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NPLEX 1 study questions > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of UTI?

A

E. Coli

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2
Q

Most common cause of infant meningitis?

A

E. Coli

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3
Q

What infection is caught from raw milk and is especially dangerous for pregnant women and newborns?

A

Listeria

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4
Q

What is the route of transmission of Yersinia Pestis?

A

Rat-Flea-man

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5
Q

What bacteria is associated with buboes?

A

Yersinia Petis

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6
Q

What bacteria(s) causes severe gastroenteritis and can be caught from shellfish?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica, Vibrio parahemolyticus, and salmonella typhi

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7
Q

What bacteria causes pneumonia in immuno-compromised patients?

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

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8
Q

What red colored organism causes UTI in debilitated patients?

A

Serratia

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT a lactose fermenter? Proteus, E. Coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, or Serriatia?

A

Proteus

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10
Q

Which bacteria that produces urease is often associated with UTI especially after catherization?

A

Proteus

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11
Q

Which species causes thyphoid fever?

A

Salmonella typhi

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12
Q

What species causes thyphus?

A

Rickettsia Prowazeki

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13
Q

What organism can exist chronically in the gallbladder?

A

Salmonella typhi

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14
Q

What organism causes rose colored spots on the abdomen, high fever, and possible perforation of the abdomen?

A

Salmonella typhi

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15
Q

What organism, having many animal reservoirs produces endotoxin and is a common cause of food poisoning in the US?

A

Salmonella enterides

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16
Q

Salmonella choleosius carries what 3 things?

A

pneumonia, osteomyelitis, and meningitis

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17
Q

What causes bacillary dysentry?

A

Shigella dysenteriae

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18
Q

What gram + cocci is catalase +?

A

Staph Aureus

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19
Q

What gram + cocci is catalase - ?

A

Strep

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20
Q

Compare salmonella and staph food poisoning in terms of incubation and explain why?

A

Staph: 4-8 hours b/c it produces exotoxin.
Salmonella: 10-28 hours b/c the cells have to die and start producing endotoxin.

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21
Q

What organism causes boils, carbuncles, and impetigo?

A

Staph Aureus

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22
Q

Two possible organisms of impetigo are?

A

Staph Aureus, Strep Pyogenes (group A, Beta hemolytic)

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23
Q

What type of toxin is responsible for the scalded skin syndrome of staph aureus infection?

A

Exfoliatin

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24
Q

True or False: Staph aureus can be killed with penicilin, if not why?

A

False, b/c it secretes penicillinase which destroys penicillin

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25
Q

What organism is associated with toxic shock syndrome? (TSS)

A

Staph Aureus

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26
Q

The calalase test is diagnostic for what organism?

A

Staph Aureus

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27
Q

What organism has hemolysis as a diagnostic feature?

A

Streptococcus

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28
Q

What organism is responsible for scarlet fever?

A

Strep pyogenes

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29
Q

What is an important sequelae to know about strep?

A

Rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis

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30
Q

What is the Jones criteria for rheumatic fever?

A

J: joints–polyarthritis

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31
Q

How do we know if someone has had a recent S. pyogenes infection?

A

ASO titer will be increased

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32
Q

True or false: Strep pyogenes is Bacitracin sensitive?

A

True

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33
Q

What antibodies are produced in S. pyogenes infection?

A

antibodies to protein M. (enhances the host’s defense but can give rise to rheumatic fever)

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34
Q

Glomerulonephritis can follow what infection?

A

Strep.

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35
Q

In what type of strep infection is the the capsule pathogenic?

A

Strep pneumonaie

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36
Q

How does gonorrhea usu. present in males?

A

urethritis, purulent discharge

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37
Q

how does gonnorrhea present in females and what are the complications?

A

Usu. asx, complications are PID or salpingitis (leads to scarring and infertility)

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38
Q

What STI grows on Thayer-Martin agar in CO2?

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

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39
Q

Which STI is oxidase positive?

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

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40
Q

Patient comes in with a fever, N/V, stiff neck, and petichiae what is the likely dx?

A

Neisseria meningitidis infection

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41
Q

What disease can you get from home canned products?

A

Clostridium botulinum

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42
Q

What type of paralysis is associated with C. Botulinum?

A

Descending flaccid paralysis

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43
Q

What organism causes gas gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

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44
Q

People who handle livestock are susceptible to what kind of infection?

A

Bacillus anthracis

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45
Q

What is a complication of diptheria

A

Respiratory paralysis and death

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46
Q

Corynebacterium diptheriae has what kind of throat infection? (what do you see?)

A

pseudomembranous pharyngitis- gray-ish white membrane.

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47
Q

Clostridium tetani causes what kind of paralysis?

A

spastic paralysis

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48
Q

Rice water stools is associated with what type of infection?

A

Vibrio cholera

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49
Q

What organism is associated with hot tubs and can cause folliculitis?

A

Pseudomonas

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50
Q

What is a common cause of OM in children, and can cause meningitis and pneumonia?

A

Hemophilus influenza

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51
Q

What causes a chancroid?

A

hemophilus ducreyi

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52
Q

What SDT has a painful ragged ulcer?

A

hemophilus ducreyi

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53
Q

what can be diagnosed with clue cells from a wet prep?

A

Gardnerella (H. vaginalis)

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54
Q

What organism grow around staph aureus on agar plate?

A

Hemophilus influenza

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55
Q

what causes whooping cough?

A

Bordatella pertussis

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56
Q

Rabbit fever is caused by what organism?

A

Francisella tularensis

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57
Q

What is tularemia spread?

A

Infected ticks

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58
Q

what disease is walled off in the body by granulomas?

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

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59
Q

what is the skin test for TB called?

A

Mantoux skin test

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60
Q

what is the immunization of TB called

A

BCG

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61
Q

how is brucella transmitted?

A

Raw milk (unpasteurized dairy products)

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62
Q

How is TB transmitted

A

by respiratory droplets

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63
Q

what kind of immune response does the body have to TB?

A

cell mediated response, no antibodies are involved.

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64
Q

what is the TB infection that has spread to the blood called?

A

Milary TB

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65
Q

what are the two types of leprosy?

A

Lepromatous (diffuse over skin- low humoral Th2 response) and tuberculoid (limited patches, Th1 response) leprosy

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66
Q

What type of leprosy is less infectous and has lost of bacteria present?

A

Lepromatous leprosy

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67
Q

Which type of leprosy is associated with defective cellular immunity?

A

Lepromatous leprosy

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68
Q

What organism is cultured in armadillos?

A

mycobacterium leprae

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69
Q

The chancre, a bulls eye lesion, is associated with what disease?

A

Syphillis - Treponema pallidum

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70
Q

what kind of organism causes Lyme disease and syphilis?

A

a spirochete

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71
Q

when is syphilis infectious?

A

primary and esp. secondary infections

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72
Q

the mucocutaneous lesion of syphlilis is found in what phase?

A

secondary

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73
Q

the gummas (chronic granulomas) are found in what stage of syphilis?

A

tertiary

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74
Q

what is Hutchinson’s triad and what is it caused by?

A

Congenital syphilis and has impaired vision, notched teeth, and impaired hearing.

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75
Q

Yaws is caused by what?

A

Treponema pallidum pertenue (a tropical infection of the skin, bones and joints )

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76
Q

What are some of the lab tests done for syphillis?

A

serological (non-speicific–i.e screening) VDRL/RPR, specific/dx: FTA-abs,

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77
Q

what does treponema vincentii cause?

A

Trench mouth

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78
Q

what organism causes “glue” ear

A

hemophilus influenza

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79
Q

what organism has a blue-green pigment and is associated with skin and esp. burn infections?

A

Pseudomonas aeriginoas

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80
Q

what is the vector for lyme disease?

A

deer tick

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81
Q

what disease has a spreading circular lesion called erythema chronicum migrans?

A

lyme disease

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82
Q

Lyme disease closely parallels what other disease in its 1, 2, and 3 sx?

A

syphilis

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83
Q

what organism causes infectious jaundice?

A

leptospira interrogans

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84
Q

what causes rate bite fever?

A

spirillum

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85
Q

what organism contrated from raw milk causes bloody diarrhea and can mimic appendicitis? (esp in children)

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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86
Q

what organism is implicated in causing gastritis and peptic ulcers?

A

helicobacter pylori

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87
Q

what organisms is a common antecedent to Guillain-Barre syndrome and reactive arthritis?

A

Campylobacter jejuni (fecal-oral, transmission through food)

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88
Q

what causes walking pneumonia?

A

mycoplasma pneumonia

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89
Q

What is special about mycoPLASM species?

A

They have no cell wall and are therefore resistant to penicillin.

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90
Q

what sexually transmitted organism requires cholestrol and urea?

A

ureaplasma

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91
Q

Ureaplasma causes what type of infection?

A

non-gonoccocal urethritis

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92
Q

what species of organisms are transmitted by arthropods?

A

Rickettsiae (obligate intracellular organism)

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93
Q

what causes epidemic typhus?

A

Rickettsiae prowazeki

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94
Q

what causes endemic typhus?

A

Rickettsiae typhi

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95
Q

Ricketsiae typhi affect which types of cell?

A

endothelial cells

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96
Q

what is the vector for Rickettsiae prowazeki?

A

the louse

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97
Q

what is the vector for rickettsiae typhi?

A

the flea

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98
Q

what is the only rickettsial disease with no vector?

A

Q-fever- Coxiella burnetti

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99
Q

What are some sx of typhus?

A

macular rash, high fever, acute bacteremia

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100
Q

What is the organism responsible for rocky mountain fever?

A

Rickettsia Rickettsii

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101
Q

How is Rocky mountain spotted fever transmitted?

A

the tick

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102
Q

What STI is associated with conjunctivitis and blindness?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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103
Q

what disease is associated with standing water, e.g. air condition systems?

A

Legionella pneumophila

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104
Q

what disease is associated with birds?

A

Chlamydia psittici

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105
Q

What fungus-like bacteria can mimic TB?

A

Norcardia

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106
Q

What causes lumpy jaw?

A

Actinomyces

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107
Q

What is the common name for Coccidodies immitis

A

Valley fever

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108
Q

what does chlamydia cause?

A

conjunctivitis, urethritis, cervicitis, salpingitis, lymphogranuloma venerum

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109
Q

What is the most common cause of epididymitis in men?

A

chlamydia trachomatis

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110
Q

Parrot fever is the common name for what disease?

A

Chlamydia Psittici

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111
Q

What is the name for trench fever?

A

Rochalimaea quintana

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112
Q

how do yeast reproduce?

A

budding

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113
Q

how do molds reproduce?

A

by forming tubular structures. Dormant as spores.

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114
Q

what fungi is associated with bat and bird feces?

A

histoplasma capsulatum — > histoplasmosis

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115
Q

what large encapsulated yeast is commonly found in soil and pigeon droppings?

A

cryptococcus neoformans

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116
Q

what type of lesions are associated with cryptococcus neoformans? where are they?

A

“soap bubble” lesions in the brain

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117
Q

C. Neoformans stains with India ink, what is it cultured on?

A

Sabouraud agar

118
Q

what organism causes status asthmaticus, associated with asthma and cystic fibrosis?

A

Aspergilus fumigatus

119
Q

what is the medical name for ring worm?

A

Tinia corporis

120
Q

how is tinea diagnosed?

A

KOH wet mount

121
Q

What causes jock itch?

A

tinea cruris

122
Q

what opportunistic yeast commonly affects immunocompromised patients?

A

Candida albicans

123
Q

what causes amoebic dysentry?

A

entamoeba histolytica

124
Q

what causes beaver disease?

A

giardia lamblia

125
Q

which of the following do NOT cause bloody diarrhea?

  • Shigella dysenteriae
  • Campylobacter jejuni
  • Giardia Lamblia
  • Entamoeba
A

giardia lamblia

126
Q

which parasite interferes with fat absorption?

A

Giardia lamblia

127
Q

True or false: trichomonas has NO cysts?

128
Q

pneumocystis carnii is a problem for what kind of patient?

A

immunocompromised

129
Q

who is as risk for an infection of toxoplasma gondii

A

pregnant women

130
Q

what parasite is associated with cats?

A

toxoplasma gondii

131
Q

what is the common name for Ascaris lumbricoides?

A

human round worm

132
Q

what is the common name for Necato americanus

133
Q

what parasite causes spoon nails, anemia and stunted growth?

134
Q

what parasite can be contracted from pork or bear meat?

A

trichinella spiralis

135
Q

what is the vector for malaria?

136
Q

what does plasmodium species of parasites cause?

137
Q

how is filariasis transmitted?

138
Q

what causes elephantitis?

A

filariasis

139
Q

schistosomata is associated with what reservoir?

140
Q

taenia is associated with what animals?

A

pigs and cows

141
Q

what type of parasite is taenia solium

A

tapeworm (ingestion of larvae from under cooked pork)–can cause brain cysts and seizures (cysticercosis)

142
Q

Clonorchis is what type of parasite?

A

liver fluke– from undercooked fish– biliary tract inflammation, associated with cholangiocarcinoma

143
Q

Diphyllobothrium latum is what kind of parasite?

A

fish tapeworm (ingestion of larvae from freshwater fish– depletes Vitamin B12)

144
Q

What type of parasite is a schistosome

A

a blood fluke

145
Q

what population is most affected by pneumocystis jirovecii?

A

immunosuppressed–eg. AIDs pts

146
Q

what does pneumocystis jirovecii cause?

A

pneumocystis pneumonia, a diffuse interstitial pneumonia

147
Q

What types of stools are seen in giardiasis?

A

fatty stools (other sx: bloating, flatulence, foul-smelling fatty diarrhea)

148
Q

What type of discharge is seen in trichomonas vaginalis?

A

foul-smelling greenish discharge, also itching and burning

149
Q

what does Wuchereria bancrofti cause?

A

blocks lymphatic vessels– elephantitis. Transmitted by a female mosquito.

150
Q

Major cause of acute diarrhea in the US during winter, and most important global cause of infantile GE?

A

Rotavirus: dsRNA virus.

151
Q

German measles is caused by what virus?

A

Rubella virus- togavirus. (3 day measles) mild children’s disease by serious congenital dz.

152
Q

Myocardial dz is most commonly caused by what type of organism?

A

Virus: Coxsackie-B, Flu, CMV, ECHO

153
Q

What bacteria can cause myocarditis?

A

Staph, strep, corynebacterium diptheria.

154
Q

What parasites can cause myocarditis?

A

toxoplasmosis, trypansosoma cruzi, trichinosis

155
Q

What is Rickettsial myocarditis?

A

Typhus, rocky mountain spotted fever, flabby ventricular myocardium, 4 chamber dilation, endocardium and valves unaffected, mb asx or get CHF.

156
Q

what happens when salicylates are given during viral illness?

A

Reye’s syndrome (link to aspirin)

157
Q

What are the most common potential complications of Reyes syndrome?

A

encephalopathy and liver damage

158
Q

what age group is most affected by HAV?

159
Q

how is HAV transmitted?

A

fecal oral route

160
Q

what immunoglobulin arises early in HAV infection?

161
Q

what is the incubation period for HAV?

162
Q

what sx are common in early HAV?

A

fever, jaundice, nausea

163
Q

What are some other signs of HAV infection

A

dark colored urine, clay colored stools, elevation of liver serum enzymes

164
Q

what are the 3 known methods for contracting HBV?

A

blood, perinatally, sexual contact

165
Q

what is the incubation period for HBV?

A

10-12 days

166
Q

what sx commonly occur ins HBV?

A

fever, fatigue, nausea, jaundice w/hepatomegally, arthralgia, arthritis

167
Q

what serum antigen tends to rise 1-6 weeks before clinical sx of HBV?

A

HBsAg (surface antigen)

168
Q

what serum antigen of HBV occurs during active infection?

A

HBeAg (e antigen)

169
Q

what serum antibody against HBV appears weeks after recovery?

A

Anti-HBsAb (anti-surface antibody)

170
Q

What serum antibody against HBV appears at onset of clinical sx or suggests a past infection?

A

Anti-HBcAb (anti-core antibody)

171
Q

what serum antibody against HBV suggests low risk of infectivity and shows good chance of avoiding chronic liver disease?

A

Anti-HBeAb (anti-e-antibody)

172
Q

why does HBV have a potential carrier state?

A

viral DNA is integrated in the chromosome of host cells

173
Q

what population has a high rate of hepatitis C infection?

A

IV drug users and transfusion/blood product recipients prior to 1992.

174
Q

the delta particle is associated with what disease?

A

Hepatitis D

175
Q

What is the transmission route for each type of viral hepatitis?

A 
HAV: fecal oral (food and water)
HBV: sexual, parenteral, blood
HCV: blood (major), sex (low risk)
HDV: need to have hep B, blood, sex, needles, parenteral
HEV: fecal oral (contaminated water)
176
Q

what type of hepatitis virus occurs with another hep infection

A

hep D requires concurrent infection with hep B

177
Q

what types of hepatitis may progress to chronic hepatitis?

A

hep B and C

178
Q

what is the most common cause of transfusion mediated hepatitis?

179
Q

alcoholic hepatitis involves what changes in the liver

A

infiltration of neutrophils, focal liver cell necrosis, presence of mallory bodies, fatty changes in the liver, fibrosis leading to central venous obstruction

180
Q

what is the most common cause of opportunistic infections?

A

candida albicans

181
Q

what pathologies is candida responsible for?

A

diaper rash, oral thrush, candidal esophagitis, “yeast infections” and endocarditis of tricuspid valve (in drug users)

182
Q

Does candida change the pH of the vaginal secretions?

A

No, remains normal at

183
Q

what factors predispose someone to a candidal infection?

A

being diabetic, antibiotic use, oral contraceptive use, IV drug use, AIDs/immunocomp, sterroid use, heat and humidity.

184
Q

what is the geographical location associated with histoplasmosis?

A

midwest, central US, mississippi -ohio river valley

185
Q

what is the geographical location associated with blastomycosis?

A

southern and eastern US, great lakes, ohio river valley, extends to the east coast

186
Q

what is the geographical location associated with coccidiomycosis?

A

southwest US

187
Q

Bird, bad droppings, cave or chicken coup (farmers) are associated with what systemic fungi?

A

histoplasmosis

188
Q

What unique feature of histoplasmosis is found in the immunocomp?

A

hepatosplenomegly

189
Q

how does blastomycosis present in the immunocomp?

A

pneumonia that spreads to skin (ulcers) and bones (osteomyelitis)

190
Q

how does coccidiomycosis present in the immunocomp?

A

in the skin, lungs (pneumonia), bones, and meningitis

191
Q

Erythema nodosum is a major feature of what fungi?

A

Coccidiomycosis (major) also histoplasmosis

192
Q

what is the geographical location associated with paracoccidiomycosis?

A

south america

193
Q

what are the unique features of paracoccidiomycosis?

A

Lymphadenopathy and mucocutaneous lesions (ulcers of the mouth and lungs)…also granulomas (not unique)

194
Q

In general fungi are dimorphic… what are their forms?

A

Mold in the cold , Yeast in the heat

195
Q

Candida is catalase neg?

A

False, it is catalase +

196
Q

Aspergillus fumigatus is catalase +?

A

True, it is catalase +

197
Q

What toxin is associated with Aspergilus flavus?

A

Aflatoxin, it is carcinogenic: Hepatocellular carcinoma

198
Q

How is infection of aspergillus fumigatus transmitted?

A

forms conidophores w/fruiting bodies that are released into the air–> inhaled

199
Q

what 3 infections are associated with aspergillus fumigatus?

A

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, Aspergillomas (associated w/TB cavities), and Angioinvasive aspergillosis (in immunocomp)

200
Q

What is the main virulence factor for cryptococcus neoformans?

A

heavy encapsulation: repeating polysaccharide capsule, helps it avoid phagocytosis

201
Q

Where would you find cryptococcus neoformans?

A

in soil and pigeon droppings

202
Q

How is cryptococcus neoformans transmitted?

A

inhalation–> lungs–> desseminates

203
Q

What is unique feature of cryptococcus neoformans?

A

Urease + (minor detail but distinguishes it from other fungi)

204
Q

What is the most common cause of fungal meningitis?

A

cryptococcus neoformans

205
Q

what is most fungi cultured on ?

A

Sabourad agar (this method takes a long time so not used often for dx)

206
Q

cryptococcus neoformans causes what gross pathology in the brain?

A

soap bubble lesions in the gray matter

207
Q

what stain is used for CSF with cryptococcus neoformans?

A

India ink – see wide capsular halos

208
Q

what 3 things might you see with a cryptococcus neoformans infection?

A

fever, pneumonia, meningitis

209
Q

what is the major predisposing factor for a mucormycosis infection?

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

210
Q

Where does mucormycosis proliferate once the spores have been inhaled?

A

in blood vessel walls

211
Q

what type of branching does mucormycosis hyphae have?

A

non-septate and wide angle branching (90 deg)

212
Q

what type of branching does aspergillus fumigatus have?

A

septate acute angle branching

213
Q

what severe pathology is associated with mucormycosis?

A

frontal cortex abscesses, necrosis of eye and nose tissue ( invades the cribiform plate and penetrates the brain)

214
Q

what population is at risk of mucormycosis infection?

A

Immunocomp: especially: diabetics, leukemia, and neutropenia

215
Q

A pt with HIV, pneumonia, and CD4 count under 200 is likely to have

A

pneumocystis pneumonia

216
Q

Pneumocystis pneumonia is caused by what?

A

pneumocystis jiroveci

217
Q

what stain is used to diagnose pneumocystis pneumonia

A

methanamine silver stain

218
Q

what are some of the AIDS defining fungal infections

A

Candida (CD4

219
Q

Name the 3 types of dermatophytes?

A

Trichophyton, epidermophyton, microsporum

220
Q

Where do dermatophytes live?

A

on the skin, rarely invade other tissues

221
Q

Where do you find tinea capitis?

A

head and scalp

222
Q

where do you find tinea corporis

223
Q

where do you find tinea cruris

A

groin, aka jock itch

224
Q

where do you find tinea pedis?

A

feet, akak athletes foot

225
Q

what is it called when dermatophytes invade the nails?

A

onychomycosis

226
Q

how are dermatophytes dx?

A

hyphae on KOH skin scraping

227
Q

What can woods lamp detect?

A

only microsporum type

228
Q

what fungi causes hypo or hyper pigmented patches and is non pruristic (usu on the back and chest)?

A

Malassezia furfur– causes pityriasis versicolor

229
Q

what layer of the skin does malassezia furfur invade?

A

stratum corneum

230
Q

how does mycobacterum tuberculosis stain?

A

acid fast (dt mycolic acids in cell wall)

231
Q

what medium is used for culturing mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Lowenstein-Jensen medium

232
Q

how is TB transmitted?

A

respiratory droplets

233
Q

What are the two main virulence factors for TB?

A

cord factor (elicits granuloma formation by inc TNFa), and sulfatides (prevent phagolysosome fusion allowing TB to survive in macrophages)

234
Q

Where in the lungs would a primary TB infection be?

A

middle or lower lobes

235
Q

where in the lungs would a reactivated TB infection be?

A

upper lobes

236
Q

what type of granulomas does TB make/

A

caseating granulomas

237
Q

T/F: TB is an obligate aerobe

238
Q

that 3 things would cause a + TB skin test?

A

primary infection, latent infection, or having had the BCG vaccine

239
Q

what is the name of the calcified tissue and hilar LNs after a primary TB infection?

A

Ghon complex

240
Q

what is the most lethal type of TB?

A

Miliary TB- spread to blood and can affect any organ

241
Q

In what population is TB reactivated?

A

immunocomp, only in 5-10% of latent infections

242
Q

What is the method of TB reactivation?

A

by down regulation of TNFa (which is proinflammatory- maintains the containment of TB in granulomas)

243
Q

what are the classic sx of reactivation of TB?

A

cough, night sweats, hemoptysis

244
Q

What are some systemic pathologies of reactivated TB?

A

skeletal: POTS (damage to bones), CNS: meningitis or tuberculoma (cavitating lesion)

245
Q

Klebsiella, enterobacter, and serratia cause what pathologies?

A

pneumonia and UTI, **cause nosocomial infections

246
Q

Klebsiella, enterobacter, and serratia use what culture medium? what color are they?

A

Pink on MacConkey agar

247
Q

of Klebsiella, enterobacter, and serratia, which ones are motile?

A

Enterobacter and Serratia are motile. Klebsiella is immotile

248
Q

What color is serratia when cultured?

249
Q

What population is associated with klebsiella?

A

alcoholics

250
Q

What bacteria causes a currant jelly sputum?

A

klebsiella

251
Q

what does klebsiella cause?

A

Pneumonia, UTI, abscesses and aspirations

252
Q

What are the virulence factors for klebsiella?

A

Urease + and polysac capusule

253
Q

What agar is a Salmonella cultured on, what color is it?

A

Black colonies on Hektoen agar (H2S +)

254
Q

is salmonella mobile?

255
Q

What kind of person is suscetible to salmonella?

A

those with low stomach acid- salmonella is acid labile so normally would not survive (would need low stomach acid or high dose)

256
Q

What is the #1 cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell dz?

A

Salmonella typhi

257
Q

What is the main reservoir of salmonella enteritidis?

A

Chickens- eating undercooked chickens

258
Q

main virulence factor for salmonella enteritidis?

A

Type III secretion system

259
Q

Is Salmonella an intracellular aerobe?

A

no its a facultative intracellular but in macrophages only.

260
Q

What medium is used to culture shigella, what color are the colonies?

A

Green colonies on Hektoin agar

261
Q

what type of bacteria is shigella?

A

gram negative, acid stable, immobile, causing bloody diarrhea, facultative intracellular

262
Q

What pathology can Shigella dysenteriae cause in children?

A

Shiga toxin –>HUS (hemolytic uremic syndrome)–acute renal failure, endothelial injury leading thrombocytopenia (thrombi in microcirculation)

263
Q

what is the mechanism of Shigga toxin?

A

binds to 60S subunit of ribosome and inhibits translation

264
Q

What toxin causes necrosis in an C. Perfingens infections?

A

alpha toxin (causes hemolysis)

265
Q

Infection of C. perfringens is associated with what accidents?

A

motorcycle and military (exposure to dirt and soil in wounds- spore former)

266
Q

Can C. Perfringens cause late onset infection?

A

yes, from ingested spores can germinate and create toxin that causes watery diarrhea

267
Q

c. perfringens is an obligate aerobe?

A

No, it isn an obligate anaerobe, likes the non -oxygenated environment of wounds.

268
Q

how is C. diptheriae transmited?

A

respiratory droplets

269
Q

what major pathology can C. diptheriae cause if it enters the blood ?

A

life threatening Myocarditis. cardiotoxic (myocarditis, arrhythmias, heart block )

270
Q

what media is used to culture C. diptheraie?

A

Tellurite and loeffler’s media

271
Q

what type of response is seen with the toxoid vaccine for diptheria, tetanus and pertussis?

A

IgG (inactive exotoxin bound to a protein to increase immunogenicity)

272
Q

What gram + bacteria causes “bulls neck”?

A

clostriudium Diptheriae

273
Q

how does C. diptheriae stain?

A

metachomatic granules, stain with anilline dyes

274
Q

Main virulence factors for C. diptheriae?

A

Exotoxin A and B: inhibits elongation factor 2 to inhibit protein synthesis.

275
Q

what type of infeciton does C. Difficle cause?

A

nosocomial diarrhea (infects those with disrupted flora- i.e taking antbiotics or immunocomp…in hospitals)

276
Q

all clostridium species are obligate anaerobes?

A

True! (spore formers)

277
Q

what bacteria causes pseudomembranous colitis?

A

C. Difficile

278
Q

what bacteria causes rust-colored sputum?

A

Strep pneumoniae (lobar pneumonia of the lower lobes)

279
Q

What clinical infections can Strep pneumo cause?

A

most common for all MOPS: meningitis, otitis media, pneumonia, sinusitis

280
Q

what inhibits the growth of strep pneuo on culture?

A

optochin (sensitive)

281
Q

what is the main virulence factor for strep pneumoniae?

A

poly sac capsule

282
Q

Strep Agalactiae is part of what group of strep?

A

Group B strep

283
Q

what population does Strep agalactiae (GBS) infect?

A

newbornes, babies

284
Q

what test distinguishes Strep agalactiae (GBS) from other species of strep?

285
Q

what test distinguishes strep pneumo from strep viridans?

A

Strep agalactiae (GBS) is beta hemolytic, viridans is alpha hemolytic (partial)

286
Q

what is the number 1 cause of meningitis in neonates?

A

strep agalactiae (GBS)

287
Q

Would bacitracin stop Strep agalactiae (GBS) from growing on culture?

A

no , it is bacitracin resistant

288
Q

what bacteria is associated with dental caries?

A

Strep viridans

289
Q

What can strep viridans cause in those with damaged heart valves?

A

Subacute endocarditis is mitral valves. (mitral valves are most likely to be damaged)

290
Q

what bacteria grow on chocolate agar?

A

Haemophilus influenzae and Neisseria meningitidis

NPLEX 1 study questions (3 decks)

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