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Phase 2a LM > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Are gram positive bacteria pink or purple

A

Purple

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2
Q

Are gram negative bacteria pink or purple

A

Pink

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3
Q

What type of bacteria are gram positive chains

A

Streptococcus

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4
Q

What test do you do to differentiate between different types of streptococcus (gram +ve chains)

A

Haemolysis on blood agar

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5
Q

What does alpha haemolysis look like on blood agar

A

Narrow greening around the colonies

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6
Q

What does beta haemolysis look like on blood agar

A

Clear zone around the colonies

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7
Q

If alpha haemolysis is present, what two types of strep could it be

A

Strep viridans or strep pneumonia

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8
Q

How do you differentiate between strep viridans and strep pneumoniae

A

Optochin test

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9
Q

Is strep pneumoniae resistant (insensitive) or sensitive (doesn’t grow) to optochin

A

Sensitive

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10
Q

Is strep viridans resistant (insensitive) or sensitive (doesn’t grow) to optochin

A

Resistant

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11
Q

What tests are required after beta haemolysis to differentiate between different types of strep

A

Antibody groups

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12
Q

What type of bacteria are gram positive clusters

A

Staphylococcus

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13
Q

What test is used to differentiate between different types of staphylococcus

A

Coagulase test

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14
Q

If there is a positive coagulase test, what type of staph is present

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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15
Q

If the coagulase test is negative, what type of staph is present

A

Coagulase negative staphylococcus

E.g. Staph epidermidis

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16
Q

The appearance on a MacConkey plate is used to identify what type of bacteria

A

Gram negative bacilli

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17
Q

What does the MacConkey plate test for

A

Whether there is lactose fermentation or not

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18
Q

What colour does the lactose fermenters appear

A

Pink

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19
Q

What colour does the non lactose fermenters appear

A

White

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20
Q

What test is then used to differentiate the non lactose fermenters

A

Oxidase test

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21
Q

What type of bacteria are the lactose fermenters

A

Enterobacteriaceae

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22
Q

Give an example of a type of bacteria that is a non lactose fermenter but has a positive oxidase test

A

Pseudomonas

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23
Q

Give an example of a type of bacteria that is a non lactose fermenter and has a negative oxidase test

A

Shigella

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24
Q

Why can’t viruses be grown easily

A

They can only reproduce inside living cells

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25
Q

What two methods are available for virus diagnosis

A
  1. Genetic material

2. Changes in the host that can only have been made by a virus

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26
Q

How are different viruses tested for in a lab

A

Using PCR

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27
Q

Which immunoglobulins do you look for in an acute infection

A

Increased amounts of IgM and fewer IgG

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28
Q

Which immunoglobulins do you expect to see with long term memory to an antigen

A

Increased IgG (memory Ab) than IgM

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29
Q

What virus causes glandular fever

A

EBV

30
Q

What group of virus infections is EBV from

A

Herpes group

31
Q

Name 3 other types of herpes virus’

A 
HSV 1
HSV 2
VZV - Varicella Zoster Virus 
EBV
CMV
32
Q

Haemophilus influenza only grows on which type of plate and why

A

Chocolate agar, because it requires the nutrients released by the breakdown of Hb when blood agar plates are cooked = chocolate agar

33
Q

What pathogen that causes pneumonia is found in warm waters/air conditioning units and is ‘atypical’

A

Legionella pneumophilia

34
Q

What sample and investigation is required to determine legionella as the cause of pneumonia

A

Urine, ELISA test (antigen detection kit)

35
Q

What stain is required to identify acid and alcohol fast bacilli

A

Ziehl-neelson

36
Q

What samples are required to identify TB

A

Sputum - at least 3 samples as intermittent sputum positivity
Induced sputum
Bronchi-alveolar lavage
Tissue biopsy

37
Q

What does Candida albicans look like on the sabouraud agar

A

Smooth, raised, cream coloured colonies

38
Q

What type of microorganism is Candida albicans

A

Yeast (fungus)

39
Q

Where is Candida albicans normally found

A

In mouth normally

40
Q

What antibiotic therapy is required to treat methicillin resistant staph aureas (MRSA)

A

Vancomycin

41
Q

What are two common staphylococcus found on the skin, and which is more common

A

Staph aureas

Staph epidermidis - more common

42
Q

Name some pathogens that can cause infective endocarditis

A 
Strep viridans
Staph aureas 
MRSA
Staph epidermidis 
Candida albicans 
Enterococci
43
Q

What antibiotic works best on gram negative bacteria

A

Gentomyocin

44
Q

What type of antibiotic works best on gram positive bacteria

A

Penicillins e.g. Amoxicillin

45
Q

Why would you also give a low dose gentomyocin to a gram positive bacteria infection after a penicillin

A

The gentomyocin is more effect on the gram positive bacteria after a penicillin has been given, and gentomyocin is very toxic to the bacteria (and humans) so only a low dose is required

46
Q

What is the most common site for a soft tissue skin infection

A

Lower leg

47
Q

What are the most common causes of erysipelas and cellulitis

A

Group A beta haemolytic strep

48
Q

Where is the infection in erysipelas

A

Intradermal infection

49
Q

Where is the infection in cellulitis

A

Sub cutaneous infection

50
Q

What is the most common ‘skin organism’ that causes an abscess in the skin soft tissue

A

Staph aureas

51
Q

What are the ‘pneumonia organisms’ that cause lung abscesses

A

Staph aureas
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

52
Q

What type of organisms do black and green swabs test for

A 
Black = bacteria 
Green = viral
53
Q

What test in the lab differentiates between staph and strep

A

Catalase

54
Q

If the catalase test is positive what is seen and what type is it

A

Bubbles of oxygen seen

Staph

55
Q

What is the first line antimicrobial for staph aureas causing impetigo

A

Flucloxacillin

56
Q

Name a group A strep (beta haemolytic)

A

Strep pyogenes

57
Q

What is the first line antimicrobial for group A strep

A

Penicillin/benzyl penicillin

58
Q

If you suspect a cannula site infection, what 3 samples should you send

A

Blood cultures
Cannula tip in universal container
Black swab

59
Q

How long does the treatment for MRSA go on for

A

2 weeks

60
Q

What are the most common pathogens to cause a UTI

A 
E. coli 
Proteus mirabilis
Klebisiella spp.
Staph saprophyticus 
Staph epidermidis 
Enterococci
61
Q

What is the number 1 pathogen causing UTIs

A

E. coli

62
Q

What is the standard treatment for E. coli causing UTIs

A 
Beta lactam antibiotics 
= amoxicillin 
= co-amoxiclav 
= cephalexin 
= trimethoprim
63
Q

If a urine sample is contaminated what do you see

A

Epithelial cells and no pus

64
Q

What antibiotic can you NOT give in pregnancy

A

Trimethoprim

65
Q

What does a CLED plate test for

A

Urinary tract pathogens

Whether they’re lactose fermenting or not

66
Q

If the CLED plate is yellow what does it mean

A

They’re lactose fermenting pathogens

67
Q

What colour do the non-lactose fermenting pathogens appear on CLED plate

A

Blue

68
Q

Give a few examples of lactose fermenting organisms

A

E. coli

Staph saprophiticus

69
Q

Give a few examples of non-lactose fermenting organisms

A

Pseudomonas
Shigella
Salmonella

70
Q

What part of the stream of urine does a urine sample need to be taken from

A

Middle

71
Q

Why is it important to collect urine from asymptomatic pregnancy women

A

Asymptomatic bacteriaemia is present in 4-7% of pregnant women, if left untreated there’s a high risk of ascending infection with pyelonephritis and then miscarriage. Screens for pre-eclampsia too.

Phase 2a LM (7 decks)

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