microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

how do you identify streptococci

A

chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how do you identify staphlycocci

A

clusters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how do you differentiate between streptococci

A

haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the 3 types of haemolysis

A

alphabetanon-haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does alpha haemolysis show

A

partial haemolysis (appears greensih)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

examples of an alpha haemolysis organism

A

streptococcus pneumoniae| streptococcus viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is significant about strep. pneumoniae

A

most common CAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what does strep. viridans cause

A

endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what does beta haemolysis show

A

complete haemolysis (appears golden)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

examples of b-haemolysis organisms

A

group A step.| group B strep.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what does gamma haemolysis show

A

no haemolysis (appears clear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

example of non-haemolytic organism

A

enterococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does enterococcus cause

A

gut commensal| cause UTI if in urinary tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how do you differentiate staphylcoccus

A

coagulase test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are coagulase+ organisms

A

staph. Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does staph aureus cause

A

soft tissue + skin infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are coagulase- organisms

A

staph. epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what does staph. epidermis cause

A

part of normal skin flora can cause infections from implantation of medical devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is MRSA

A

methicillin-resistant staphlococcus aureusvery antimicrobial resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how do you treat MRSA

A

oral doxycyclin, ciprofloxacin, co-trimoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is C. difficile

A

anaerobic bacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what does c. difficile cause

A

antibiotic associated colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how do you treat c. difficile

A

vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what causes c. difficile

A

when you take antibiotics for 1 week+spreads when surfaces/ objects are contaminated with feces with someone who has C. difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is legionella

A

aerobic bacilli| found in droplets of water which you breathe in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how do you treat legionella

A

levofloxacin, clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what does legionella cause

A

serious type of pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

aerobic bacili| found in soil + ground water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what does pseudomonas aeruginosa cause

A

infections in the blood, lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how do you treat pseudomonas aeruhinosa

A

gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is neisseria gonnorrhoeae

A

aerobic (in air) diplococci| spread via sexual contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how do you treat nersseria gonorrhoeae

A

ceftriaxone + zithromax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is neisseria meningitidis

A

aerobic (in air) diplococcispreads via coughinglives in nose+throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how do you treat neisseria meningitidis

A

penicilin, co-amoxiclav, rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is bordetella pertussis

A

whooping cough| aerobic (in air) small bacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is haemophilus influenzae

A

common cause of pneumonia in COPD patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how do you treat haemophilus influenzae

A

amoxicillinco-amixiclavrifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are gut pathogens

A

salmonellashigellaE. coli O157

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is salmonella

A

rod-shaped bacteria| comes from eating raw/ undercooked meat, poultry, eggs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how do you treat salmonella

A

normally un-treated| fluids if dehydrated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is shigella

A

rod shaped bacteriafound in the feces of comtaminated people, or food/ water/ surafces which is contaminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is E. coli O57

A

bacilli| causes intestinal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

how is E coli. O157 spread

A

raw + undercooked meats| unpasturised milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what are gut commensals

A

microorganisms which live in the digestive tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

examples of gut commensals

A

E. coli| Klebsiella sp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is klebsiella pneumoniae

A

normally lives in intestine but can cause pneumonia if inside lungshospital aqquired pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what are the signs of klebsiella pneumonia

A

red currant jelly sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is campylobacter sp.

A

bacilli caused by raw/ undercooked poultry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what does camplyobacter cause

A

food poising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the the treatment for campylobacter

A

azithromycin therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is h. pylori

A

bacilli| causes peptic ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what kind of necrosis does TB undergo

A

caseating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

how do you identify TB

A

Ziehl-neelsen staining (fast acid bacilli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

how do you treat TB

A

RIPE (for 2 months)RifampicinisoniazidpyrazinamideethambutolRI (for 4 months)Rifampicinisoniazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

side effects of Rifampicin

A

orange tears, sweat, urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

side effects of isoniazid

A

peripheral neuropathy, hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

side effects of pyrazinamide

A

gout, arthralgia (joint stiffness)

58
Q

side effects of ethambutol

A

optic neuritis (colour vision deteriorates)

59
Q

what causes cholera

A

vibrio choleraeunclean water/ poor sanitation

60
Q

symptoms of cholera

A

sudden wattery diarrhoeaabdominal crampsnausea/ vomitting

61
Q

treatment of cholera

A

fluid replacementdoxycycline or co-trimoxazole

62
Q

what is clostridium difficile

A

gram +causes pseudomembranous colitis

63
Q

what causes c. difficile

A

patients who have recently been treated with antibiotics

64
Q

what antibiotics are a risk factor for C. difficile

A

clindamycinciprofloxacincephalosporinspenicillins

65
Q

symptoms of c. difficile

A
watter diarrhoea (can be bloody)prain abdominal crampsnauseadehydrationfever
66
Q

what is 1st line treatment for c. difficile

A

vancomycin

67
Q

2nd line treatmnt of c. difficile

A

fidamomicin

68
Q

what causes gastroenteritis

A

staphlycoccus aureus (found in cooked meat + cream)camplyobactere. coli + e. coli 0157salmonella (uncooked poultry)shigella

69
Q

symptoms of gastroenteritis

A

diarrhoea + vomiting| common stomach bug

70
Q

treatment for gastroenteritis

A

usually managed with fluid replacment if severe then antibiotics

71
Q

what antibiotics are used for salmonella + shigellla

A

ciprofloxacin

72
Q

what antibiotics is campylobacter treated with

A

erythromycin

73
Q

what is giardiasis

A

type of gastroenteritis caused by giardia lambila

74
Q

how is giardiasis spread

A

faecal-oralroute| contaminated water, uncooked fruit/veg, lack of hand hygiene

75
Q

symptoms of giardiasis

A

explosive, watery, non-bloody diarrhoae

76
Q

treatment of giardiasis

A

metronidazole

77
Q

what is h. pylori

A

gram - bacteria most common cause of duodenal ulcers

78
Q

how to test for h. pylori

A

endoscopyrapid urease test on biopsy

79
Q

what do you have to rule of before h. pylori

A

no antibiotics for 4 weeks prior to endoscopyno PPI for 2 weeks prior to endoscopy

80
Q

treatment of h. pylori

A

amoxicillin (metronidazole if penacillin allergic)clarithromycinPPI

81
Q

what is typhoid fever

A

bacterial infection of salmonella typhi

82
Q

how is typhoid spread

A

eating or drinking food/ water contamined wih faeces of infected salmonella typhi

83
Q

sypmtoms of typohid

A

fatigueabdominal painconstipationheadaches

84
Q

treatment of typhoid

A

fluroquinolones

85
Q

what is a gram negative cell wall comprised of

A

2 phospholipids bilayers + a thin layer of peptidoglycan

86
Q

what is a gram + cell wall comprised of

A

thick layer of perptidoglycan + a single phospholipids bilayer

87
Q

what are viruses comprised of

A

contain dna or rnaprotein coatsometimes envoloped

88
Q

what produced exotoxin

A

gram + bacteria

89
Q

what produces endotoxin

A

gram- bacteria

90
Q

what does strep viridans cause

A

endocarditis

91
Q

what is the antibiotic of choice for staph aureus

A

flucoxacillin

92
Q

what does the hypothalomus stimulate the production of

A

prostaglandin E

93
Q

what is the 1st line treatment for anaerobes

A

metronidazole

94
Q

what are anerobic baciilli

A

bacteriodes

95
Q

what is the first line antibiotics for gut pathogens (shigella+salmonella+E coli)

A

gentamicin

96
Q

what is the mode of action of penicillins

A

inhibit the cell wall synthesis –> preventing cross-linking of peptidoglycan subunits bectericidal(beta-lactam antibiotic)

97
Q

what is an example of cephlasporins

A

ceftriaxone

98
Q

what is the mode of action for cephalosporins

A

inhibit cell wall synthesis| bactericidal

99
Q

what is an examples of glycopeptides

A

vancomycin

100
Q

what is the mode of action of glycopeptides

A

cell wall active antibiotics–> bid to the end of the growing chain and prevents cross-linking, weakend bacterial cell wallbactericidal

101
Q

what can glycopeptides only be used on

A

gram + organisms

102
Q

what are examples of macrolides

A

Erythromycin, Clarithromycin, Azithromycin

103
Q

what is the mode of action of macrolides

A

bacteriostatic lipophillic + pass through cell membrane easily –> attach to ribosomes to inhibit protein synthesis

104
Q

what is an examples of a tetracycline

A

doxycycline

105
Q

what is the mode of action of tetracyclines

A

inhibit protein synthesis by attaching to ribosomes

106
Q

what is an examples of aminoglycosides

A

getamicin

107
Q

what is the mode of action of aminoglycosides

A

bactericidalinhibit protein synthesis by attaching to ribosomes

108
Q

what is gentamicin normally used for

A

gram - aerobic organismseg. coliform, pseudomoas aeruginosa

109
Q

what should you treat camplobacter with

A

azirthromycin

110
Q

what is the mode of action of metronidazole

A

inhibits protein synthesis by causing strand breakage of bacterial DNAbactericidaltreat anaerobic infections

111
Q

what are exmaples of fluroquinolones

A

ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin

112
Q

what is the mode of action of fluroquinolones

A

prevent supercoiling of bacterial DNA by inhibitng 2 enzymes involved in DNA synthesisbactericidal

113
Q

what treat typhoid

A

floroquinolones

114
Q

what 4 c’s causes c. diff

A

cephlasporinsclindamycinco-amoxicillinciprofloxacin

115
Q

what is the most common cause in IE

A

staph. aureus

116
Q

what bacteria is the most common cause of sub-acute OE especially in dental work + rheumatic fever

A

streptococci viridans

117
Q

what cause of IE is most common in prosthetic valves

A

staph. epidermis

118
Q

how do you treat staph aureus induced IE

A

IV flocloxacillin

119
Q

how do you treat strep. viridans caused IE

A

benzylpenicillin + gentamicin IV

120
Q

how do you treat staph. epidermis caused IE

A

vancomycim + gentamicin IV, and rifampicin PO on day 3-5

121
Q

what to treat staph. aureus pneumonia

A

flucoxacillin

122
Q

what to treat staph. epidermis pneumonia

A

vancomycin

123
Q

what to treat strep, pyrogenes pneumonia

A

doxycycline

124
Q

what to treat gram- causes of pneumonia (haemophilius influenza)

A

clindamycin

125
Q

what to treat anaerobes pneumonia

A

metronidazole

126
Q

most cmmon cause of pneumonia in COPD patients

A

haempohillus influenza

127
Q

most cmmon cause of pneumonia in CAP

A

strep. pneumonia

128
Q

most cmmon cause of pneumonia in intravenous drug users

A

staph aureus

129
Q

most cmmon cause of pneumonia in farming

A

coxiella burneti

130
Q

most cmmon cause of pneumonia in birds

A

chlamydia psittaci

131
Q

most cmmon cause of pneumonia in aspiration

A

klebsiella

132
Q

most cmmon cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised

A

pneumocytis jiroveci

133
Q

treatment for CAP curb score 0-2

A

amoxicillin (doxycycline is pen allergic)

134
Q

treatment for CAP curb score 3-5

A

co-amixoclav + doxycycline (levofloxacin if Pen allergic)

135
Q

treatment for CAP is in ICU

A

co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin (levofloxacin in pen allergic)

136
Q

treatment for HAP if non-severe

A

po amoxicillin (doxycycline if pen allergic)

137
Q

treatment for HAP if severe

A

iV amoxicillin + gentamicin (doxycycline if pen allergic)

138
Q

treatment for aspiration if non-severe

A

po amoxicillin + metronidazole (doxycycline if pen allergic)

139
Q

treatment for aspiration if severe

A

IV amoxicillin + gentamicin + metronidazole (doxycycline if pen allergic)

140
Q

treatment for legionella pneumonia

A

clarithromycin or levofloxacin