Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NPLEX 1 study questions > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 central lymphoid tissues?

A

Thymus gland and bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 3 peripheral lymphoid tissues?

A

Lymphnodes, peyers patches (ileum), spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is the site of B-cell localization and proliferation in a LN?

A

follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where are the T-cell in a LN?

A

paracortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is found in the medulla of the LN?

A

medullary cords (closely packed lymphocytes and plasma cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The role of B-lymphocytes is categorized as what kind of immunity?

A

humoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is produced with humoral immunity?

A

antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The role of T-lymphocytes is categorized as what kind of immunity?

A

cell mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What kind of chemical activates components of immune system (i.e. activates macrophages, PMNs, etc)?

A

lymphokines (subset of cytokines produced by lymphocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the function of basophils?

A

they function in the inflammation response by releasing histamine and other chemical that act on the blood vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the function of eosinophils?

A

they destroy parasitic organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the function of neutrophils?

A

they recognize foreign antigens and destroy them through phagocytosis (often the first to respond)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the function of monocytes/macrophages?

A

they engulf foreign antigens and cell debris and process antigen and present it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the function of B-lymphocytes?

A

they are independently able to identify foreign antigens and differentiate into antibody producing plasma and memory cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which LN drains the head and neck?

A

cervical LNs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which LN drains the upper limb, breast, and skin above the umbilicus?

A

Axillary LNs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What drains (lymph) the right side of the body above the diaphragm?

A

Right lymphatic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What drains the rest of the lymph into the junction of the left subclavian and internal jugular veins?

A

thoracic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the function of the natural killer cells?

A

Use perforin and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virally infected cells and tumor cells. Induced by non-specific activation (MHC 1). Also only lymphocyte member of the innate immune system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the role of macrophages in the spleen?

A

they remove encapsulated bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the consequence of splenic dysfunction? (post-splenectomy or sickle cell disease)

A

dec IgM –> dec complement activation –> increased susceptibility to encapsulated organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what do we see (histo) post splenectomy?

A

howell-jolly bodies, target cell, thrombocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which encapsulated organisms are we worried about with a damaged spleen?

A

Strep pneumoniae, H. influenzae type B, Neisseria meningitis, E.coli, Salmonella, klebsiella, and group B strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

where are B and T cell made?

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where do T cell mature?

A

Thymus = site of T-cell differentiation and maturation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the components of adaptive immunity?

A

T cell, B cell, and circulating antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the components of innate immunity?

A

neutrophils, macrophages, monocytes, dendritic cells, NK cells (lymphoid origin), and complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What type of response do we see in innate immunity?

A

non-specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what type of response do we see in adaptive immunity

A

highly specific, refined overtime– memory response becomes faster and more robust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What proteins are secreted in innate immunity?

A

lysozyme, complement, CRP, defensins, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What proteins are secreted in adaptive immunity?

A

immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the key feature of pathogen recognition in innate immunity?

A

Toll-like receptors (TLRs): pattern recognition receptors that recognize pathogen associated molecular patterns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the key feature of pathogen recognition in adaptive immunity?

A

memory cells: activated B and T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

where is MHC class 1 expressed?

A

expressed on all nucleated cells (not on RBCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

where is MHC class 2 expressed?

A

only on antigen presenting cell: dendritic cells, macrophages, and B-cells (plasma cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the function of MHC class 1?

A

to present endogenously synthesized antigens (e.g viral) to CD8+ cytotoxic T cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the function of MHC class 2?

A

to present exogenously synthesized proteins (e.g. bacterial proteins, viral capsid proteins) to T-Helper cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what diseases are associated with HLA B27?

A

PAIR: Psoriatic arthritis, Ankylosing spondylitis, arthritis of Inflammatory bowel disease, Reactive arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what disease is associated with HLA DQ2/DQ8?

A

celiacs dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what disease is associated with HLA DR4?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis, and type 1 diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the principle immunoglobulin in exocrine secretions e.g. breast milk, respiratory and intestinal mucosa, saliva, and tears?

A

IgA

42
Q

what immunoglobulin can move across the placenta thus becoming important for newborn’s immunity?

A

IgG

43
Q

what is the main immunogloblin in the serum?

A

IgG

44
Q

what immunoglobulin activates complement and is important for opsonization?

A

IgG

45
Q

what immunoglobulin attaches to mast cells in the respiratory system and intestinal tract and plays an important role in allergic response?

A

IgE

46
Q

what immunoglobulin is the first to form in response to an attack?

A

IgM

47
Q

what immunoglobulin controls the A, B, and O blood group antibody responses?

A

IgM

48
Q

Antigens present on all nucleated cell in the body that identify a cell as self are called what?

A

HLA

49
Q

what is a hapten?

A

a substance that normally does not act as an antigen- can elicit an immune response when attached to a larger protein but not alone.

50
Q

complement is activated in what type of immune response?

A

B-cell mediated immune response

51
Q

what types of proteins are involved in vasodilation, chemotaxis, opsonization of antigens, lysis of cells and blood cloting?

A

complement

52
Q

what is opsonization?

A

a coat (marker) is placed on cells that they can recognize for easier removal.

53
Q

what role does interferon play?

A

they are released when invading organism is a virus. they inhibit production of virus in infected cells, prevent viral spread, enhance activity of macrophages, NK cell, cytotoxic T cells and inhibit growth of tumor cells.

54
Q

which cytokine permits cells of the immune system to “talk” to one another and initiate a response?

A

IL-1

55
Q

which cytokine promotes humoral immunity?

A

IL-4, 5, and 10.

56
Q

which cytokine promotes cellular immunity?

A

IL-2, stimulates T-cells.

57
Q

hayfever is what type of hypersensitivity?

A

Type 1

58
Q

IgE is formed in what type of hypersensitivity?

A

type 1

59
Q

antibodies are produce in what type of immunity?

A

humoral

60
Q

The reaction of antigens and antibodies at cell surface is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

type 2

61
Q

anaphylactic and atopic reactions are what type of hypersensitivity?

A

type 1

62
Q

Reaction to blood transfusion would be what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

type 2

63
Q

The reaction of antigen and antibody in extracellular fluid space is what type of hypersensitivity reaction? (immune complex)

A

type 3

64
Q

Serum sickness is an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction

A

type 3

65
Q

A cell mediated reaction or delayed reaction mediated by T lymphocytes and antigen is an example of what type of hypersensitivity?

A

type 4

66
Q

TB is an example of what type of hypersensitivity?

A

type 4

67
Q

loss of normal tolerance by the immune system of “self” antigen on the surface of cells with destruction of normal tissue with auto-antibodies is defined as what?

A

autoimmunity

68
Q

what is the name for genital warts?

A

condyloma cuminata

69
Q

Downey cells or atypical lymphocytes are seen in what infection?

A

Epstein Barr (EBV)

70
Q

why does hep B have a potential carrier state?

A

viral DNA is integrated into the chromosome of the host cell

71
Q

pandemics of flu are associated with what?

A

antigenic shift, major changes in RNA

72
Q

which polio vaccine is alive attenuated and given orally?

A

Sabin

73
Q

Which polio vaccine is inactivated multi-valent and injectable?

A

salk

74
Q

how does polio cause paralysis?

A

by destroying motor neuron of the anterior horn and medulla

75
Q

hemolytic anemia, pernicious anemia, and good pastures syndrome are examples of what type of HS reaction?

A

type 2

76
Q

SLE, post-strep GN, and serum sickness are what type of HS reaction?

A

type 3

77
Q

MS, guillian barre, and TB are examples of what type of HS reaction?

A

type 4

78
Q

what antibody is found in myasthenia gravis?

A

anti-ACh receptor

79
Q

what antibody is found in good pastures syndrome?

A

anti-basement membrane (Lungs and kidneys)

80
Q

what antibody is found in SLE?

A

anti-dsDNA, anti-smith

81
Q

what antibodies are associated with PM and DM?

A

anti-Jo, anti-SRP, and anti-Mi-2

82
Q

what antibodies are found in hashimotos thyroiditis?

A

anti-microsomal (TPO), and anti-thyroglobulin (TG)

83
Q

anti-CCP is related to?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

84
Q

what antibodies are seen in RA?

A

RF and anti-CCP

85
Q

anti-TSH receptor is seen in what disease?

A

Graves disease

86
Q

Celiac disease has what antibodies?

A

IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase (TTG)

87
Q

c-ANCA is seen in what disease?

A

Wegner’s: granulomatosis with polyangiitis

88
Q

what is the role of IgE?

A

binds mast cells and basophils, crosslinks when exposed to allergen, mediating a type 1 HS reaction through release of inflam mediators such as histamine.

89
Q

which immunoglobulin has the lowest concentration in serum?

A

IgE

90
Q

what is the role of IgA?

A

prevents attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes. It does NOT fix complement. It is the most produced antibody overall but secreted in tears, saliva, mucous and early breast milk (not serum)

91
Q

what are acute phase reactants?

A

factors whose serum concentration change significantly in response to inflammation; produced by the liver in both acute and chronic inflam states. Induced by IL-6, IL-1, TNF-alpha, and IFN-gamma.

92
Q

role of ferritin as an acute phase reactant?

A

upregulated: bind and sequesters iron to inhibit microbial iron scavenging.

93
Q

role of CRP as an acute phase reactant?

A

upregulated: opsonin; fixes complement and facilitates phagocytosis. measured clinically as an ongoing sign of inflammation.

94
Q

role of albumin as an acute phase reactant?

A

downregulated: reduction conserves amino acids for positive reactants.

95
Q

role of transferrin as an acute phase reactant?

A

down regulated: internalized by macrophages to sequester iron.

96
Q

how many signals are required for T-cell activation, B cell activation, and class switching?

A

two

97
Q

role of IL-1?

A

an endogenous pyrogen: osteoclast activating factor. Causes fever and acute inflammation.

98
Q

role of IL-6?

A

secreted by Th2 cells, causes fever and stimulates the production of acute phase proteins.

99
Q

role of IL-8?

A

major chemotactic factor for neutrophils- signals neutrophils to be recruited to clear infections.

100
Q

role of IL-12?

A

induces differentiation of T- cells into Th1 cells. Activates NK cells. Also secreted by B-cells.

101
Q

TNF-alpha?

A

mediates septic shock. Activates endothelium. causes leukocytes recruitment, vascular leak

NPLEX 1 study questions (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions