fever, hemorrhage, anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum. T(x) penicillin G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Primary Syphilis

A

painless chancre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Secondary Syphilis

A 
maculopapular rash (palm and soles), condylomata lata, LAD,  patchy hair loss
Sero test: VDRL/RPR confirm with FTA-ABS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Tertiary syphilis

A

gummas, aortitis, neurosyphilis, Argyll Robertson pupil
broad based ataxia, Romberg +, charcot joint, stroke without HTN
Test spinal fluid with VDRL, FTA-ABS and PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Congenital syphilis

A

facial abnormalities (rhagades, snuffles, saddle nose, notched teeth, mulberry molars, short maxilla
saber shins, CNVIII deafness
Prevent: treat mom early in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Jarisch Herxheimer reaction

A

flu like symptoms after antibiotics due to killed spirochetes releasing toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Gardenella vaginalis

A

gray vaginal discharge with fishy smell, nonpainful
associated with sexual activity
clue cells have stippled appearance along outer margin
D(x) amine whiff test
T(x) metronidazole or clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Chlamydiae

A

obligate intracellular
elementary body- enters cell via endocytosis, transforms into reticulate body
reticulate body- replicates in cell by fission
Chlamydia trachomatis- causes neonatal and follicular adult conjunctivitis, urethritis, PIDm reactive arthritis
other chlamydia- cause atypical pneumonia via aerosol
T(x): azithromycin, doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis Types A, B, C

A

chronic infection, cause blindness due to follicular conjunctivitis
Africa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis Types D-K

A

Urethritis/PID, ectopic pregnancy, neonatal pneumonia with eosinophila, neonatal conjunctivitis (birth canal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis Types L1-3

A

Lymphogranuloma venerum- small, painless ulcers on genitals –> swollen, painful inguinal LN that ulcerate
T(x): doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted Fever

A

Rickettsia rickettsii (tick vector)
Rash starts at wrists and ankles and spreads to trunk, palm and soles
HA, fever, rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Typhus

A

Rickettsia
endemic (typhi via flea) epidemic (proazekii via louse)
rash starts central and spreads out sparing palms and soles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Ehrlichiosis

A

Ehrlichia via tick

monocytes with morulae in cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Anaplasmosis

A

Anaplasma via tick

granulocytes with morulae in cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Q fever

A

Coxiella burnetti
spores via inhalation
HA, cough, influenza like, pneumonia, combo with hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A 
Walking pneumonia (insidious onset, HA, nonproductive cough, patchy or diffuse interstitial infiltrate)
military, recruits, prisons, college
Cold agglutinins (IgM)
T(x): macrolides, doxycycline or fluoroquinolone
SJS in children and adolescents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Histoplasmosis

A

Mississippi and ohio river valleys
macrophage filled with histoplasma
Patatal/tongue ulcers, splenomegaly, pancytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Blastomycosis

A

Eastern and central US
broad based budding
inflammatory lung disease, disseminates to bone and skin, granulomatous nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Coccidioidomycosis

A 
Southwestern US
Spherule filled with endospores
Disseminates to skin and bone
erythema nodosum or multiforme, arthralgias, meningitis
Associated with dust exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Para coccidioidomycosis

A

Latin America
budding yeast with captain’s wheel
Males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Tinea

A

cutaneous fungal infection
Microsporum, Trichophyton, epidermophyton
Branching septate hyphae
pruritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Tinea capitis

A

head scalp

LAD, alopecia, scaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Tinea corporis

A

on body
enlarging erythematous scaly rings with central clearing
contact with pets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Tinea cruris

A

inguinal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Tinea pedis

A

Interdigital, moccasin distribution or vesicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Tinea unguium

A

onchomycosis in nails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Tinea versicolor

A

Malassezia (yeast like) degrade lipids –> acid –> inhibit tyrosinase –> hypopigmentation, hyperpigmentation or pink patches
spaghetti and meatball appearance
T(x): selenium sulfide, antifungal meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Candida albicans

A

Opportunistic fungal infection
pseudohyphae and budding yeast
oral and esophageal thrush in immunocompromised, vulvovaginitis (DM), diaper rash, endocarditis (IV drug users), disseminated candidiasis, mucocutaneous
T(x) oral fluconazole, echinocandins, amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Aspergillus fumigatus

A

Opportunistic fungal infection
Septate hyphae that branch at acute angle
invasive in immunocompromised
aspergillomas post TB infection
Aflotoxins –> hepatocellular carcinoma
T(x) voriconazole or echinocandins
ABPA: hypersensitivity response to Aspergillus in lung mucus. Associated with asthma and CF –> bronchiectasis and eosinophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A

Opportunistic fungal infection
Encapsulated yeast
soil, pigeon droppings
causes cryptococcosis, cryptococcal meningitis, encephalitis (soap bubble)
T(x): amphotericin B, flucytosine, fluconazole

115
Q

Mucor

A

Opportunistic fungal infection
nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles
DM
via inhalation of spores –> proliferate in blood vessels, penetrate cribiform plate –> enter brain
Abscess, cavernous sinus thrombosis, HA, facial pain, black necrotic eschar on face
T(x): surgery, amphotericin B, isavuconazole

116
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii

A

Opportunistic fungal infection
diffuse interstitial pneumonia, bilateral ground glass
AIDS
D(x): bronchoalveolar lavage
disc shaped yeast
T(x) Bactrim, pentamidine, dapsone, atovaquone

117
Q

Sporothrix schenckii

A 
Opportunistic fungal infection
cigar shaped yeast
vegetation via cuts
pustule or ulcer nodules along draining lymphatics
T(x): itraconazole or potassium iodide
118
Q

Giardia lamblia

A

bloating, flatulence, foul smelling, fatty diarrhea
Cysts in water
T(x) metronidazole

119
Q

Entamoeba histolytica

A

bloody diarrhea, liver abscess, RUQ pain, flask shaped ulcers
Cysts in water
Engulf RBC
T(x): metronidazole, paromomycin or iodoquinol

120
Q

Crytosporidium

A

Severe diarrhea in AIDS
oocysts in water
T(x) nitazoxanide

121
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A

Immunocompetent = mono like symptoms
AIDS = brain abscess (ring enhancing lesions)
congenital = chorioetinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications
cysts in meat
T(x) sulfadiazine, pyrimethamine

122
Q

Naegleria fowleri

A

fatal meningoencephalitis
swim in fresh water
amoeba in CSF
T(x) amphotericin B

123
Q

Trypanosoma brucei

A

african sleeping sickness- enlarged LN, recurring fever, coma
via Tsetse fly (painful bite)
T(x): suramin, melarsoprol

124
Q

Plasmodium vivax

A 
Malaria (fever, HA, anemia, splenomegaly)
Trophozite rings form within RBC
via anopheles mosquito
T(x): chloroquine, primaquine
48 hour cycle, dormant in liver
125
Q

Plasmodium falciparum

A

Malaria (fever, HA, anemia, splenomegaly)
Trophozite rings form within RBC
via anopheles mosquito
T(x): chloroquine
Severe irregular fever patterns, parasitized RBCs occluded capillaries in brain, kidney and lungs

126
Q

Plasmodium malariae

A 
Malaria (fever, HA, anemia, splenomegaly)
Trophozite rings form within RBC
via anopheles mosquito
T(x): chloroquine
72 hour cycle
127
Q

Babesia

A

fever, hemolytic anemia
Ixodes tick
blood smear: ring form
t(x): atovaquone and azithromycin

128
Q

Trypanosoma cruzi

A

Chagas disease- dilated cardiomyopathy, apical atrophy, megacolon
unilateral periorbital swelling
via kissing bug (triatomine)
T(x): benznidazole, nirfurtimox

129
Q

Leishmania

A 
Visceral- spiking fevers, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia
cutaneous- skin ulcers
via sandfly
Macrophages contain amastigotes
T(x): amphotericin B
130
Q

Trichomonas vaginales

A

foul smelling, greenish discharge, itching, burning
via sex
T(x): metronidazole

131
Q

Enterobius vermicularis

A

pinworm
anal pruritis
fecal-oral
T(x): bendazoles

132
Q

Ascaris lumbricoides

A

obstruction of iliocecal valve, biliary obstruction, interstitial perforation, migrates from nose to mouth
fecal oral
T(x) bendazoles

133
Q

Strongyloides stercoralis

A

GI, pulmonary and cutaneous
soil –> skin
T(x) ivermectin or bendazoles

134
Q

Necator americanus

A

microcytic anemia by sucking blood from intestinal call
via barefoot walk on beach (skin)
T(x): bendazoles

135
Q

Trichinella spiralis

A

cyst in striated muscle –> myositis
fever, vomiting, nausea, periorbital edema, myalgia
via undercooked meat, fecal oral
T(x): bandazoles

136
Q

Trichuris trichiura

A

asymptomatic, loose stools, anemia, rectal prolapse in children
fecal oral
T(x): bendazoles

137
Q

Toxocara canis

A

visceral larva migrans- migrate to blood via intestinal wall –> inflammation affecting liver, eyes, CNS, heart
fecal oral
T(x) bendazoles

138
Q

Onchocerca volvulus

A

skin changes (decrease elastic fibers), river blindness,
via female black fly
T(x): ivermectin

139
Q

loa loa

A

swelling in skin, worm in conjunctiva
via deer fly, horse fly, mango fly
T(x): diethylcarbamazine

140
Q

Wuchereia bancrofti

A

Lymphatic filariasis- worm invades LN –> inflammation –> lymphedema
via female mosquito
via deer fly, horse fly, mango fly
T(x): diethylcarbamazine

141
Q

Taenia solium

A

Intestinal tapeworm via ingestion of larvae in undercooked pork
T(x): praziquantel
Cysticercosis, neurocysticercosis via ingested eggs in food with human feces
T(x): praziquantel, albendazole

142
Q

Diphyllobothrium latum

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency
ingestion of larvae in freshwater fish
T(x) praziquantel

143
Q

Echinococcus granulosus

A

Hyatid cysts in liver –> anaphylaxis
ingestion of eggs in food with dog feces
T(x): albendazole

144
Q

Schistosoma

A

mansoni- liver and spleen enlargement
haematobium- SCC of bladder and pulmonary HTN
via skin in fresh water (snails)
T(x): praziquantel

145
Q

Clonorchis sinesis

A

Biliary tract inflammation –> pigmented gallstones
undercooked fish
T(x): praziquantel

146
Q

Sarcoptes scabiei

A

mites burrow into stratum carneum and cause pruritis
children, crowded populations, skin to skin
T(x) permethrin cream

147
Q

Pediculus humanus

A

blood sucking lice that cause pruritis

T(x): pyrethroids, malathion, ivermectic lotion and nit combing

148
Q

Poxvirus

A

Linear DS DNA, envelope
Smallpox eradicated world wide via live attenuated vaccine
replicate in cytoplasm

149
Q

Hepadnavirus

A

Circular partial DS DNA, envelope

Acute or chronic hepatitis (HBV)

150
Q

Adenovirus

A

Linear DS DNA

febrile pharyngitis, acute hemorrhagic cysts, pneumonia, conjunctivitis, gastroenteritis, myocarditis

151
Q

Papillomavirus

A

circular DS DNA

HPV warts, cervical cancer

152
Q

Polyomavirus

A

circular DS DNA
JC: progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy in HIV
BK: transplant pt –> kidney

153
Q

parvovirus

A 
Linear SS DNA
aplastic crisis in SCD
slapped cheek rash in children
hydrops fetalis
pure RBC aplasia and rheumatoid arthritis
154
Q

Herpes Simplex 1

A

linear DS DNA, envelope
via resp, saliva
gingivostomatitis, keratoconjunctivitis, cold sores, temporal lobe encephalitis, esophagitis, erythema multiforme
latent in trigeminal ganglia
sportadic encephalitis (AMS, seizures, aphasia)
Cowdry A intranuclear eosinophilic inclusions

155
Q

Herpes simplex 2

A 
linear DS DNA, envelope
STI
latent in sacral ganglia
viral meningitis
Cowdry A intranuclear eosinophilic inclusions
156
Q

Varicella- Zoster

A 
HHV3
via respiratory
encephalitis, pneumonia
complication: post herpetic neuralgia
Latent in DRG or trigeminal
Cowdry A intranuclear eosinophilic inclusions
157
Q

EBV

A 
HHV4
via respiratory or saliva
mono (fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis, LAD
Infect B cells via CD21
\+ heterphile Ab
Amoxicillin--> maculopapular rash
158
Q

CMV

A

HHV5
congenital, transfusion, sex, saliva, urine
immunocompromised - pneumonia, esophagitis, AIDS retinitis, hemorrhage, cotton wool exudate, vision loss
owl eye intranuclear inclusions
latent in mononuclear cells

159
Q

Herpes 6 and 7

A 
via saliva
Roseola infantum (high fevers --> seizurs, diffuse macular rash trunk to extremities)
160
Q

Kaposi

A

HHV8
sex
HIV and AIDS
dark plaques or nodules, GI and lungs

161
Q

Reoviruses

A

linear multisegmented DS RNA
Coltivirus
Rotavirus- fatal diarrhea in children, villous destruction with atrophy –> decreased absorption of Na+ and loss of K+

162
Q

Picornaviruses

A

Linear SS + RNA
poliovirus
Echovirus- aspectic meningitis
Rhinovirus- common cold, acid labile, nonenveloped
Coxsackievirus- aseptic meningitis, herpangina, hand, foot and mouth disease, myocarditis, percarditis
HAV

163
Q

Hepevirus

A

linear SS+ RNA

164
Q

Caliciviruses

A

Linear SS+ RNA

Norovirus- viral gastroenteritis

165
Q

Flaviviruses

A 
Linear SS+ RNA
HCV
Yellow fever
Dengue
St. Louis encephalitis
West Nile- meningoencephalitis, flaccid paralysis
Zika virus
166
Q

Togaviruses

A

Linear SS+ RNA
chikaungunya virus (with dengue)
Rubella- fever, postauricular LAD, arthralgia, maculopapular rash (face to trunk) Blueberry muffin appearance in congenital
Eastern and Western equine encephalitis

167
Q

Retroviruses

A

SS+ linear RNA
Have Reverse Transcriptase
HTLV- T cell leukemia
HIV- AIDS

168
Q

Coronaviruses

A

Linear SS+ RNA

MERS, SARS

169
Q

Orthomyxoviruses

A

Linear SS- RNA
influenza- contain hemagglutinin and neuraminidase. At risk for fatal bacterial superinfection. T(x) neuraminidase inhibitor

170
Q

Paramyxoviruses

A 
Linear SS- RNA (children)
Surface F proteins that cause respiratory epithelial cells to fuse
parainfluenza- croup
RSV- bronchiolitis
Measles
Mumps
171
Q

Rhabdovirus

A

Linear SS- RNA

Rabies

172
Q

Filoviruses

A

Linear SS- RNA

Ebola- fatal

173
Q

Arenaviruses

A

Circular SS-/+ RNA
LCMV
Lassa fever encephalitis

174
Q

Bunyaviruses

A 
Circular SS- 
California encephalitis
Rift Valley fevers
Crimean Congo hemorrhagic fever
Hantavirus- hemorrhagic fever, pneumonia
175
Q

Delta Virus

A

Circular SS-
via parenteral, sexual, perinatal
HDV requires HBV

176
Q

Yellow Fever

A

Flavivirus
via Aedes mosquitoes
fever, black vomit, jaundice
Councilman bodies on liver biopsy

177
Q

Genetic/antigenic shift

A

Infection of 1 cell by 2 different segmented viruses –> RNA segment reassortment –> different virus –> pandemics

178
Q

Genetic/antigenic drift

A

random mutation in hemagglutinin or neuraminidase genes –> minor changes –> epidemics

179
Q

Acute Laryngotracheobronchitis

A

croup (seal like barking cough)- narrow upper trachea and subglottis
can cause pulsus paradoxus
caused by parainfluenza viruses
contain hemagglutinin and neuraminidase

180
Q

Measles

A

prodromal fever with cough, corynza, conjunctivitis –> Koplik spots –> maculopapular rash (head –> down)
Lymphadenitis with Warthin Finkeldey giant cells
Vitamin A reduce morbidity

181
Q

Mumps

A

MMR vaccine
parotitis, orchitis, aseptic meningitis, pancreatitis
can cause sterility

182
Q

Rabies

A

Bullet shaped
Negri bodies (cytoplasmic inclusions in Purkinje)
long incubation
Travels to CNS retrograde (dyenin) after binding ACh receptors
fever, malaise –> agitation, photophobia, hydrophobia, hypersalivation –> coma –> death

183
Q

Ebola

A

Filovirus target endothelial cells, phagocytes, hepatocytes
abrupt flu like symptoms, diarrhea, high fever, myalgia
Can progress to DIC, diffuse hemorrhage, shock
via direct contact with bodily fluids
supportive care

184
Q

Zika

A 
Flavivirus via Aedes mosquito
conjunctivitis, pyrexia, itchy rash
congenital microcepahly or miscarriage
Sexual and vertical transmission
Supportive Care
185
Q

HAV

A 
RNA picornavirus
fecal- oral (shellfish)
short incubation
Acute and self limiting
Hepatocyte swelling, monocyte infiltration, councilman bodies
No carrier state
186
Q

HBV

A 
DNA hepadnavirus
via blood, sex, pernatal
long incubation
fever arthralgia, rash --> HCC
granular eosinophilic ground glass 
carrier state common
Aplastic anemia
membranous GN > membranoproliferative GN
PAN
187
Q

HCV

A

RNA flavivirus
via blood
long incubation
may progress to cirrhosis or carcinoma
Lyphoid aggregates with focal areas of macrovesicular steatosis
carrier state very common
essential mixed cryoglobinemia, increasedrisk of B cell NHL, ITP, autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Membranoproliferative GN > membranous GN
increased risk of DM, autoimmune hypothyroidism

188
Q

HEV

A 
RNA hepevirus
fecal oral
short incubation
fulminant hepatitis in expecting mothers
patchy necrosis
189
Q

Anti HAV IgM

A

IgM to HAV

detect acute hepatitis A

190
Q

Anti HAV IgG

A

IgG to prior HAV or vaccination

191
Q

HBsAg

A

Ag on surface of HBV

hepatitis B infection

192
Q

Anti HBs

A

Ab to HBsAg

immunity to Hepatitis B via vaccination or recovery

193
Q

HBcAg

A

Ag associated with core of HBV

194
Q

Anti HBc

A

Ab to HBcAg
IgM- acute or recent infection (window)
IgG- prior exposure or chronic infection

195
Q

Anti HBe

A

Ab to HbeAg

low transmissibility

196
Q

HIV structure

A

RNA
env (gp120/41)- attach to host CD4 and fusion and entry
gag (p24/17)- capsid and matrix proteins
pol- reverse transcriptase, integrase , protease
Virus binds CD4 and CCR5 (macrophages) or CXCR4 (T cells)

197
Q

HIV D(x)

A

HIV1/2 Ag/Ab immunoassays
Detect p24 Ag and IgG Ab
AIDS d(x): <200 CD4 or HIV+ with AIDS defining condition

198
Q

Stages of untreated HIV

A

Flu-like (acute)
Latent- virus replicates in LN
Falling count
Final Crisis

199
Q

Diseases when CD4 <500

A

Candida- oral thrush (scrapable white plaque, pseudohyphae)
EBV- oral hairy leukoplakia (lateral tongue)
HHV8- Kaposi
HPV- SCC (anus or cervix)

200
Q

Diseases when CD4 <200

A

Histoplasma capsulatum- fever, weight loss, fatigue, cough, dyspnea, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
HIV- Dementia
JC virus: progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
Pneumocystis jirovecii- Pneumocystis pneumonia (ground glass)

201
Q

Diseases when CD4 <100

A

Aspergillus fumigatus- hemoptysis, pleuritic pain
Bartonella- Bacillary angiomatosis
Candida- esophagitis
CMV- colitis, retinitis, esophagitis, encephalitis, pneumonitis
Cryptococcus neoformans- Meningitis
Cryptosporidium- chronic watery diarrhea
EBV- B cell lymphoma
Mycobacterium- systemic symptoms, lymphadenitis
Toxoplasma gondii- brain abscess

202
Q

Prions

A

Convert a helical –> B pleated via CNS related tissue or contaminated food.
Resists protease degradation and facilitates the conversion of prion
Spongiform encephalopathy, dementia, ataxia, death
CJD- rapid dementia
Bocine spongiform encephalopathy
Kuru- via human cannibalism

203
Q

Pneumonia in neonates

A

Strep B

E coli

204
Q

Pneumonia in chidren

A 
RSV
Mycoplasma
C. trachomatis
C pneumoniae
S. pneumoniae
205
Q

Pneumonia in adults

A

Mycoplasma
C. Pneumoniae
S. pneumoniae
Viruses

206
Q

Pneumonia in older adults

A 
S. pneumoniae
H. influenza
Anaerobes
Viruses
Mycoplasma
207
Q

Pneumonia in elderly

A 
S. pneumoniae
influenza virus
Anaerobes
H. influenzae
Gram - rods
208
Q

Meningitis in Newborn

A

Strep B
E. coli
Listeria

209
Q

Meningitis in children

A 
S. pneumoniae
N. meningitidis
H influenzae B
Strep B
enteroviruses
210
Q

Meningitis in Adults

A

N. meningitidis
S. pneumoniae
Enteroviruses
HSV

211
Q

Meningitis in elderly

A 
S. pneumoniae
N. meningitidis
H. infleunzae B
Strep B
Listeria
212
Q

Infections causing brain absecess

A

Most common- viridans and s. aureus
Multiple- bacteremia
Toxoplasma gondii- AIDS

213
Q

Osteomyelitis most common

214
Q

Osteomyelitis in sexually active

A

N. gonorrhea, septic arthritis

215
Q

Osteomyelitis in SCD

A

salmonella

216
Q

Osteomyelitis in prosthetic joint

A

S. epidermidis

217
Q

Osteomyelitis vertebral involvement

A

s. aureus, M. tuberculosis

218
Q

Osteomyelitis in bat and dog bites

A

Pasteurella multocida

219
Q

Osteomyelitis in IV drug users

A

S. aureus, pseudomonas, candida

220
Q

UTI organisms

A

E. coli, Staph saprophyticus (sexually active), Klebsiella pneumoniae, serratia, enterococcus, proteus mirabilis (struvite stones), pseudomonas
D(x) Leukocyte esterase, Nitrite test (E. coli), Urease test (stap, proteus, klebsiella)

221
Q

Bacterial vaginosis

A

No inflammation, thin white discharge, fishy odor
Clue cells basic
T(x): metronidazole or clindamycin

222
Q

Trichomonas vaginitis

A

inflammation, frothy yellow-green foul smelling discharge
motile pear shaped, basic
T(x): Metronidazole

223
Q

Candida vulvovaginitis

A 
inflammation, thick white cottage cheese discharge
Pseudohyphae
T(x): Azoles
224
Q

ToRCHHeS Infections

A

Toxoplasma gondii- chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications +/- blueberry muffin
Rubella- abnormal eye, ear, PDA, blueberry muffin rash
CMV- hearing loss, seizures, petechial rash, blueberry muffin rash, chorioretinitis, perventricular calcifications
HIV- recurrent infections, chronic diarrhea
HSV2- meningoencephalitis, herpetic lesions
Syphilis- stillbirth, hydrops fetalis, facial abnormalitis, saber shins, CNVIII deafness

225
Q

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

A

Chlamydis trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrheae
Cervical motion tenderness, adnexal tenderness, purulent cervical discharge
Salpingitis, endometritis, hydrosalpinx and tubo ovarian abscess
Fitz Hugh Curtis- inflammation of liver capsule

226
Q

Penicillin G and V

A

B lactam antibiotics
D-Ala D-Ala structural analog –> bind transpeptidase –> lock cross linking of peptidoglycan wall –> autolytic enzyme
Gram + , N. meningitidis, spirochetes
Hypersensitivity, direct Coombs + , interstitial nephritis

227
Q

Penicillinase sensitive penicillins

A

Amoxicillin, ampicillin, aminopenicillins
D-Ala D-Ala structural analog –> bind transpeptidase –> lock cross linking of peptidoglycan wall –> autolytic enzyme
H. flu, H pylori, E coli, Listeria, proteus, salmonella, shigella, enterococci
Hypersensistivity, rash, pseudomembranous colitis
Resistance via penicillinase

228
Q

Penicillinase resistant penicillin

A

Dicloxacilin, nafcillin, oxacillin
D-Ala D-Ala structural analog –> bind transpeptidase –> lock cross linking of peptidoglycan wall –> autolytic enzyme
S. aureus
Hypersensitivity, interstitial nephritis

229
Q

Antipseudomonal penicillin

A

piperacillin, ticarcillin
D-Ala D-Ala structural analog –> bind transpeptidase –> lock cross linking of peptidoglycan wall –> autolytic enzyme
Pseudomonas, gam-
Hypersensitivity

230
Q

Cephalosporins

A

inhibit cell wall synthesis. Bactericidal
Hypersensitivity reactions, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, disulfram like reaction, vit K deficiency, increase nephrotoxicity
Inactivated by cephalosporinases

231
Q

1st generation cephalosporins

A

cefazolin cephalexin

Gram + cocci, proteus, E.coli, Klebsiella

232
Q

2nd generaltion cephalosporins

A

cefaclor, cefoxitin, cefuroxime, cefotetan

gram + cocci, H flu, Enterobacter, Neisseria, Serratia, Proteus, E coli, Klebsiella

233
Q

3rd generation cephalosporins

A

ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, cefpodoxime, ceftazidime

gram - infections

234
Q

4th generation cephalosporins

A

cefepime

gram - with increased activity against pseudomonas and gram +

235
Q

5th generation cephalosporins

A

ceftaroline
broad gram + and gram -
MRSA and enterococcus faecalis
NOT PSEUDOMONAS

236
Q

B lactamase inhibitors

A

Clavulanic acid, avibactam, sulbactam, tazobactam

Added to penicillin Abx

237
Q

Carbapenems

A

Doripenem, Imipenem, Meropenem, Ertapenem
Administered with cilastatin (imipenem)
gram + cocci, gram - rods
GI distress, rash, CNS tox
inactivated by carbapenemases (klebsiella, E coli and Enterobacter)

238
Q

Monobactams

A

Azetreonam
prevent peptidoglycan cross linking by binding to PBP3.
gram - rods
nontoxic, sometimes GI upset

239
Q

Vancomycin

A

inhibit cell wall peptidoglycan formation by binding D ala D ala
C. difficile, MRSA, S. epidermidis, etnerococcus
nephrotox, ototox, thrombophlebitis, red man syndrome, DRESS syndrome
resistance via amino acid modification

240
Q

30S inhibitors

A

inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
aminoglycosides
tetracyclines

241
Q

50 S inhibitors

A

inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
chloramphenicol, clindamycin,
erythromycin
linezolid

242
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

gentamicin, neomycin, amikacin, tobramycin, streptomycin
irreverisble inhibiton of 30S
gram - rod
nephrotox, neuromuscular block, ototox, teratogenicity
Bacterial transferase enzymes inactivate the drug

243
Q

Tetracyclines

A 
tetracycline, doxycycline, minocycline
bind 30S
Borrelia burgdorferi, M. pneumoniae
GI distress, discoloration of teeth and inhibit bone growth, photosensitivity
contra: pregnant
244
Q

Tigecycline

A

Tetracycline derivative
Bind 30S
gram -, gram +, MRSA, VRE
GI symptoms, nausea, vomiting

245
Q

Chlorampenicol

A

block peptidyltransferase at 50 S
meningitis, rickettsia
adverse: anemia, gray baby

246
Q

Clindamycin

A

block peptide transfer at 50 S
anaerobic infections, strep A
adverse: pseudomembranous colitis, fever, diarrhea

247
Q

Linezolid

A

inhibit protein synthesis by binding 50 S
Gram +, MRSA, VRE
adverse: bone marrow suppression, peripheral neuropathy, 5HT syndrome

248
Q

Macrolides

A

azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin
inhibit protein synthesis by blocking translocation of 50S
Atypical pneumonias, STIs, gram + cocci, pertussis
Adverse: GI motility, arrhythmias, cholestatic hepatitis, rash, eosinophilia

249
Q

Polymyxins

A

Colistin, B
cation polypeptides that bind phospholipids on cell membrane
MDR gram -
nephrotox, neurotox, respiratory failure

250
Q

Sulfanimides

A

inhibit dihydropteroate synthase –> inhibit folate synthesis
gram +, gram -, nocardia
Adverse: hypersensitivity, hemolysis if G6PD deficient, nephrotox, photosensitive, SJS, kericterus

251
Q

Dapsone

A

Similar to sulfonamides
leprosy, PCJ
Adverse: hemolysis if G6PD, methemoglobinemia, agranulocytosis

252
Q

Trimethoprim

A

inhibit bacterial dihydrofolate reductase
combo with bactrim for UTO, shigella, salmonella, PCJ, toxoplasma
Adverse: hyperkalemia, megaloblastic anemia, leukopenia, granulocytopenia

253
Q

Fluoroquinolones

A

-oxacin
inhibit Topo II and IV
gram - rods of GU and GI tracts, gram +, otitis externa
Adverse: GI upset, superinfections, rashes, HA, dizzy
contra in pregnant and children

254
Q

Daptomycin

A

lipopeptide that disrupts cell membrane of gram + cocci
MRSA and VE
Adverse: myopathy, rhabdomyolysis

255
Q

Metronidazole

A

form free radicals in bacterial cell
giardia, entamoeba, trichomonas, gardanella, anaerobes, H pylori
Adverse: disulfram like reaction with alcohol, HA metallic taste

256
Q

Rifamycin

A

rifampin, rifabutin
inhibit DNA dependent RNA pol
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, leprosy, H flu B
Adverse: minor hepatotox, orange body fluid

257
Q

Isoniazid

A

decrease synthesis of mycolic acids
M. tuberculosis
Adverse: hepatotox, SLE, anion gap met acidosis, vit B6 deficiency, seizures

258
Q

Pyrazinamide

A

M tuberculosis

Adverse: Hyperuricemia, hepatotox

259
Q

Ethambutol

A

decrease carb polymerization of mycobacterium cell wall by blocking arabinosyltransferase
M tuberculosis
adverse: optic neuropathy

260
Q

Streptomycin

A

interfere with 30S
M tuberculosis
Adverse: tinnitus, vertigo, ataxia, nephrotox

261
Q

Amphotericin B

A

bind ergosterol
Crytptococcus, Blastomyces, Coccidioides, Histoplasma, Candida, Mucor
Adverse: fever, chills, hypotension, nephrotox, arrhythmias, anemia, phlebitis

262
Q

Nystatin

A

bind ergosterol
TOPICAL ONLY
swish and swallow for oral candidiasis

263
Q

Flucytosine

A

Inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis via conversion to 5FU
systemic fungal infections
adverse: bone marrow suppression

264
Q

Azoles

A

inhibit ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting CYP450
local and less serious systemic mycoses
Adverse: testosterone inhibition, liver dysfunction

265
Q

Terbinafine

A

inhibit squalene epoxidase
Dermatophytoses
Adverse: GI upset, HA, hepatotox, taste disturbance

266
Q

Echinocandins

A

-fungins
inhibit cell wall synthesis via inhibit B glucan
invasive aspergilliosis, Candida
Adverse GI upset, flushing

267
Q

Griseofulvin

A

interfere with microtubule function, disrupts mitosis
oral treatment for superficial infections
Adverse: teratogenic, carcinogenic, confusion, HA, disulfram like reactions

268
Q

Chloroquine

A

block detox of heme into hemozoin
plasmodial species
Adverse: retinopathy, pruritis

269
Q

Oseltamivir

Zanamivir

A

inhibit influenza neuraminidase

Influenza A and B

270
Q

Acyclovir
Famiciclovir
Valacyclovir

A

guanosine analog
HSV and VZV
Adverse: obstructive crystalline nephropathy, AKI

271
Q

Ganciclovir

A

Guanosine analog
CMV
Adverse: bone marrow suppression, renal tox

272
Q

Foscarnet

A

viral DNA/RNA pol inhibitor and HIV RTase inhibitor
CMV retinitis, HSV
Adverse: nephrotox, electrolyte abnormalities, seizures

273
Q

Cidofovir

A

inhibit DNA pol
CMV retinitis, HSV
Adverse: nephrotox

274
Q

NRTI

A 
Treat HIV
competitive inhibition of nucleotide binding to RTase and terminate DNA chain
Adverse: bone suppression, peripheral neuropathy, lactic acidosis
Abacavir (contra in HLA B27 pt)
didanosine
emtricitabine
lamivusine
stauvidine
Tenofovir
Zidovudine
275
Q

NNRTI

A 
Treat HIV
Bind RTase 
Adverse: rash and hepatotox
Delavirdine
Efavirenz
Nevirapine
276
Q

Integrase inhibitors

A

Treat HIV
-tegra-
inhibit HIV genome integration
Adverse: increase CK

277
Q

Protease inhibitors

A

Treat HIV
-navir
precent maturation of new viruses
Adverse: hyperglycemia, GI intolerance, lipodystrophy, nephrotox

278
Q

Enfuvirtide

A

Treat HIV
bind gp 41, inhibit viral entry
Adverse: skin reaction at injection site

279
Q

Maraviroc

A

Treat HIV

bind CCR5 on T cell –> inhibit interaction with gp120

280
Q

NS5A inhibitors

A

Treat Hep C
-asvir
Adverse: HA, diarrhea

281
Q

NS5B inhibitors

A

Treat Hep C
-buvir
prevent viral RNA rep
Adverse: fatigue, HA

282
Q

NS3/4A inhibitors

A

Treat Hep C
-previr
prevent viral rep

283
Q

Ribavirin

A

Treat Hep C
inhibit synthesis of guanine nucleotides by inhibiting IMP dehydrogenase
Adverse: hemolytic anemia, severe teratogen

Step 1 (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions