Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

G(+) cocci arranged in clusters
colonies are opaque and smooth
grows well on most media
beta-hemolytic on sheep blood agar (SBA)
catalase (+)
coagulase (+)
(-) ability to metabolize pyrrolidonyl-alpha-naphthylamide (PYR) and ornithine
can tolerate high salt concentration of mannitol salt agar
penicillin-resistance

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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2
Q

G(+) cocci arranged in clusters
colonies appear white to gray on blood agar
nonhemolytic
catalase (+)
coagulase (-)
most common coagulase (-)
novobiocin (S)

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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3
Q

G(+) cocci arranged in clusters
colonies appear white to gray on blood agar
nonhemolytic
catalase (+)
coagulase (-)
novobiocin (R)
significant only in UTIs

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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4
Q

G(+) cocci arranged in clusters
colonies appear white to gray on blood agar
nonhemolytic
catalase (+)
coagulase (-)
PYR (+)
ferments manitol
clumps in plasma
frequent cause of endocarditis

A

Staphylococcus lugdunensis

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5
Q

normal flora of the skin and mucous membranes
GS: arranged in tetrads, larger than Staphylococcus spp
appear yellow and non hemolytic on SBA
acid production from glucose under anaerobic conditions (-)
modified oxidase test (+)
bacitracin (S)

A

Micrococci spp

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6
Q

catalase (-)
G(+) cocci arranged in pairs and chains
alpha or beta hemolytic or non hemolytic on SBA
Lancefield grouping is based on a cell wall antigen

A

Streptococcaceae

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7
Q

Infections spread by respiratory secretions
cause pharyngitis, impetigo, cellulitis, scarlet fever, otitis media, nectrotizing fasciitis
sequelae include rheumatic fever, post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
bacitracin (S)
PYR positive
colonies pinpoint, translucent, beta hemolysis

A

group A stretococcus

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8
Q

pathogenic group A streptococcus

A

S. pyogenes

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9
Q

group A strep virulence factors: inhibits phagocytosis and antibodies formed against this are protective

A

cell wall M protein

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10
Q

group A strep virulence factors: causes rash seen in scarlet fever; acts as superantigens interacting with macrophages and associated with streptococcal toxic shock syndrome (STSS)

A

exotoxin (Spe A, B, C, F)

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11
Q

group A strep virulence factors: dissolves clots

A

streptokinase

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12
Q

group A strep virulence factors: inhibits phagocytosis

A

hyaluronic acid capsule

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13
Q

group A strep virulence factors: lyse erythrocytes, platelets, neutrophils

A

streptolysin O & S

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14
Q

group A strep virulence factors: hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid, an interstitial barrier, facilitating spread of the infection

A

hyaluronidase

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15
Q

isolates typically express Lancefield group C or G antigens
clinical spectrum of disease resembles S. pyogenes and include pharyngitis, skin infections, necrotizing fasciitis, STSS, endocarditis, glumerulonephritis, acute rheumatic fever

A

S. dysagalactiae subspecies equisimilis

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16
Q

normal flora of GI tranct
cause infection in OB/GYN patients
neonates acquire infections during birth, resulting in sepsis and meningitis
can cause endocarditis, pneumonia, pyelonephritis in immunocompromised patients
colonies are medium-sized (>1mm), flat, creamy and show small zones of beta hemolysis
CAMP test (+)
hippurate hydrolysis (+)
PYR (-)
bacitracin (R)

A

group B streptococcus

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17
Q

normal fecal and oral flora
associated with wound infections, UTIs and abdominal abscesses
isolation in blood cultures is an indicator of colon cancer
colonies are gray to white, translucent, round and convex
alpha hemolytic or nonhemolytic, rarely beta
bile esculin (+)
6.5% NaCl (-)
PYR (-)

A

group D non-enterococcus

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18
Q

normal flora of the oral cavity, respiratory tract and GI tract mucosa
major cause of bacterial endocarditis; also causes wound infections and brain abscesses
may enter the blood after dental procedures
alpha hemolytic, some strains non hemolytic
optochin (R)
bile (insoluble)
does not grow on bile-esculin medium

A

viridans streptococci

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19
Q

normal upper respiratory tract flora but can cause lobar pneumonia, otitis media, meningitis
G (+) diplococci that are lancet or bullet-shaped and alpha hemolytic
grows on SBA with 5-10% CO2 at 48h
mucoid strains produce a large polysaccharide capsules
umbilicated, depressed centers caused by autolytic enzymes

A

s. pneumoniae

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20
Q

rust-colored sputum and lobar pneumonia is often associated with ____

A

s. pneumoniae

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21
Q

most common encountered sp of enterococcus

A

e. faecalis
e. faecium

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22
Q

bile esculin (+)
6.5% NaCl (+)
PYR (+)
lancefield group D antigen
alpha-, beta-, non-hemolytic

A

enterococcus

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23
Q

associated with a number of infections including endocarditis, meningitis, lung abscesses and osteomyelitis
PYR (+)
leucine aminopeptidase (+)
bile esculin (-)

A

gemella

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24
Q

have been linked osteomyelitis, ventriculitis, postsurgical endophthalmitis, and bacteremia in neonates
vancomycin (R)
PYR (-)
LAP (-)
catalase (-)

A

leuconostoc

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25
Q

require vitamin B6 for growth
normal flora of the oral cavity and have associated with endocarditis, ophthalmic infections, infections of the CNS

A

abiotropha
granulicatella

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26
Q

causes spontaneous abortion and meningitis in animals
found in environment, normal flora of the vagina and intestines in human
grows on most media
colonies are white and small with a narrow zone of beta hemolysis
closely resemble group B strep on SBA
umbrella motility in semi-solid media and end-over-end tumbling in a wet mount
hippurate hydrolysis (+)
CAMP (+)
esculin (+)
catalase

A

listeria monocytogenes

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27
Q

pseudomembrane formed by dead cells and exudates at the back of the throat
found only in humans
gram stain: picket fence or chinese letters
methylene blue: metachromatic granules
urease (-)
pyrazidamidase (-)
nitrate (+)
catalse (+)
non-motile

A

corynebacterium diphtheria

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28
Q

what test uses antitoxin to detect toxin production of the C. diphtheria

A

elek test

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29
Q

appearance of corynebacterium spp: cystine-tellurite

A

black colonies

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30
Q

appearance of corynebacterium spp: tinsdale’s agar

A

brown to black colonies with halos

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31
Q

appearance of corynebacterium spp: loeffler agar

A

small white to gray colonies

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32
Q

appearance of corynebacterium spp: SBA

A

small, white, dry colonies
non hemolytic

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33
Q

important cause of nosocomial infections and produces infections after prosthetic implants and infections in immunocompromised patients
pyrazidamidase (+)
antimicrobial agents (R)

A

corynebacterium jeikeium

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34
Q

cause UTIs
rapid urease (+)
grows very slowly

A

corynebacterium urealyticum

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35
Q

6 species but 3 clinically significant
natural habitat have not been confirmed
small beta hemolytic colonies on SBA
catalase (-)
non motile

A

arcanobacterium

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36
Q

associated with pharyngitis and wound and tissue infections
small beta hemolytic colonies on SBA
catalase (-)
non motile
can be identified with CAMP inhibition test

A

arcanobacterium haemolyticum

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37
Q

found on mucous membranes of cattle, sheep, and swine
linked to abscess formation, wound and soft tissue infections in cattle and humans
small beta hemolytic colonies on SBA
catalase (-)
non motile

A

arcanobacterium pyogenes

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38
Q

produced by a. haemolytitcum
inhibits the activity of staphylococcus aureus beta-lysin
this phenomenon is also exhibited by ___

A

phospholipase D
c. pseudotuberculosis

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39
Q

primarily infects animals
human generally become infected through contact with infected animals or by consuming infected meat
causes cellulitis, bacteremia or endocarditis
non motile
pleomorphic G(+) bacilli
catalase (-)
H2S (+)

A

erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

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40
Q

erysipeloid lesions that resembles erysipelas caused Streptococcus pyogenes

A

cellulitis

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41
Q

generally found in immunocompromised patients with chronic pulmonary disorders
most clinically relevant species
pleomorphic, branching G (+) bacilli in chains that produce a beading arrangement, appear fungal-like
partially acid fast
catalase (+)
non motile
requires up to 6w for growth
exudates contain masses of filamentous organism with pus that resemble sulfur granules

A

nocardia asteroides

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42
Q

bacterial spores contain ____ which makes them resistant to adverse environment

A

calcium dipicolinate

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43
Q

can survive adverse conditions for prolonged periods of time and are frequent contaminants of laboratory cultures
can be centrally or terminally located

A

bacterial spores

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44
Q

form straight bacilli with square ends (box-car morphology) appearing in chains and singly
SBA (+)
phenylethyl alcohol (PEA) agar (+)
catalase (+)
large, flat colonies

A

bacillus spp

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45
Q

causes anthrax
potential bioterrorism agent
large non hemolytic agent with filamentous projections (Medusa head) colonies
PEA (-) at 24 hr
preliminary testing by sentinel lab: typical colony morphology, G(+) bacilli with spores, catalase (+) non motile

A

bacillus anthracis

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46
Q

3 clinical forms of anthrax

A

cutaneous anthrax
pulmonary anthrax
gastrointestinal anthrax

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47
Q

most common form of anthrax

A

cutaneous anthrax

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48
Q

skin lesions of cutaneous anthrax

A

black eschar

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49
Q

pulmonary anthrax
spread by inhalation of spores from sheep’s wool

A

wool-sorter’s disease

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50
Q

important cause of food poisoning and occasionally wounds, may also cause opportunistic eye, bone and brain infections
large, flat, beta hemolytic colonies with irregular edges
motile
penicillin (R)

A

bacillus cereus

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51
Q

oxidase (+)
fastidious and grow best in 5-10% CO2 at 37degC
cannot tolerate cold

A

neisseriaceae

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52
Q

neisseriaceae includes these genera

A

neisseria
eikenella
kingella
simmonsiella

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53
Q

not a normal flora
humans are their only host
fastidious
doses not survive long outside the host
be isolated from the urethra, cervix, anal canal, oropharynx, skin lesions, joins and blood

A

neisseria gonorrhoeae

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54
Q

gonorrhea in males
characterized by pus-containing urethral discharge and dysuria

A

acute urethritis

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55
Q

gonorrhea in females

A

UTI
cervicitis (cervical discharge, fever, acute pain, dysuria)
pelvic inflammatory disease
gonococcal arthritis
salphingitis
endometritis
peritonitis

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56
Q

to prevent newborn conjunctivitis, this is being administered to all infants at birth

A

erythromycin

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57
Q

Gram stain: appears intracellular to neutrophils
fastidious, requiring enriched media such as chocolate agar plate, Thayer Martin, Martin-Lewis, New York city and GC Lec Agars
SBA (-)
require increased CO2 with humidified atmosphere
autolysis, cannot be incubated for prolonged times
flat, smooth and glistening gray or tan colonies
superoxol (+)
catalase (+)
oxidase (+)
glucose (+)
maltose (-)
lactose (-)
sucrose (-)
DNAse (-)
nitrate (-)
beta lactamase (+) most

A

neisseria gonorrhoeae

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58
Q

spread by respiratory droplets and may be normal flora of the nasopharynx
causes meningococcal meningitis, meningococcemia, leading to DIC and waterhouse-friderichsen syndrome
csf, sputum, blood and nasopharyngeal swabs
falt, smooth and gray-white colonies on chocolate agar
SBA with increased CO2: bluish-gray colonies
catalase (+)
oxidase (+)
glucose (+)
maltose (+)
DNAse (-)
nitrate (-)

A

neisseria meningitidis

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59
Q

colonizes the throat of children
predilection for infections of the bones and joints in children
generally limited to those who are immunocompromised
isolated from joints and bones in blood culture media
SBA (+)
chocolate agar (+)
Thayer Martin agar (+)
MCA (-)

A

kingella kingae

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60
Q

habit unknown
most associated with endocarditis
SBA (+)
chocolate agar (+)
Thayer Martin agar (+)
MCA (-)
can reduce nitrates

A

kingella dentrificans

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61
Q

resembles neisseria
NF of the upper respiratory tract
causes otitis media, sinusitis, respiratory tract infections
grow on most nutrient agars
catalase (+)
oxidase (+)
DNAse (+)
nitrate (+)
butyrase esterase (+)
assacharolytic
carbohydrate test (-)

A

moraxella catarrhalis

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62
Q

most medically important family of G (-) bacili
normal flora of the GI tract
major cause of nosocomial infections
UTI, gastroenteritis, septicemia, food poisoning, wound infections, peritonitis, pneumonia, meningitis
facultative anaerobes
glucose (+)
nitrate (+)
catalase (+)
oxidase (-)

A

enterobacteriaceae

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63
Q

enterobacteriaceae inhibit four serological characteristics

A

O, K, H, Vi Ag

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64
Q

somatic Ag
cell wall antigen
heat stable

A

O Ag

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65
Q

envelope Ag
capsular Ag
heat labile

A

K Ag

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66
Q

flagellar Ag
heat labile

A

H Ag

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67
Q

capsular antigen of salmonella typhi
heath labile

A

Vi Ag

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68
Q

all enterobacteriaceae are oxidase negative except

A

plesiomonas

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69
Q

MAC agar:
lactose (+) ______
lactose (-) ______

A

pink-red
colorless

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70
Q

eosin-methylene blue (EMB) agar:
lactose (+) ______
lactose (-) ______

A

dark center
colorless

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71
Q

hektoen enteric (HE) agar:
lactose/sucrose (+) ______
salmonella ______
shigella ______

A

yellow/orange colonies
green with black centers
clear colonies

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72
Q

salmonella-shigella (SS) agar
lactose/sucrose (+) ______
salmonella ______
shigella ______

A

red colonies
colorless with black centers
colorless

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73
Q

bismuth sulfite agar
lactose/sucrose (+) ______
salmonella ______
shigella ______

A

yellow/orange colonies
black colonies
black colonies

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74
Q

brilliant green agar:
proteus and salmonella _____
shigella _____
lactose (+) ____

A

red/pink colonies
will not grow
will not grow

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75
Q

selenite broth:
salmonella _____
gram (+) and coliform (NF of GI) _____

A

enhanced
inhibited

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76
Q

normal GI flora
very common clinical isolate
causes UTI, appendicitis, peritonitis, gall bladder infections, endocarditis, meningitis, gastroenteritis, food poisoning
triple sugar iron (TSI): A/A, H2S (-)
MAC: pink-red colonies
SBA: shiny, opaque, off-white, 2-4 mm beta hemolytic
EMB: green metallic sheen colonies with dark centers
indole methyl red (IMB) (+)
motility (+)
o-nitrophenyl-beta-D-galactopyranoside (ONPG) (+)
voges-proskauer (VP) (-)
citrate (-)
urease (-)

A

escherichia coli

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77
Q

causes hemorrhagic colitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome leading to kidney failure in young children
eating undercooked hamburger, contaminated food eg apple cider, basil, sprouts
sorbitol-MAC agar (+)

A

EHEC

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78
Q

principal virulence factor of EHEC

A

shiga toxin (Stx) 1 and 2

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79
Q

produces severe epidemic diarrhea, mainly from drinking contaminated water

A

ETEC (enterotoxigenic)

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80
Q

causes bloody diarrhea by invading intestinal epithelium

A

EIEC (enteroinvasive)

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81
Q

causes watery diarrhea

A

EPEC (enteropathogenic)

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82
Q

highly pathogenic (less than 50 bacteria can cause disease)
direct fecal contamination from infected humans
TSI: K/A
H2S (-)
VP (-)
motility (-)
urease (-)
citrate (-)
lactose (-)
MR (+)

A

shigella

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83
Q

produces an enterotoxin, which affects the large intestines, and a neurotoxin that may result in paralysis
mannitol (-)
ONPG (-)
TSI: K/A
H2S (-)
VP (-)
motility (-)
urease (-)
citrate (-)
lactose (-)
MR (+)

A

S. dysenteriae
(serogroup A)

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84
Q

produces a mild diarrhea
mannitol (+)
ONPG (-)
TSI: K/A
H2S (-)
VP (-)
motility (-)
urease (-)
citrate (-)
lactose (-)
MR (+)

A

S. flexneri (serogroup B)
S. boydii (serogroup C)

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85
Q

produces a mild diarrhea
mannitol (+)
ONPG (+)
TSI: K/A
H2S (-)
VP (-)
motility (-)
urease (-)
citrate (-)
lactose (-)
MR (+)

A

S. sonnei (serogroup D)

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86
Q

cause UTIs and pneumonia
nosocomial, diabetics and alcoholics are prone to infections
TSI: A/A with gas
MCA: pink colonies are very mucoid
H2S (-)
MR (-)
nonmotile
indole (-)
VP (+)
citrate (+)
lactose (+)

A

klebsiella

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87
Q

most common isolated species of klebsiella

A

K. pneumoniae

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88
Q

causative agent of granuloma inguinale
does not Gram stain or grow on laboratory media
Wright’s or Giemsa stained
Donovan bodies may be seen

A

K. (Calymmatobacterium) granulomatis

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89
Q

intracellular pleomorphic bipolar staining cells

A

Donovan bodies

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90
Q

includes 12 species, found in soil, water, and dairy products
linked to respiratory tract infections and wounds, and isolated from blood
H2S (-)
MR (-)
indole (-)
VP (+)
citrate (+)

A

enterobacter

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91
Q

most common species of enterobacter
H2S (-)
MR (-)
indole (-)
VP (+)
citrate (+)
lactose (+)
arginine (+)
lysine (-)

A

E. cloacae

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92
Q

second most common species of enterobacter
H2S (-)
MR (-)
indole (-)
VP (+)
citrate (+)
lactose (+)
arginine (-)
lysine (+)

A

E. aerogenes

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93
Q

H2S (-)
MR (-)
indole (-)
VP (+)
citrate (+)
lactose (+)
produces a yellow pigment

A

E. sakazakii

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94
Q

H2S (-)
MR (-)
indole (-)
VP (+)
citrate (+)
lactose (-)

A

E. taylorae

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95
Q

causes opportunistic infection in patients undergoing chemotherapy and immunosuppressed patients
DNAse (+)
gelatinase (+)
lipase (+)
VP (+)
citrate (+)
ONPG (+)
lactose (delayed)

A

serratia

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96
Q

most common clinical isolate
DNAse (+)
gelatinase (+)
lipase (+)
VP (+)
citrate (+)
ONPG (+)
lactose (delayed)

A

S. marcescens

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97
Q

cause moderate to severe gastroenteritis
has many animal reservoirs
transmitted through contaminated water and undercooked foods especially chicken characterized by a septicemia followed by a GI tract infection
lactose (-)
H2S (+)
citrate (+)
indole (-)
urease (-)
colonies on HE agar are green with black centers

A

salmonella

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98
Q

majority of human causes of salmonellosis are due to serotypes belonging to this species

A

S. enterica (S. typhi)

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99
Q

H2S (+)
urease (+)
tryptophan deaminase (TDA) (+)
phenylalanine deaminase (+)
ONPG (-)
lactose (-)
indole (-)

A

Proteus mirabilis

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100
Q

H2S (+)
urease (+)
tryptophan deaminase (TDA) (+)
phenylalanine deaminase (+)
ONPG (-)
lactose (-)
indole (+)

A

P. vulgaris

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101
Q

phenylalanine deaminase positive

A

proteus
providencia
morganella

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102
Q

selective and differential medium for isolation of Y. enterocolitica, colonies of which will ferment mannitol and absorb the dye neutral red, producing a clear colonies with a pink center

A

cetsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin medium

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103
Q

endemic to the southwestern US
small animals (e.g. rodents) are natural reservoirs, and the bacteria are transmitted by fleas
potential bioterrorism agent
nonmotile
pinpoint colonies on SBA after 24h incubation
G (-) bacilli
oxidase (-)
urease (-)
catalase (+)

A

Yersinia pestis

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104
Q

causes enterocolitis in humans
acquired by drinking contaminated water or by eating contaminated meat
ONPG (+)
delayed lactose fermenter
sucrose (+)
colorless on MAC at 18 hours but A/A on TSI
non motile at 37 deg C but motile at 25deg C

A

Y. enterocolitica

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105
Q

rare cause of lymphadenitis in children
non motile at 37 deg C but motile at 25deg C

A

Y. pseudotuberculosis

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106
Q

resembles salmonella
H2S (+)
ONPG (-)
indole (+)
citrate (-)

A

Edwardsiella

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107
Q

most common isolate of Edwardsiella

A

E. tarda

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108
Q

most common species isolated of Citrobacter
resembles E. coli on MCA but can be differentiated because of being H2S (+)
indole (-)

A

C. freundii

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109
Q

indole (+)
VP (-)
citrate (-)
PDA (+)
TDA (+)

A

Morganella morganii

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110
Q

PDA (+)
TDA (+)
indole (+)
citrate (+)
VP (-)
most common isolate of Providencia

A

P. rettgeri

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111
Q

HACEK
fastidious (require complex nutrients for growth)
important causes of endocarditis

A

Haemophilus
Actinobacillus
Cardiobacterium hominis
Eikenella
Kingella

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112
Q

pleomorphic gram (-) coccobacilli ranging from very small to filamentous
growth requirements include X and V factor
do not grow on SBA but will grow on horse or rabbit blood agar, which contains no NADase
chocolate agar is routinely used for cultures
grows at 35-37 deg C with 5-10% CO2 and is susceptible to drying and temperature changes
colony morphology: smooth, round, flat, opaque and tan on chocolate agar
non motile
catalase (+)
oxidase (+)

A

haemophilus

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113
Q

X factor
released from hemoglobin

A

hemin

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114
Q

V factor
heat-labile compound

A

NAD

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115
Q

haemophilus spp can grow around colonies of S. aureus growing on an SBA plat since the colonies of the latter release NAD, forming a tiny clear pinpoint colonies

A

satellitism

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116
Q

x factor (+)
v factor (+)
hemolysis on horse blood agar (-)
ALA (-)

A

H. influenzae
H. aegyptius

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117
Q

x factor (+)
v factor (-)
hemolysis on horse blood agar (-)
ALA (-)

A

H. ducreyi

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118
Q

x factor (-)
v factor (-)
hemolysis on horse blood agar (-)
ALA (+)

A

H. aprophilus

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119
Q

x factor (+)
v factor (+)
hemolysis on horse blood agar (+)
ALA (-)

A

H. haemolyticus

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120
Q

x factor (-)
v factor (+)
hemolysis on horse blood agar (-)
ALA (+)

A

H. parainfluenzae
H. paraprophilus

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121
Q

has 6 capsular serotypes and 8 biotypes I-VII
should be tested for beta lactamase
can be isolated from a variety of specimens including blood, sputum, CSF, eye swabs
specific detection of Hib capsular antigen by latex agglutination

A

H. influenzae

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122
Q

major cause of meningitis in children
vaccine had greatly reduced childhood meningitis and other invasive disease caused by this serotype

A

H. influenzae type b

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123
Q

causes pink eye, a very contagious conjunctivitis
similar to H. influenzae except sucrose (+)

A

H. aegyptius

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124
Q

causes conjunctivitis followed by an invasive disease known as Brazilian purpuric fever
resembles H. influenzae biotype III in that it is indole (-), urease (+), and ornithine decarboxylase (-)

A

H. influenzae biogroup aegyptius

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125
Q

causes genital ulcers
produces chancroids and buboes (swollen lymph nodes)
chocolate agar with vancomycin is used to inhibit normal flora and contaminants

A

H. ducreyi

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126
Q

found in the water, soil, food, plants and a few are normal flora of humans
approximately 20% of all gram (-) bacilli isolates
most are obligate anaerobes
do not form spores and do not metabolize carbohydrates under anaerobic conditions
most are oxidase (+)
TSI: K/K
grow on SBA but varied growth in MCA

A

Non fermentative Gram (-) bacilli (NFB)

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127
Q

most important NFB
common clinical isolate that can infect humans, animals, plants and fish
causes eye (lens wearer) and ear infections (swimmer’s ear, external otitis)
lower respiratory tract infection in patients with cystic fibrosis
important pathogen in immunocompromised individuals

A

P. aeruginosa

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128
Q

only organism in the pseudomonas family that is capable of producing the pigment pyocyanin
only ones capable of growing both at 35 and 42 deg C

A

P. aeruginosa

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129
Q

oxidase (+)
motile
lactose (-)
large irregular colonies with grape-like odor and metallic sheen on SBA
beta hemolytic colonies with a feathery edge on SBA
mucoid colonies when isolated from patients with CF
very resistant to antimicrobial agents

A

P. aeruginosa

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130
Q

this test determines if glucose is broken down oxidatively or fermentatively
two tubes are used: one is overlayed with mineral oil to produce anaerobic conditions
the other tube contains no mineral oil (aerobic)
oxidative bacteria produce acid (yellow color) ie the open tube; whereas the closed tube is green

A

oxidative-fermentative glucose test

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131
Q

acquired as transient flora from hospitals
causes pneumonia, UTIs, wound infections
oxidase (-)
the only non fermentative, gram (-) bacillus that is oxidative (-)
maltose (+)
one of two clinically encountered NFB that is lysine decarboxylase (+)
resistant to most antimicrobials

A

stenotrophomonas maltophilia

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132
Q

causes nosocomial infections
important respiratory tract pathogen in patients with CF (second to P. aeruginosa)
enhanced growth on P. cepacia (PC) agar that inhibits P. aeruginosa
colony morphology: colorless or yellow on nutrient agar
oxidase (+)
lactose (+)
lysine decarboxylase (+)

A

burkholderia cepacia

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133
Q

causes glanders
grows on MCA
oxidative (variable)
non motile
reduces nitrate to nitrite without gas
glucose (+)

A

burkholderia mallei

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134
Q

highly contagious disease of livestock, particularly among horses, mules and donkey
can be transmitted to human by animal contact

A

glanders

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135
Q

disease of humans and animals endemic to SEA and northern Australia
has a wide range of signs and symptoms
can be mistaken for other diseases, such as tuberculosis or more common forms of pneumonia.

A

melioidosis

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136
Q

causes melioidosis
found in soil and infections are acquired through the skin or by inhalation
grows on MCA
oxidase (+)
motile
reduces nitrate to nitrite with gas
oxidizes several sugars including glucose and lactose

A

burkholderia pseudomallei

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137
Q

obligate aerobic coccobacillus found as normal flora of the GI and respiratory tracts
important cause of nosocomial infections and UTIs isolates tend to be multidrug resistant
grow on most media and may resemble enterics on MCA and EMB agars
produce acid from glucose but others don’t
non motile
oxidase (-)
nitrate (-)
catalase (+)

A

acinetobacter

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138
Q

causes tularemia
potential agent of bioterrorism
carried by wild animals, including deer, rabbits, beavers and squirrels
intracellular bacteria that resist phagocytosis
causes skin ulcers at the site of inoculation and can cause of infections of the lymph nodes, eyes, lungs and GI system
biosafety level 3 is required when handling the organism or suspect specimens
faintly straining coccobacilli
medium of choice: glucose-cyseine blood agar
color morphology: small and grayish
agglutination and direct fluorescent antibody test are used to confirm the identification

A

francisella tularensis

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139
Q

also known as undulant fever
symptoms may show up anytime from a few days to a few months after you’ve been infected, which include fever, chills, loss of appetite, sweats, weakness, fatigue, joint, muscle and back pain, headache
humans acquire the infection by drinking contaminated milk or from slaughter house
incubation period is 1-3 weeks

A

brucellosis

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140
Q

causes brucellosis
normal GI flora of animals
facultative intracellular parasite
biosafety level 3 organism
isolated from blood and bone marrow
fastidious organism that will grow on special media like Thayer Martin agars and require 10% CO2 in humidified air and 3-4 weeks for growth
strict aerobe
oxidase (+)
catalase (+)

A

brucella

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141
Q

4 species of brucella that infect humans

A

B. melitensis
B. abortus
B. suis
B. canis

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142
Q

inhabits the mucous membranes of the respiratory tract of humans
grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato infusion) and Regan-Lowe agars (charcoal-horse-blood agar) with cephalexin
colonies are small and smooth, appear like mercury droplets and are beta hemolytic
gram (slow minute), poorly stained coccobacilli, single or in pairs
causes pertussis
urease (-)
does not grow on MCA

A

bordetella pertussis

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143
Q

other species of bordetella
causes mild respiratory infections in humans
grows on MCA
urease (+)

A

B. parapertussis

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144
Q

other species of bordetella
causes kennel cough in dogs and is an infrequent cause of respiratory infections in humans
grows on MCA
urease (+)

A

B. bronchiseptica

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145
Q

found mostly as oral flora of animals
infections are caused by animal bites, which can result in cellulitis
grows well on SBA and chocolate agar but will grow on MCA
produce colonies that show star-like centers
most are catalase (+)
glucose (+)

A

actinobacillus spp.

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146
Q

associated with endocarditis, gum disease

A

A. actinomyecetemcomitans

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147
Q

normal respiratory/GI flora of animals
causes cellulitis but can progress into osteomyelitis, meningitis, joint infections and pneumonia
grows well on non selective agars but no MAC
oxidase (+)
catalase (+)
indole (+)
nitrate (+)
non motile, pleomorphic, G (-) coccobacilli that may show bipolar staining
penicillin (S)

A

pasteurella

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148
Q

normal flora of the mouth and upper respiratory tract
causes abscesses of oral cavity and human bite wound infectious
approximately 50% of the strains corrode or pit the agar surface
produces bleach-like odor

A

eikenella corrodens

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149
Q
A
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150
Q

what does eikenella corrodens require for growth

A

hemin (factor X)

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150
Q

first discovered in 1976 as the cause of pneumonia in people attending an American Legion Convention in Philadelphia
aquatic organisms that may be found in various water systems, including humidifiers, whirlpools and air conditioning chillers
resistant to commonly used concentrations of chlorine

A

legionella

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151
Q

primary pneumonia
severe form of legionellosis

A

Legionnaires disease

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152
Q

mild form of Legionellosis
characterized by flu-like symptoms

A

Pontiac fever

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153
Q

most common laboratory assay used for the diagnosis of legionellosis

A

urine antigen test

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153
Q

gram stain: thin, poorly staining G(-) bacilli; better use 0.1% basic fuchsin as the counter stain instead of safranin
require L-csyteine for growth
grow on BCYE aga but not on SBA
asaccharolytic, most biochemical tests are negative
autofluoresce when exposed to UV light

A

legionella

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154
Q

found in water and soil
produces a purple or violet pigment on nutrient agar
causes wound infections acquired from contaminated soil or water

A

chromobacterium

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155
Q

very small Gram variable coccobacilli
considered normal vaginal flora
associated with bacterial vaginosis, UTIs, PID and postpartum sepsis and may infect the newborn
catalase (-)

A

gardnerella vaginalis

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156
Q

presence of clue cells, epithelial cells with numerous bacteria attached

A

bacterial vaginosis

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157
Q

scoring system used to diagnose BV
cultures alone are too sensitive but 50-60% of women who do not meet the criteria for BV are positive for G. vaginalis

A

Amsel and Nugent

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158
Q

oxidase (-)
G (-), curved bacilli

A

bartonella

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159
Q

agent of trench fever
also causes growth of neoplastic blood vessels in various parts of the body (bacillary angiomatosis) and other infections such as endocarditis

A

bartonella quintana

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160
Q

causes cat-scratch disease and also bacillary peliosis hepatitis and bacillary angiomatosis

A

bartonella henselae

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161
Q

found as normal flora in humans in the upper respiratory tract and possibly the GI and genital tract
mainly associated with endocarditis
gram stain: short chains or rosettes of irregularly staining bacilli with bulbous ends
requires CO2 for initial isolation and can be recovered on SBA although growth is enhanced in media containing yeast extract
oxidase (+)
catalase (-)
indole (+, weakly)

A

cardiobacterium hominis

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162
Q

found as normal oral flora in rats and other rodents
best isolated from blood, synovial fluid and abscess material
non motile
facultative
G (-) pleomorphic bacillus
grows on media enriched with SBA (15% is optimal) incubated in a CO2 incubator

A

streptobacillus moniliformis

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163
Q
A
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164
Q

infections following animal bites carrying S. moniliformis

A

rat-bite fever

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165
Q

ingestion of contaminated food or water with S. moniliformis results in ___

A

haverhill fever

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166
Q

genus contains about 12 species that are inhabitants of marine water
halophilic except for two species

A

Vibrio

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167
Q

selective and differential (based on sucrose fermentation) medium that supports the growth of most species and is particularly useful for isolating V. cholerae and V. parahaemolyticus

A

thiosulfate citrate bile salt sucrose agar (TCBS)

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168
Q

characterized by severe watery diarrhea with flecks of mucus sometimes referred to as “rice-water stool”

A

cholera

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169
Q

causes a cholera
acquired by ingestion of undercooked seafood or contaminated drinking water
has enterotoxin that alters ion transport of intestinal mucosa, resulting in massive release of water
sucrose (+) and will produce yellow colonies on TCBS agar

A

vibrio cholerae O1

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170
Q

3 serotypes of of V. cholerae O1

A

Inaba
Ogawa
Hikojima

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171
Q

2 biotypes of V. cholerae O1

A

classical
El Tor

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172
Q

important virulence mechanisms of V. cholerae

A

choleragen
motility
pili
mucinase

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172
Q

causes mild to moderate cholera like diarrhea disease
acquired by eating raw shellfish
important cause of food poisoning in Asia, particularly in Japan and Taiwan
sucrose (-)

A

V. parahaemolyticus

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173
Q

highly virulent, causing septicemia after ingestion of undercooked seafood, notably raw oysters
causes rapidly progressive wound infection after exposure to marine water

A

V. vulnificus

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174
Q

very common in marine environment
suspected causes of otitis media and wound infections

A

V. alginolyticus

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175
Q

found in fresh and salt water
infects humans and fish
causes cellulitis and diarrhea
generally cause a self-limiting infection not usually requiring treatment; however, wound infections may require antimicrobial therapy

A

aeromonas

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176
Q

beta-hemolytic
oxidase (+)
citrate (+)
indole (+)
VP (+)
ONPG (+)

A

A. hydrophila

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177
Q

acquired by eating undercooked seafood
primarily associated with a self-limiting gastroenteritis
oxidase (+)

A

plesiomonas shigelloides

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178
Q

major cause of food poisoning causing gastroenteritis, diarrhea and septic arthritis
acquired by eating undercooked contaminated poultry or other meat products
curved bacilli that may appear S-shaped or spiral on Gram stain
microaerophilic
do not oxidize or ferment carbohydrates and most human isolates are catalase (+) and oxidase (+)
wet mount: darting motility

A

campylobacter

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179
Q

causes peptic and and duodenal ulcers and has been linked to stomach cancer
microorganisms can be isolated from gastric biopsy on SBA, Brucella, and Skirrow’s incubated microaerophilically
fecal antigen detection, urea breath test and demonstration of urease activity in stomach biopsy material

A

helicobacter pylori

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180
Q

slender, non motile, non-spore forming, obligate aeorobes
resist gram staining because of lipids in their cell wall that prevent penetration of crystal violet and safranin
acid fast bacilli (AFB)

A

mycobacteria

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181
Q

primary stain in the acid fast stain

A

carbolfuchsin

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182
Q

Ziehl Neelsen stain requires ___ during the staining step whereas the Kinyoun’s stain does not

A

heating

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183
Q

used in decontamination of sputum samples

A

2% NaOH with N-acetyl-L-cysteine (NALC)

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184
Q
A
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185
Q

mucolytic agent that liquefies mucus in respiratory specimens, releasing mycobacteria

A

NALC

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186
Q

increases the pH to a level that is antibacterial

A

NaOH

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187
Q

solid media for growing mycobacteria: contains egg components for growth and malachite green to inhibit the growth of normal flora

A

lowenstein-jensen

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188
Q

solid media for growing mycobacteria: made selective by the addition of penicillin and nalidixic acid, and supplemented with RNA

A

lowenstein-jensen gruft

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189
Q

solid media for growing mycobacteria: agar based and contains 2% glycerol to support the growth of mycobacterium avium complex

A

middlebrook medium

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190
Q

often used to maintain stock cultures and prepare isolates for biochemical tests

A

middlebrook 7H9 broth

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191
Q

made by Becton Dickinson
contains modified 7H( broth
large amount of oxygen in the broth quenches the fluorescence of a fluorochrome

A

mycobacterium growth index tube (MGIT)

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192
Q

contains a radioactively labeled substrate that can be metabolized by mycobacteria
growth of mycobacteria releases radioactive CO2 that is detected by the instrument

A

BACTEC 460TB

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193
Q

except for members of the M. tuberculosis complex, the mycobacteria are placed into these groupings according to their growth rate and photoreactivity
but due

A

runyon group

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194
Q

runyon group 1

A

slow growers and photochromogen

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195
Q

runyon group 2

A

slow growers and scotochromogen

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196
Q

runyon group 3

A

slow growers and non chromogen

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197
Q
A
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198
Q

runyon group 4

A

rapidly growing mycobacteria

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198
Q

produce yellow to orange pigment only when exposed to light

A

photochromogen

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199
Q

produce yellow to orange pigment in the light and in the dark

A

scotochromogen

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200
Q

do not produce pigment

A

non chromogen

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201
Q

biochemical test for identification of mycobacteria: a suspension of a mycobacterium spp is heated at 68 deg C for 20 minutes then a 1:1 mixture of 30% hydrogen peroxide and 10% Tween 80 is added. after 5 minutes, the suspension is observed for bubbles
M. tuberculosis complex are negative

A

heat-sensitive catalase

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202
Q

biochemical test for identification of mycobacteria: a 1ml aliquot of a mixture of hydrogen peroxide and Tween 80 is added to a 2-week-old culture deep of mycobacteria and after 5 minutes, the height of the column of bubbles is measured
M. tuberculosis complex produces columns of bubbles <45mm

A

semiquantitative catalase

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203
Q

biochemical test for identification of mycobacteria: NaNO3 is added to a heavy suspension of mycobacteria, which is then incubated for 2 hours at 35degC and then this is added
___ color is positive reaction

A

nitrate
pink

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204
Q

M. tuberculosis is one of the few species positive for the accumulation of ____

A

niacin

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205
Q

because of their slowly growing nature, these are becoming more common in clinical laboratories for the identification for the mycobacteria

A

nucleic acid assays

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206
Q

causes tuberculosis, chronic primarily lower respiratory tract disease
spread by person-to-person contact via infected droplets, dust
only a few bacteria are necessary to cause disease

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

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207
Q

infection begins in the middle or lower areas of the lungs
bacteria can spread in the lymphatic system, CNS and heart
macrophages phagocytize the bacteria and form multinucleated cells, which are eventually surrounded by fibroid cells and later on can calcify

A

primary tuberculosis

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208
Q

granulomatous lesions in primary tuberculosis which can be seen on CXR

A

tubercles

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209
Q

calcified granulomatous lesions

A

ghon-complexes

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210
Q

bacteria are contained within the granulomas and the patient is typically asymptomatic

A

latent infection

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211
Q

occurs in people with who have had latent TB
alteration in the cell-mediated immune response triggered by poor nutrition, alcoholism or hormonal factors associated with pregnancy and diabetes

A

reactivation or secondary TB

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212
Q

first line drugs for treating secondary TB

A

isoniazid
rifampin
ethambutal
pyrazinamide

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213
Q

resistance to any fluoroquinolone, and at least one of three injectable second-line drugs in addition to isoniazid and rifampicin

A

extremely-drug-resistant M. tuberculosis

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214
Q

skin test that determines exposure to M. tuberculosis
Ag is composed of heat-killed, filtered, ammonium sulfate precipitated protein
injected intradermally and is examined at 48 hours for swelling
positive test indicates previous exposure

A

purified protein derivative (PPD)

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215
Q

agent of Hansen disease
cannot be grown on artificial media
diagnosis is based on characteristic skin lesions and visualizing AFB in lesion

A

mycobacterium leprae

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216
Q

may cause disseminated disease in immunosuppressed patients such as patients with human immunodeficiency virus infection, producing lung infection, lymphadenitis and intestinal infection
slowly growing non chromogen

A

mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)

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217
Q

causes pulmonary infection and is the most commonly isolated photochromogen in US
causes a lung disease that resembles classic TB and rarely disseminates, except in patients with severe immunosuppression
slow grower
nitrate (+)
catalase (+)

A

mycobacterium kansasii

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218
Q

causes cervical lymphadenitis and other types of infectious predominantly in children
slowing growing scotochromogen

A

mycobacterium scrofulaceum

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219
Q

implicated in skin infections
predilection for surface areas and extremities of the body is related to their optimal growth temperature range of 30-32 deg celsius

A

M. ulcerancs
M. marinum
M. haemophilum

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220
Q

responsible for a zoonosis, producing pulmonary infections primarily in cattle and occasionally in humans
non chromogen like M. tuberculosis
nitrate (-)
niacin (-)
T2H (S)

A

M. bovis

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221
Q

may cause abscesses, osteomyelitis, wound and lung infection
weakly virulent
rapidly growing mycobacteria

A

M. fortuitum
M. chelonae
M. abscessus

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222
Q

found in fresh water, including tap water
rarely pathogenic
slow growing scotochromogen often isolated as a contaminant

A

M. gordonae

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223
Q

comprise most normal flora of the mucous membranes
foul odor (from gas production) and necrotic tissue
anaerobic body sites, abscesses and wound
surgical specimens

A

anaerobic bacteria

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224
Q

bacterium that cannot use oxygen for metabolism and oxygen is lethal to the microorganism

A

obligate anaerobe

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225
Q

bacterium that cannot use oxygen but can grow in its presence

A

aerotolerant anaerobe

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226
Q

bacterium that will use oxygen if its present and can grow, albeit more slowly, without oxygen

A

facultative anaerobe

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227
Q

bacterium that requires oxygen at a concentration found in room air, about 20%

A

obligate aerobe

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228
Q

bacterium that requires oxygen at a concentrations of 5-10%

A

microaerophile

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229
Q

bacterium that requires increased concentrations of CO2

A

capnophile

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230
Q

being added to the anaerobic media to enhance the growth of Prevotella and Porphyromonas

A

vitamin K

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231
Q

being added to the anaerobic media as enrichment for Bacteroides and Prevotella

A

hemin

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232
Q

anaerobic media: for general growth of all anaerobes

A

centers for disease control and prevention (CDC) anaerobic blood agar

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233
Q

anaerobic media: selective and differential medium used to culture and presumptively identify Bacteroides fragilis

A

bacteroides bile esculin (BBE) agar

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234
Q

anaerobic media: enriched selective medium for isolation of slowing growing anaerobes such as Prevotella and Bacteroides, which contains component that enhances pigment formation

A

kanamycin-vancomycin laked sheep blood (KVLB) agar

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235
Q

anaerobic media: enriched and selective medium used for growth of facultative, anaerobic, gram negative bacilli

A

phenylethyl alcohol (PEA) agar

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236
Q

tapwater bacillus

A

mycobacterium gordonae

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237
Q

anaerobic media: inhibits gram neg organism and is used to grow most gram positive anaerobes and facultative anaerobes

A

columbia-colistin-naladixic agar with 5% sheep blood

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238
Q

anaerobic media: used to detect proteolytic enzyme produced by clostridium
lecithinase activity produces an opaque zone for the cleavage of lecithin, releasing insoluble fats
lipase cleaves lipids, releasing glycerol, which floats to the top of the medium producing a blue-green sheen on the agar surgace

A

egg yolk agar

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239
Q

must be used to determine if anaerobic conditions have been met

A

oxidation-reduction indicator

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240
Q

most commonly used oxidation-reduction indicator
will turn from blue (oxidized) to white indicating reduction

A

methylene blue

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241
Q

before attempting to identify a possible anaerobic bacterium, it fist must be demonstrated to be an obligate anaerobe
a colony is inoculated to an anaerobic blood agar plate, which is incubated anaerobically, and to a chocolate agar plate incubated under conditions of increased CO2

A

aerotolerance testing

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242
Q

pale pleomorphic gram (-) coccobacilli with bipolar staining

A

bacteroides
prevotella

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243
Q

long, thin, filamentous, gram (-) bacilli with tapered ends arranged end to end

A

fusobacterium

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244
Q

branching gram (+) bacilli

A

actinomyces

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245
Q

large gram (+) bacilli, spore location is important for identification

A

clostridium

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246
Q

non pigmented bacillus responsible for most anaerobic infections, and many isolates are becoming more resistant to antimicrobial agents
major normal flora of the colon
causes infections by gaining entry into normally sterile body sties, especially after surgery, trauma or disease
non motile, gram (-) bacilli with rounded ends and may be pleomorphic
non hemolytic on anaerobic blood agar
growth in 20% bile
catalase (+)
lipase (-)
bile-esculin (+)
lecithinase (-)
geletinase (-)

A

bacteroides fragilis

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247
Q

important virulence mechanism of bacteroides fragilis

A

polysaccharide capsule

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248
Q

pigmented saccharolytic gram (-) bacilli
normal flora of the oropharynx, nose and GI and urogenital tracts
causes head, neck and lower respiratory tract infection
young colonies appear tan and exhibit brick-red fluorescence under UV light (older colonies are brown and black)
ferments glucose and many other carbohydrates and is inhibited by 20% bile

A

prevotella melaninogenica

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249
Q

what antibiotics B. fragilis is resistant to

A

penicillin
kanamycin
vancomycin

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250
Q

what antibiotics B. fragilis is susceptible to

A

rifampin

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251
Q

asaccharolytic or weak fermenters, pigmented colonies, gram negative bacilli
normal flora of the oropharynx, nose and GI and urogenital tracts
causes infections of the head, neck, oral cavity and urogenital tracts
brick red fluorescence under UV light

A

porphyromonas spp

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252
Q

asaccharolytic or weak fermenters, non pigmented colonies, gram negative bacilli
normal flora of the upper respiratory and GI tracts
cause pulmonary, blood, sinus and dental infections in addition to brain abscesses
associated with metastatic conditions
colony morphology; opalescent with speckles
indole (+)
lipase (+)
nitrate (-)
catalase (-)
relatively biochemically inactive

A

fusobacterium

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253
Q

growth of porphyromonas is inhibited by ____ but they are resistant to ___

A

bile, vancomycin, penicillin and rifamipin
kanamycin

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254
Q

inhibit growth of fusobacterium

A

kanamycin
colistin

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255
Q

fusobacterium is resistant to ___

A

vancomycin

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256
Q

causes serious pulmonary infections
more common isolate
asaccharolytic or weak fermenters, non pigmented colonies, gram negative bacilli
colony morphology; opalescent with speckles
indole (+)
lipase (+)
nitrate (-)
catalase (-)
relatively biochemically inactive

A

fusobacterium nucleatum

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257
Q

causes lung and liver abscesses and arthritis
more serious infection
asaccharolytic or weak fermenters, non pigmented colonies, gram negative bacilli
colony morphology; opalescent with speckles
indole (+)
lipase (+)
nitrate (-)
catalase (-)
relatively biochemically inactive

A

fusobacterium necrophorum

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258
Q

causes gas gangrene, post-abortion sepsis, abdominal infections and enterocolitis
major cause of food poisoning resulting in mild to moderate diarrhea without vomiting
acquired through puncture wound or by ingestion
normal flora of the GI tract and can spread from this site following trauma
normal flora of the female genital tract and can cause post-abortion infections

A

clostridium perfringens

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259
Q

produces a double zone of beta hemolysis on SBA incubated anaerobically
positive reverse CAMP test
lecithinase (+)
glucose (+)
lactose (+)
maltose
fructose (+)
subterminal spores
non motile

A

clostridium perfringens

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260
Q

anti-lecithincase antibody is swabbed onto half of an egg yolk agar plate
isolate is inoculated onto both halves of the plate

A

nagler test

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261
Q

neurotoxin that affects the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord, resulting in involuntary muscle contractions that begin with the neck and jaw and progress to a backward arching of the back muscles

A

tetanospasmin

262
Q

gains entry into the host by puncture wounds contaminated with soil, or by wounds and this bacteria produce little necrosis
gram (+I) bacilli with round/terminal spores that resemble drumsticks
gelatinase (+)
indole (+)
motility (+)
lecithinase (-)
lipase (-)

A

clostridium tetani

263
Q

neurotoxin that binds to the synapse of nerve fibers resulting in flaccid paralysis and death
acquired by ingestion of spoiled, home-canned foods in which spores are not destroyed
lipase (+)
lecithinase (+)
glucose (+)
motility (+)
spores: oval/subterminal and resemble tennis rackets

A

clostridium botulinum

264
Q

antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea
normal GI flora in a small percentage of the population, and as many as 30% of hospitalized patients may carry the bacteria
produces exotoxin A and/or B

A

clostridium difficile

265
Q

cultures can be performed on watery or unformed stools
colonies are yellow
fructose (+)
glucose (+)
lecithinase (-)
lipase (-)
indole (-)
motility (+)
spores: oval and subterminal

A

clostridium difficile

266
Q

normal flora of animal and human mucous membranes
exudates contains sulfur granules - dense clumps of bacteria
gram (+) bacilli with a beaded appearance

A

anaerobic actinomyces

267
Q

causes abdomen and chest infections and pelvic actinomyces in women with intrauterine devices

A

A. israelii

268
Q

often called anaerobic diphtheroids
normal flora of the skin, mouth and GI tract
rarely pathogenic
catalase (+)
indole (+)

A

propionibacterium

269
Q

associated with bacterial vaginosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and abdominal infections
curved bacilli
motile
catalase (-)
indole (-)
inhibited by vancomycin

A

mobiluncus

269
Q

normal flora of the GI and female genitalia
this organism helps to maintain an acidic environment in the vagina
aerotolerant anaerobes that will form small alpha hemolytic colonies on SBA
catalase (-)
non motile bacilli

A

lactobacillus

270
Q

anaerobic non spore-forming gram (+) bacilli: mostly non pathogenic normal oral and intestinal flora

A

bifidobacterium
eubacterium

271
Q

anaerobic gram (+) cocci
normal flora of the intestines, female genital tract, oral cavity and respiratory tract
associated with polymicrobial liver and brain abscesses and wound infections
catalase (+)
produces olive-green colonies that become black

A

peptococcus niger

272
Q

anaerobic gram (+) cocci
normal flora of the intestines, female genital tract, oral cavity and respiratory tract
associated with polymicrobial liver and brain abscesses and wound infections
inhibited by sodium polyanethol sulfonate

A

peptostreptococcus

273
Q

anaerobic small gram (-) cocci
reduces nitrate to nitrite
does not ferment any carbohydrates
inhibited by kanamycin and colistin but resistant to vancomycin

A

veillonella

274
Q

obligate intracellular parasites
cannot produce ATP
contains both dna and rna and are susceptible to antimicrobial agents
inclusions in epithelial cells

A

chlamydia

275
Q

most common diagnostic method for chlamydia and chlamydophila

A

nucleic acid amplification tests

276
Q

serological tests for chlamydia and chlamydophila

A

Ab to lipopolysaccharide and outer membrane protein Ags

277
Q

causes lymphogranuloma venereum, trachoma, urethritis, conjunctivitis and infant pneumonia
no animal vectors, it is spread by human-to-human contact
diagnosis: cell cultures, direct fluorescent Ab tests, enzyme immunoassays, NAATs, and serological procedures

A

chlamydia trachomatis

278
Q

leading cause of blindness in the world

A

trachoma

279
Q

mild respiratory tract infections producing flu-like symptoms may also cause Guillain-Barre syndrome
no animal vectors, it is spread by human-to-human contact
diagnosis: fluorescence-labeled Abs

A

chlamydophila pneumoniae

280
Q

causes psittacosis or parrot fever
humans get infections by the inhalation of bird fecal dust
incubation period 1-2 weeks: chills, fever, malaise, can progress to pneumonia

A

chalamydophila psittaci

281
Q

obligate intracellular parasites requiring nucleotides and other metabolic building blocks from host cells
spread by insect vectors

A

rickettsia
ehrlichia

282
Q

causes rocky mountain spotted fever

A

rickettsia rickettssi

283
Q

causes typhus, also called epidemic or louse-borne typhus
carried by human lice

A

rickettsia prowazekii

284
Q

reactivation of typhus (louse-borne typhus)

A

brill-zinsser disease

285
Q

causes endemic or murine typhus
transmitted by fleas

A

rickettsia typhi

286
Q

causes O fever
transmitted by inhalation, contact with fomites, and ingestion of contaminated milk

A

coxiella buruetti

287
Q

causes ehrlichiosis or human monocytic ehrlichiosis
transmitted by ticks and is endemic to the US

A

ehrlichia chaffeensis

288
Q

causes human granulocytic anaplasmosis

A

anaplasma phagocytophilum

289
Q

lack cell wall, making them pleomorphic and resistant to all antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis
contain both rna and dna and can self-replicate

A

mycoplasma
ureaplasma

290
Q

causes tracheobronchitis and community acquired primary atypical pneumonia resulting a dry non productive cough
spread by direct respiratory contact
produces hydrogen peroxide, which causes lysis of RBCs in vitro

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

291
Q

opportunistic pathogen linked to pelvic inflammatory disease in sexually active adults
may cause infant meningitis and post partum fever

A

mycoplasma hominis

292
Q

causes non gonococcal urethritis and may cause other genital tract infections
requires urea

A

ureaplasma urealyticum

293
Q

long, slender, helically curved bacilli that cannot usually be seen on Gram stain
requires silver, and Giemsa stain
can be observed by darkfield or phase-contrast microscopy

A

spirochetes

294
Q

spirochetes

A

treponema
leptospira
borrelia

295
Q

causes syphilis
transmitted by sexual contact, direct blood transmission or transplacentally
exhibit corkscrew motility seen by darkfield microscopy on material taken from lesion
generally diagnosed by serology

A

treponema pallidum subsp. pallidum

296
Q

stages of syphilis: chancre at the site of inoculation

A

primary

297
Q

stages of syphilis: skin rash and lesion on oral mucosa

A

secondary

298
Q

stages of syphilis: absence of clinical symptoms

A

latent

299
Q

stages of syphilis: CNS disorders, aneurysms, and skin, liver, bone disorders

A

tertiary

300
Q

causes yaws

A

treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue

301
Q

causes endemic syphilis

A

treponema pallidum subsp. endemicum

302
Q

causes pinta

A

treponema carateum

303
Q

causes epidemic relapsing fever, which is characterized by recurrent high fever, chills, muscle pain and headache
humans are only known reservoir and transmitted by body lice
diagnosis is based on observing bacteria in the peripheral blood stream via the Giemsa or silver stains

A

borrelia recurrentis

304
Q

causes leptospirosis
zoonosis of rodents, dogs and cattle
infection can produce fever, kidney, liver and CNS involvement

A

leptospira interrogans

305
Q

diagnosis of leptospirosis: ___ is the most sensitive specimen during early infections but ____ can be cultured after the second week

A

blood
urine

306
Q

when two or more antimicrobials are used and the combined effect is greater than what would be expected for the simple additive effect of the agents

A

synergy

307
Q

inhibit cell wall synthesis

A

beta-lactam antibiotics

308
Q

can be given with a beta-lactam antibiotic to provide effective treatment

A

beta-lactamase inhibitors

309
Q

class of antimicrobial agents: cephalosporins

A

beta-lactam antibiotics

310
Q

class of antimicrobial agents: clavulanic acid

A

beta-lactamase inhibitors

311
Q

class of antimicrobial agents: sulbactam

A

beta-lactamase inhibitors

312
Q

class of antimicrobial agents: tazobactam

A

beta-lactamase inhibitors

313
Q

inhibit protein synthesis at the 30s ribosomal subunit and are active against gram (-) and gram (+) bacteria
no activity against obligate anaerobes
potential toxicity

A

aminoglycosides

314
Q

class of antimicrobial agents: gentamicin

A

aminoglycosides

315
Q

class of antimicrobial agents: tobramycin

A

aminoglycosides

316
Q

class of antimicrobial agents: netilmicil

A

aminoglycosides

317
Q

aminoglycosides: bactericidal

A

tobramycin

318
Q

inhibit protein synthesis at the 30s ribosomal subunit
active against gram (+) and gram (-) bacteria and mycoplasma and chlamydia

A

tetracycline

319
Q

class of antimicrobial agents: doxycycline

A

tetracycline

320
Q

class of antimicrobial agents: minocycline

A

tetracycline

321
Q

inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal unit
broad spectrum against gram (-) bacteria e.g. meningitis
risk of bone marrow toxicity, aplastic anemia

A

chloramphenicol

322
Q

mode of action of macrolides

A

inhibit protein synthesis

323
Q

class of antimicrobial agents: erythromycin

A

macrolides

324
Q

class of antimicrobial agents: clarithromycin

A

macrolides

325
Q

inhibit folic acid synthesis by forming non functional analogs of folic acid

A

sulfonamides

326
Q

inhibit cell wall formation by inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis

A

glycopeptides

327
Q

class of antimicrobial agents: vancomycin

A

glycopeptides

328
Q

inhibit dna activity by inactivating dna gyrase

A

quinolones

329
Q

disrupts plasma membranes
used to treat infections caused by gram (-) bacteria

A

polymyxins

330
Q

class of antimicrobial agents: polymixin B and polymixin E

A

polymyxins

331
Q

bacteria are exposed to different concentrations of antimicrobial agents in the assays

A

dilution tests

332
Q

smallest concentration that inhibits the growth of the bacteria is recorded

A

minimal inhibitory concentration

333
Q

lowest concentration of an antimicrobial agent that kills at least 99.99% of the bacteria in the original inoculum

A

minimum bactericidal concentration

334
Q

inoculation of the bacteria then the diameters of the zones of inhibition are measured

A

disk diffusion
Kirby-Bauer sensitivity test

335
Q

used for standardization in the disk diffusion test

A

mueller-hinton agar

336
Q

provides quantitative antimicrobial susceptibility testing results
after incubation, the bacteria produce an elliptical zone of inhibition around the strip
MIC is read from the scale on the strip where the zone of inhibition crosses the strip

A

gradient diffusion

337
Q

enzyme that confers resistance to penicillin and some of the semi-synthetic penicillin

A

beta-lactamase

338
Q

used to detect the presence of inducible clindamycin resistance by erythromycin
after incubation, the plate is examined for a flattening of the zone of inhibition around the clindamycin disk, indicating the presence of inducible resistance to clindamycin

A

d-zone test

339
Q

bacteria increasing in numbers in the blood causing harm to the patient

A

septicemia

340
Q

blood culture bottles often contain this an an anticoagulant
inhibits complement and inactivates neutrophils

A

sodium polyanethol sulfonate

341
Q

inflammation of the brain

A

encephalitis

342
Q

most common isolates found in CSF

A

neisseria meningitidis
streptococcus pneumoniae
streptococcus agalactiae
e. coli
straphylococcus auerus
listeria moncytogenes

343
Q

most important pathogen isolated in throat

A

s. pyogenes

344
Q

used to diagnose lower respiratory tract infections
normally sterile

A

sputum

345
Q

acceptable sputum specimen

A

<10 squamous epithelial cells
>PMNs/low per field

346
Q

important cause of community-acquired pneumonia
most common cause of pneumonia in geriatric patients

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

347
Q

associated with nosocomial pneumonia and pneumonia in alcoholics

A

klebsiella pneumoniae

348
Q

causes community-acquired and nosocomial pneumonia, usually secondary to infection or predisposing factor

A

staphylococcus aureus

349
Q

causes infection in infants, children and the immunosuppressed
incidence of infections has decreased dramatically since routine use of vaccination

A

haemophilus influenzae

350
Q

causes atypical pneumonia, which is mostly seen in young adults
won’t grow on routinely used media

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

351
Q

normally sterile may contain bacteria sometimes but does not indicate an infection

A

urine

352
Q

bacteria causing gastroenteritis

A

shigella spp
campylobacter jejuni
e coli
yersinia enterocolitica
clostridium difficile
vibrio spp

353
Q

cervicitis and urethritis are usually caused by:

A

N. gonorrhoeae
C. trachomatis

354
Q

due to overgrowth of some species of normal vaginal flora, most likely mobiluncus

A

bacterial vaginosis

355
Q

considered normal vaginal flora and may only be an indicator of bacterial vaginosis

A

gardnerella vaginalis

356
Q

complication of infection caused by N. gonorrhea or C. trachomatis involving the endometrium or fallopian tubes

A

pelvic inflammatory disease

357
Q

usually caused by enterics

A

prostatitis

358
Q

most common bacteria causing superficial skin infections

A

s. aureus
p. aeruginosa

359
Q

most common bacteria causing folliculitis

A

s. aureus
p. aeruginosa

360
Q

most common bacteria causing boils, bedsores, etc

A

s. aureus

361
Q

most common bacteria causing impetigo

A

s. pyogenes
s. aureus

362
Q

most common bacteria causing erysipelas

A

s. pyogenes
erysiphelothrix rhusiopathiae

363
Q

enzyme that produces water and oxygen from hydrogen peroxide

A

catalase

364
Q

catalase test: staphylococci

A

postitive

365
Q

catalase test: streptococci

A

negative

366
Q

clumping factor
identification of s. aureus

A

coagulase test

367
Q

detects the enzyme l-pyrrolidonly arylamidase
red color after the addition of p-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde is positive indicator
s. pyogenes and enterococcus are typically positive
used to differentiate s. aureus from s. lugdunensis and s. scheleiferi

A

PYR test

368
Q

positive for bile solubility test

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

369
Q

will give a purple color after the addition of ninhydrine
group B streptococci are positive, whereas most other beta-hemolytic streptococci are negative
can be used to differentiate C. jejuni from most other campylobacter spp.

A

hippurate hydrolysis test

370
Q

detects enxyme that is used in the electron transports system
several drops of reagents (tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride) are placed on filter paper containing bacterial colonies or or directly on plate colonies
colonies should be taken from nonselective non differential media
indicated by a purple color within 10-15 seconds

A

oxidase

371
Q

detects the bacterial enzyme tryptophanase
detected by an aldehyde indicator (Ehrlich’s reagent) yield a red color or Kovac’s reagent, yielding a bright pink color

A

indole test

372
Q

detects the enzyme which forms ammonia
indicated by a bright pink color

A

urease test

373
Q

triple sugar iron agar will show the pattern of:

A

glucose
lactose
sucrose
sulfide
gas production

374
Q

indicator used in TSI

A

phenol red

375
Q

TSI result for nonfermenter, non enterobacteriaceae

A

K/K

376
Q

TSI result for non lactose, non sucrose fermenter, glucose fermenter

A

K/A

377
Q

TSI result for lactose and/or sucrose fermenter, glucose fermenter

A

A/A

378
Q

more sensitive method to detect H2S gas in TSI agar

A

lead acetate

379
Q

what are being tested in IMViC

A

indole
methyl red
voges-proskauer
citrate

380
Q

IMViC: pink

A

indole (presence of tryptophanase, which breaks down tryptophan to pyruvic acid, ammonia, and indole)

381
Q

IMViC: methyl red

A

glucose fermentation: (+) yellow, (-) red

382
Q

IMViC: VP

A

glucose metabolism: (+) red, (-) yellow

383
Q

IMViC: citrate

A

citrate: (+) blue, (-) green

384
Q

amino acid degradation test: detects the ability of an organism to remove amino group from specific amino acids

A

deaminase reaction

385
Q

amino acid degradation test: detects the ability of bacteria to remove the carboxyl group a specific amino acid

A

decarboxylation reaction

386
Q

all purpose preservative to preserve stool specimens for concentration procedures

A

5% or 10% formalin

387
Q

mercury-containing preservative for preparing stained smears for stool specimens

A

polyvinyl alcohol

388
Q

mercury-free preservative that can be used to preserve stool sample for both concentration and permanent stained smears

A

sodium acetate formalin

389
Q

fecal concentration methods

A

formalin ethyl acetate sedimentations
zinc sulfate flotation
sheather sugar flotation

390
Q

generally recommended for cryptosporidium and some ova

A

sheather sugar floration procedure

391
Q

this method entails suspension of 3-4g of stool in 5-10% formalin and being filtered through gauze before centrifugation. after washing the sediment is resuspended in about 3ml of 33% aqueous solution of zinc sulfate

A

zinc sulfate flotation

392
Q

uses low-speed centrifugation to concentrate blood samples suspected of containing minimal numbers of parasites

A

knott method

393
Q

used for Leishmania or Trypanosoma detection in blood samples

A

buffy coat slides

394
Q

stains for microscopic detection of stool, tissue and blood parasites: quick and easy to perform and will allow trophozoite motility and helminth ova and larvae to be seen

A

saline wet mount

395
Q

stains for microscopic detection of stool, tissue and blood parasites: useful for the detection of larvae, ova and protozoan cysts in stool samples

A

iodine wet mounts

396
Q

stains for microscopic detection of stool, tissue and blood parasites: used in fecal smears when enhanced detail is needed

A

iron hematoxylin stain

397
Q

stains for microscopic detection of stool, tissue and blood parasites: most commonly used stain for fecal parasite study

A

trichrome stain (wheatley or gomori)

398
Q

stains for microscopic detection of stool, tissue and blood parasites: used to detect crytosporidium and isospora

A

modified acid fast stain

399
Q

stains for microscopic detection of stool, tissue and blood parasites: microsporidia are not easily stained, therefore the concentration of the stain and the staining time is increased

A

modified trichrome stains

400
Q

stains for microscopic detection of stool, tissue and blood parasites: microsporidia stain pink (oval, 1-3 micrometer) and the background is green

A

weber green stain

401
Q

stains for microscopic detection of stool, tissue and blood parasites: microsporidia stain pink but the background is blue

A

ryan blue stain

402
Q

collection methods: used to collect enterobius vermicularis (pinworms) eggs for the perirectal area

A

cellophane (scotch) tape

403
Q

collection methods: used to obtain duodenal contents for parasitic examination

A

enterotest (string test)

404
Q

collection methods: used to collect colon material

A

sigmoidoscopy

405
Q

sample types and associated parasites: feces

A

giardia
cryptosporidium
entamoeba
ascaris
enterobius

406
Q

sample types and associated parasites: blood

A

plasmodium
leishmania
trypanosoma
microfiliriae

407
Q

sample types and associated parasites: skin

A

onchocerca

408
Q

sample types and associated parasites: vaginal or urethral

A

trichomonas

409
Q

sample types and associated parasites: eye scraping

A

acanthamoeba

410
Q

sample types and associated parasites: tissues

A

naegleria
acanthamoeba
leishmania

411
Q

sample types and associated parasites: urine

A

schistosoma
trichomonas

412
Q

sample types and associated parasites: sputum

A

ascaris
strongyloides
paragonimus

413
Q

diagnostic tests: used to identify giardia lamblia, cryptosporidium, trichomonas vaginalis

A

direct flourescent antibody

414
Q

diagnostic tests: used to diagnose leishmaniasis and chaga’s disease

A

direct agglutination test

415
Q

diagnostic tests: used to identify giardia lamblia, cryptosporidium, toxoplasma gondii

A

ELISA

416
Q

an asymptomatic host that harbors a parasite and is capable of transmitting it to others

A

carrier

417
Q

tapeworm

A

tapeworm

418
Q

symbiotic relationship beneficial to one member and harmless to another

A

commensalism

419
Q

thick-walled stage of protozoa resistant to adverse conditions

A

cyst

420
Q

host supporting the adult or sexual phase of a parasitic life cycle

A

definitive host

421
Q

parasite found on the surface of a host

A

ectoparasite

422
Q

parasite found inside a host

A

endoparasite

423
Q

blood or tissue roundworms

A

filariae

424
Q

laval stage of echinococcus granulosis

A

hydatid cyst

425
Q

host containing the asexual phase of a parasite

A

intermediate host

426
Q

early stage of asexual sporozoa trophozoites

A

immature schizont

427
Q

symbiotic relationship beneficial to both species

A

mutualism

428
Q

encysted form of an egg

A

oocyst

429
Q

symbiotic relationship in which one member benefits at the expense of another member

A

parasitism

430
Q

an association between two or more organisms of different species

A

symbiosis

431
Q

fluke or flat work

A

trematode

432
Q

developmental stage of protozoa

A

trophozoites

433
Q

extensions of cytoplasm providing motility unique to amoebae

A

pseudopods

434
Q

stages of amoeba life cycle

A

trophozoites
cyst stage

435
Q

infective stage of intestinal protozoa

A

cyst

436
Q

active reproduction stage of intestinal protozoa and can be destroyed of stomach acid

A

trophozoites

437
Q

how to identify or diagnose intestinal protozoa in laboratory

A

microscopic identification of cysts and trophozoites

438
Q

area chromatin within the nucleus

A

karyosome

439
Q

nucleic combined with protein found along the nuclear membrane

A

peripheral chromatin

440
Q

development of a cyst into a trophozoite

A

excystation

441
Q

development of a trophozoite into a cyst

A

encystation

442
Q

rod-shaped, RNA-containing structure found in the cytoplasm

A

chromatoid bar

443
Q

only amoeba pathogenic for the GI tract

A

entamoeba histolytica

444
Q

characterized by abdominal cramping, anorexia, fatigue, and diarrhea
can also cause ulcers and dysentery

A

amoebic colitis

445
Q

extraintestinal amoebiasis primarily involves infections of __

A

liver
spleen, brain and lungs

446
Q

entamoeba histolytica cysts can range from ___ and spherical
nuclei:
peripheral chromatin:
karyosome:
cytoplasm:

A

8-22 micrometers
1-4 nuclei
fine and uniformly distributed
centrally located
finely granular with chromatid bars with round ends

447
Q

entamoeba histolytica tropozoites
size:
motility:
nucleus:
cytoplasm:

A

5-70 micrometers
pseudopods
1
finely granular, may contain RBCs

448
Q

diagnosis of E. histolytica

A

presence of intracellular RBCs in amoeba

449
Q

E. histolytica is identical to this non-pathogenic protozoa and can only be differentiated by immunologic assays detecting surface antigens

A

E. dispar

450
Q

generally non pathogenic but may cause intestinal problems in immunosuppressed patients, and if found in stool specimen, it can indicate the presence of pathogenic organisms
needs to be differentiated from E. histolytica for purposes of treatment

A

entamoeba coli

451
Q

entamoeba coli cyst
size:
shape:
nuclei:
peripheral chromatin:
karyosome:
cytoplasm:

A

8-40 micrometers
spherical
1-8
coarse and unevenly distributed, glycogen mass
eccentric and large
coarse with thin chromatoidal bars with pointed ends

452
Q

entamoeba coli trophozoites
size:
motility:
nuclei:
peripheral chromatin:
cytoplasm:

A

10-60 micrometers
short/blunt pseudopods
1
unevenly distributed
coarse and vacuolated with bacterial inclusions

453
Q

currently classified as amoeba but rRNA analysis indicates it is related to algae and water molds
associated with diarrhea and abdominal pain

A

blastocystis hominis

454
Q

blastocystis hominis
size:
morphology:

A

4-60 micrometers
large central body (90%), outer ring of cytoplasm with several nuclei around the central body

455
Q

other intestinal amoebae: causes asymptomatic mouth and genital tract infections

A

entamoeba gingivalis

456
Q

other intestinal amoebae: non pathogenic intestinal parasite

A

Iodamoeba butschlii
endolimax nana
entamoeba hartmanni

457
Q

only pathogenic flagellate
causes mild to moderate diarrhea
severe infections can lead to malabsorption

A

giardia lamlia

458
Q

rod like structure that functions in cellular support

A

axostyle

459
Q

intracellular portion of the flageullum

A

axoneme

460
Q

flagellum finlike structure that generates a wavelike motion

A

undulating membrane

461
Q

rudimentary oral cavity

A

cytostome

462
Q

giardia lamblia trophozoites attach themselves to ____

A

duodenum mucosa

463
Q

giardia lamblia cyst
size:
shape:
nuclei:
peripheral chromatin:
cytoplasm:

A

12 micrometers long and 8 micrometers wide
oval shaped; coffee been
4 nuclei
none
retracted from cyst wall , 2-4 comma-shaped median bodies

464
Q

giardia lamblia trophozoites
size:
shape:
motility:
nuclei:
peripheral chromatin:
other features:

A

15 micrometers long to 10micrometers wide
pear-shaped, teardrop shaped with bilateral symmetry
4 pairs of flagella
2
none
2 median bodies, 2 axonemes, sucking disk

465
Q

chilomastix mesnili cyst
size:
shape:
nuclei:
peripheral chromatin:
karyosome:
cytostome:

A

5-10 micrometers
oval
1
none
large and centrally located
well defined

466
Q

chilomastix mesnili trophozoites
size:
shape:
motility:
nuclei:
peripheral chromatin:
other features:

A

5-25 long, 5-10 wide
pear shaped
flagella: 3 anterior, 1 posterior
1
none
large cytostome, spinal groove

467
Q

flagellated protozoa: causes diarrhea, abdominal pain, anal pruritis
infection occur in individuals living in close quarters
infects the mucosal lining of the large intestines
no cyst stage

A

dientamoeba fragilis

468
Q

dientamoeba fragilis trophozoites
size:
shape:
motility:
nuclei:
peripheral chromatin:
other features:

A

5-19
round
hyaline pseudopods
2
none; nuclear chromatin
vacuolated cytoplasm with bacterial inclusion

469
Q

only ciliated protozoa species pathogenic for humans
causes balantidiasis, characterized by diarrhea to dysentery
MOT: infective cyst through contaminated water or food

A

balantidium coli

470
Q

balantidium coli cyst
size:
shape:
nuclei:
motility:
other features:

A

43-65
round
2: macronucleus (kidney shaped and large) and micronucleus (round)
cilia
double cyst cell wall

471
Q

balantidium coli trophozoites
size:
nuclei:
motility:
other features:

A

100 (L), 70 (W)
2
cilia
1-2 contractile vacuoles

472
Q

intestinal sporozoa

A

cryptosporidium parvum
cyclospora cayetanensis
isospora belli

473
Q

causes cryptosporidiosis, moderate to severe diarrhea
in patients with AIDS, important cause of death due to dehydration

A

cryptosporidium parvum

474
Q

MOT of cryptosporidium parvum

A

contaminated food or water through oocyst
human-to-human transmission

475
Q

diagnosis of cryptosporidium parvum

A

acid fast oocysts in stool or small bowel mucosal epithelial cells

476
Q

cryptosporidium parvum oocyst
size:
sporozoites:
cytosplasm:

A

4-6
4 enclosed within a thick cell wall
may contain several dark granules

477
Q

host of cyclospora cayetansesis

A

humans

478
Q

causes nonbloody diarrhea
diagnosis is made by examination of stained fecal smears: oocysts will stain with the modified Kinyoun’s acid-fast stain, 8-10 micrometers

A

cyclospora cayetanensis

479
Q

causes isosporiasis, characterized by mild diarrhea to severe dysentery
transmission is by ingestion of the infective oocyst in contaminated food and water
diagnosis: oocysts in wet mounts and/or acid fast or auramine-rhodamine stains

A

isospora belli

480
Q

isospora belli cyst
size:
cytoplasm:

A

25-40
granular and contains 2 sporoblasts that contain 4 sporozoites

481
Q

4 causative agents of malaria

A

plasmodium vivax
plasmodium falciparum
plasmodium malariae
plasmodium ovale

482
Q

plasmodium spp have 2 life cycles phases: sexual phase that occurs within the intestinal tract of mosquito

A

sporogony

483
Q

plasmodium spp have 2 life cycles phases: asexual phase that occurs in the human host

A

schizogony

484
Q

MOT of plasmodium spp.

A

bite of a female anopheles mosquito

485
Q

microscopic examination of blood smears for plasmodium: blood collection

A

finger stick and blood smears made immediately
EDTA used as an anticoagulant

486
Q

this cannot be used in blood collection for plasmodium diagnosis as it can cause distortion of the parasite

A

heparin

487
Q

microscopic examination of blood smears for plasmodium: thick smears

A

drop of blood on a slide, air dried, stained with giemsa

488
Q

microscopic examination of blood smears for plasmodium: thin smears

A

drop of blood on a slide, blood is spread out, fixed in methanol, then is stained

489
Q

3 morphologies of plasmodium

A

trophozoites
schizonts
gametocytes

490
Q

plasmodium morphology: erythrocytic intracellular ring-like appearance

A

trophozoites or ring-forms

491
Q

using these stains, blue cytosplasmic ring connected to a red chromatin dot is demonstrated in the presence of trophozoites

A

giemsa or wright’s stain

492
Q

plasmodium morphology: active chromatin activity causes the parasite to increase in size
pigmented granules are numerous and reddish brown in color
contain merozoites, the number and arrangement depend on the species

A

schizonts

493
Q

plasmodium morphology: characterized by a chromatin mass staining pink to purple
round to oval in shape (most)
varied pigmentation

A

gametocytes

494
Q

banana shaped gametocytes

A

plasmodium falciparum

495
Q

infective stage of plasmodium spp being transmitted to humans by anopheles mosquitoes
infect hepatic cells and bein the exo-erythrocyte cycle

A

sporozoite

496
Q

dormant form of plasmodium vivax and plasmodium ovale that can remain in the liver
reactivation results in a recurrence (true relapse)

A

hypnozoites

497
Q

life cycle of plasmodium spp: infect RBCs and initiate the erythrocyte cycle
may develop into ring forms and reproduce by schizogony, or into microgametocytes or macrogametocytes which are transmitted to the mosquito during human blood meal

A

merozoites

498
Q

life cycle of plasmodium spp: RBC form of the parasites can be nearly eliminated by treatment or an immune response, and the patient may become asymptomatic. after several weeks, the parasites can increase in number and the symptoms will return

A

recrudescence

499
Q

plasmodium vivax
RBC appearance:
trophozoites:
schizont:
gametocytes:
fever cycle:

A

enlarged, pale with prominent Schuffner’s dots (only reticulocytes)
1/3 size of an RBC
12-24 merozoites
round to oval with a large chromatin mass
48 hours

500
Q

causes benign tertian malaria following a 10- to 17-day inoculation period
most common cause of malaria

A

plasmodium vivax

501
Q

plasmodium falciparum
RBC appearance:
trophozoites:
schizont:
gametocytes:
fever cycle:

A

normal in size, all are infected
1/5 size of an RBC, multiple rings, some have 2 chromatin dots
rarely seen
crescent- or banana-shaped
interval between paroxysms (intense fever and chills) is 24 hours

502
Q

causes malignant tertian malaria (black water fever) following a 7-10 day incubation period

A

plasmodium falciparum

503
Q

plasmodium malariae
RBC appearance:
trophozoites:
schizont:
gametocytes:
fever cycle:

A

normal in size without dots, older RBCs
similar to P. vivax but stain more intense blue, mature produce band forms
8-12 merozoites arranged in rosettes
resemble P. vivax
72 hours

504
Q

causes quartan malaria following an 18-40 day incubation period

A

plasmodium malariae

505
Q

plasmodium ovale
RBC appearance:
trophozoites:
schizont:
gametocytes:
fever cycle:

A

enlarged, with thicker forms contain Schuffner’s dots, often oval-shaped and have irregularly shaped membranes with projections (only reticulocytes)
maintain ring appearance as they develop
averages 4-8 merozoites arranged in rosettes
resemble P. vivax but smaller

506
Q

causes benign tertian following a 10-20 day incubation period

A

plasmodium ovale

507
Q

persistence of exo-erythrocytic cycle
p. vivax:
p. falciparum:
p. malariae:
p. ovale:

A

yes
no
no
yes

508
Q

length of replication cycle (hours)
p. vivax:
p. falciparum:
p. malariae:
p. ovale:

A

44-48
36-48
72
48

509
Q

number of merozoites in mature schizonts
p. vivax:
p. falciparum:
p. malariae:
p. ovale:

A

16 (12-24)
8-24 (not usually seen in peripheral blood)
8 (6-12)
8 (8-12)

510
Q

important criteria for identification
p. vivax:
p. falciparum:
p. malariae:
p. ovale:

A

infected RBCs enlarged, tropozoites irregularly shaped, Schuffner’s dots
multiple ring forms seen in a single RBC, crescent shaped gametocytes, and ring shaped young trophozoites are only forms seen
normal size and color, trophozoites compact and band forms may be seen
enlarged and oval shaped with fimbriated edges, trophozoites irregular shaped Schuffner’s dots

511
Q

causes babesiosis, which can affect spleen, kidneys, liver
erythrocytic intracellular parasite that can cause hemolytic anemia
transmitted through a tick bite

A

babesia microti

512
Q

infective sporozoite of the babesia microti is transmitted by this

A

ixodes scapularis

513
Q

babesia microti ring form can have a size between 3-5 micrometers and can be identified through blood smear examination with what appearance

A

2-4 rings per RBC appearing like a maltese cross

514
Q

characterized by a broad spectrum of symptoms and has a predilection for cns infections: in healthy individuals, this resembles infectious mononucleosis and produces fatigue, swollen lymph glands, fever and myalgia and can affect the heart and the liver; in premature or antibody-deficient infants, symptoms can include splenomegaly, jaundice and fever and the cns infection can lead to developmental complications including vision and hearing problems, hydrocephalus, mental mental retardation; in immunosuppressed individuals, the parasite becomes localized in the cns with symptoms of encephalitiss and brain lesions

A

toxoplasmosis

515
Q

sexual reproduction of toxoplasma gondii occurs in the ___ and can be transmitted through ____

A

intestinal tract of house cats
ingestion of cat feces-contaminated food and water, ingestion of undercooked meat (lamb and pork), transplacental

516
Q

toxoplasma gondii trophozoites
can range in size from 1-3 micrometers are crescent to round in shape

A

tachyzoites

517
Q

toxoplasma gondii cysts contain many

A

bradyzoites

518
Q

naegleria fowleri can cause this which is often fatal within 3-6 days

A

amoebic meningoencephalitis

519
Q

infective stage of naegleria folweri

A

trophozoites

520
Q

naegleria fowleri cyst
size:
shape:
nucleus:
peripheral chromatin:
karyosome:

A

10-13
round
1 nucleus
none
centrally located, large

521
Q

naegleria fowleri trophozoites
size:
motility:
nucleus:
peripheral chromatin:
cytoplasm:

A

10-23
blunt pseudopods
1
none
granular, vacuolated

522
Q

naegleria fowleri flagellate
size:
shape:
motility:
nucleus:
karyosome:
cytoplasm:

A

7-15
pear-shaped
2 flagella
1, indented
centrally located, large
granular, vacuolated

523
Q

causes ameobic encephalitis and amoebic keratitis (cornea infection) through direct invasion by the trophozoites

A

acanthamoeba

524
Q

acanthamoeba cyst
size:
shape:
nucleus:
peripheral chromatin:
karyosome:
cytoplasm:

A

8-25
round shape, with jagged edge
1
none
centrally located and large
granular and vacuolated

525
Q

acanthamoeba trophozoites
size:
motility:
nucleus:
peripheral chromatin:
karyosome:
cytoplasm:

A

15-45
spine-like pseudopods
1
none
centrally located and large
granular and vacuolated

526
Q

causes vaginitis in women whereas men are generally asymptomatic carriers
sexually transmitted disease and can infect neonates (aspiration pneumonia)

A

trichomonas vaginalis

527
Q

trichomonas vaginalis trophozoites are the infective stage and infect the _____

A

epithelial or mucosal lining of the vagina, urethra, prostrate gland

528
Q

(T or F) trichomonas vaginas does not have a cyst stage

A

true

529
Q

trichomonas vaginalis trophozoites
size:
shape:
motility:
nucleus:

A

30
pear shaped
undulating mechanism (flagella 3-5 anterior and 1 posterior and large axostyle with cytoplasmic granules)
1 prominent

530
Q

hemoflagellates inhabit the ___ of humans and can be transmitted to humans by ___

A

blood and tissue of humans
arthropod bites

531
Q

4 stages of development of hemoflagellates

A

amastigote
promastigote
epimastigote
trypomastigote

532
Q

developmental stage of hemoflagellates: non flagellated ova form, found in tissue

A

amastigote

533
Q

developmental stage of hemoflagellates: flagellated stage found in the vector, rarely seen in the blood

A

promastigote

534
Q

developmental stage of hemoflagellates: long, slender, flagellated from found in arthropod vectors

A

epimastigote

535
Q

infection occurs mainly in Africa and South America
diagnosis is made by microscopic examination of blood and CSF and serologic testing

A

trypanosoma

536
Q

causes sleeping sickness and infection affects the lymphatic system and CNS

A

trypanosoma brucei

537
Q

african trypaosomiasis can cause this swollen lymph nodes at the posterior base of the neck called ___

A

winterbottom’s signs

538
Q

causes Chagas disease characterized by lesion formation (chagoma), conjunctivitis, edema of the face and legs, and heart muscle involvement leading to myocarditis
mostly found in south america

A

trypanosoma cruzi

539
Q

mianly a disease of africa, eastern europe and south/central america
diagnosis is through identification of amastigote in the blood or tissue and serologic testing
has 2 forms: cutaneous and disseminated (liver, spleen and reticuloendothelial involvements)

A

leishmania

540
Q

flat, hermaphroditic and have at least 2 suckers (one opens into the digestive tract and one is for attachment)

A

trematodes

541
Q

final stage of development of trematodes occurring in snails, motile by means of a tail

A

cercaria

542
Q

encysted form of trematodes occurring in the second intermediate host (fish or crayfish)

A

metacercaria

543
Q

first larval stage of trematodes that emerges from the egg in fresh water

A

miracidium

544
Q

emerges from the miracidium as a sac-like structure containing the larvae

A

sporocyst

545
Q

intermediate larval stage occurring in the sporocyst

A

redia

546
Q

schistosoma species pathogenic for human

A

s. mansoni
s. haematobium
s. japonicum
s. mekongi
s. intercalatum

547
Q

characterized by abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea and hepotosplenomegaly
can cause intestinal lesions and blockage, and eggs penetrate the bladder and are passed into the urine

A

schistosomiasis

548
Q

egg morphology: large terminal spine

A

s. haematobium

549
Q

egg morphology: large lateral spine

A

s. mansoni

550
Q

egg morphology: s. japonicum

A

small inconspicuous lateral spine

551
Q

causes pulmonary infections characterized by chest pain, cough, bronchitis, and sputum with blood
acquire infection by ingesting metacercariae in undercooked crabs and crayfish
adult forms develop in human lung tissue

A

paragonimus westermani (lung fluke)

552
Q

egg morphology: range in size from 72-130 in length with a prominent operculum

A

paragonimus westermani

553
Q

causes liver problems characterized fever, abdominal pain and diarrhea
found mainly in china
humans acquire the disease by eating undercooked fish containing encysted metacercariae

A

clonorchis sinensis

554
Q

egg morphology: egg contains miracidium with a small knob opposite the direction the operculum

A

clonorchis sinesis

555
Q

causes intestinal problems, including diarrhea and ulceration of the intestines and possibly the stomach
acquire infections by ingesting metacercariae on water plants (water chestnuts and bamboo)

A

fasciolopsis buski

555
Q

egg morphology: large oblong (130-140 by 80-85) and contain an operculum

A

fasciolopsis buski

555
Q

primarily a zoonosis of sheep affecting the liver
found in south america and mediterranean area
human acquire infections by ingesting metacercariae on water plants (watercress)

A

fasciola hepatica

556
Q

egg morphology: large, oblong (130-150 by 63-90) and contain an operculum

A

fasciola hepatica

557
Q

lung fluke

A

paragonimus westermani

558
Q

chinese or oriental fluke

A

clonorchis sinensis

559
Q

inttestinal fluke

A

fasciolopsis buski

560
Q

liver fluke

A

fasciola hepatica

561
Q

subclass of helminths compromising true tapeworms

A

cestodes

562
Q

anterior portion of the body containing suckers and sometimes hooklets responsible for attachment to the host

A

scolex

563
Q

crown of the scolex

A

rostellum

564
Q

make up the major portion of the tapeworm and contain the male and female reproductive structures

A

proglottids

565
Q

entire length of the tapeworm except for the scolex and neck

A

strobila

566
Q

infection is by the ingestion of undercooked beef that contains the cysticercus larva

A

taenia saginata

567
Q

infection is by the ingestion of undercooked pork that contains the cysticercus larva

A

taenia solium

568
Q

how to differentiate taenia saginata from taenia solium for diagnosis

A

proglottids or scolex analysis

569
Q

egg morphology: range in size 30-40, 3 pairs of hooklets, have radial striations

A

taenia spp.

570
Q

infection is acquired by eating raw or undercooked fish containing th plerocercoid
causes intestinal pain, diarrhea and sometimes vitamin b12 deficiency (causes pernicious anemia)

A

diphyllobothrium latum

571
Q

fish tapeworm

A

diphyllobothrium latum

572
Q

egg morphology: size range in 50-80 in length, oblong in shape, shell is smooth, and color is yellow to brown, terminal knob is located at one end opposite the operculum

A

diphyllobothrium latum

573
Q

causes abdominal pain and diarrhea
humans usually acquire the infection by ingestion of ova found in mice or human feces
most common tapeworm in the US

A

hymenolepsis nana

574
Q

dwarf tapeworm

A

hymenolepsis nana

575
Q

egg morphology: average size in 40, round ova, contains three pairs of hooklet, polar thickening of the sell is common

A

hymenolepsis nana

576
Q

causes abdominal pain and diarrhea
humans acquire the infection from the ingestion of insects containing the cystecercoids=

A

hymenolepsis diminuta

577
Q

mouse and rat tapeworm

A

hymenolepsis diminuta

578
Q

egg morphology: average size of the round egg is 40, contains three pairs of hooklets

A

hymenolepsis diminuta

579
Q

human infection results in the development of a hydatid cyst in many body sites
as the cyst grows, surrounding tissue is destroyed
intermediate host is sheep
acquired infection through ingesting ova in dog feces
cyst contains fluid, daughter cysts, brood capsules and hydatid sand

A

echinococcus granulosis

580
Q

tapered, cylindrical body with an esophagus and longitudinal muscles
based on adult, larvae or egg morphology
can cause disease associated with the intestines, skin, including diarrhea, vomiting and skin lesions

A

nematodes

581
Q

intestinal nematodes

A

enterobius vermicularis
trichuris trichiura
ascaris lumbricoides
strongyloides stercoralis
necator americanus
acylostoma duodenadale

582
Q

intestinal-tissue nematodes

A

trichinella spiralis
dracunculus medinensis

583
Q

pinworm

A

enterobius vermicularis

584
Q

causes infections that are usually self-limiting and characterized by itching and inflammation of the anus
common in US especially in school-aged children

A

enterobius vermicularis

585
Q

enterobius vermicularis life cycle

A
  1. infective eggs are ingested and larvae are released in the small intestines
  2. larvae develop into adult worms in the colon
  3. gravid females migrate to the perianal region, where eggs are laid
  4. eggs are infective following a 6-hour incubation period
  5. itching results from the irritation caused by the deposition of eggs and spread from the perianal region by scratching
  6. eggs will be infective for several weeks and can be found in dust, clothing
586
Q

enterobius vermicularis diagnosis

A

identification of ova from a tape preparation
collection of specimen is done in the morning

587
Q

egg morphology: range in size from 50-60 in length and 30 in width, oval in shape and one side is flat, shell is thick and double walled, contains a developing embryo

A

enterobius vermicularis

588
Q

whipworm

A

trichuris trichiura

589
Q

causes infection in that in children presents as colitis and dysentery, in adults symptoms include abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea
most infectious occur in africa and south america
eggs from human feces are infective

A

trichuris trichiura

590
Q

egg morphology: 50-60 in length and 25 in width, lemon or football shaped, with clear plugs at each end, shell is smooth and yellow to brown, egg contains a developing embyro

A

trichuris trichiura

591
Q

giant intestinal round worm causes intestinal tissue destruction and bowel obstruction that can be fatal, worms can also migrate to the lungs

A

ascaris lumbricoides

592
Q

egg morphology: decorticated, unfertilized ova are oval and measure up to 90, fertilized ova are round, has thick shell and contains a developing embryo

A

ascaris lumbricoides

593
Q

(male or female) adult ascaris lumbricoides has curved posterior end

A

male

594
Q

causes threadworm infections, characterize by diarrhea and abdominal pain

A

strongyloides stercoralis

595
Q

strongyloides stercoralis: repeated exposure to larvae can produce this allergic reaction

A

larval migrans

596
Q

strongyloides stercoralis diagnosis

A

stool examination for rhabditiform larvae

597
Q

strongyloides stercoralis rhabditiform larvae morphology

A

700 micrometers in length
tail is notched

598
Q

can cause human hookworm infections
symptoms can include coughing and headaches

A

necator americanus
ancylostoma duodenale

599
Q

strongyloides stercoralis MOT

A

skin contact with contaminated soil (filariform larvae)

600
Q

hookworms MOT

A

skin penetration of the filariform larvae

601
Q

hookworms diagnosis

A

identification of larvae (filariform) in sputum or ova from stool specimens

602
Q

egg morphology: oval, measures 56-75 micrometers long by 36-40 micrometers wide, thin shelled, developing embryo can sometimes be seen inside

A

necator americanus
ancylostoma duodenale

603
Q

difference between the adult hookworm morphology

A

necator americanus: smaller, has a pair of cutting plates
ancylostoma duodenale: larger, has teeth

604
Q

causes trichinosis with symptoms including diarrhea, blurred vision, muscle edema and coughing

A

trichinella spiralis

605
Q

trichinella spiralis reservoir

A

pigs

606
Q

trichinella spiralis MOT

A

eating contaminated undercooked pork

607
Q

trichinella spiralis diagnosis

A

examining muscle tissues for encysted larvae
lab tests reveal: eosinophilia, leukocytosis, increased creatine kinase and lactate dehydrogenase

608
Q

trichinella spiralis larvae morphology

A

125 micrometers in length, 7 micrometers wide
encysted forms are found in striated muscle tissue

609
Q

trichinella spiralis adult morphology

A

can range up to 1mm in length and reside in the intestinal tract

610
Q

causes guinea worm infection, symptoms include allergic reactions and painful ulcers
most infections occur in Africa, India and Asia

A

dracunculus medinensis

611
Q

dracunculus medinensis MOT

A

ingestion of infected copepods (water fleas) carrying the larvae

612
Q

dracunculus medinensis diagnosis

A

observing worms emerging from ulcerated areas of the body

613
Q

order of nematodes consisting of adult thread like worms
inhabit the circulatory and lymphatic system, also found in muscle, connective tissue and serous cavities

A

filarial parasites

614
Q

four primary species of filarial parasites that cause diseases in humans

A

wuchereria bancrofti
brugia malayi
loa loa
onchocerca volvulus

615
Q

causes malayan filariasis, a condition that produces lesions in lymphatics, and elephantiasis may result
east asia

A

brugia malayi

616
Q

brugia malayi is being transmitted by ___

A

mosquitos

617
Q

brugia malayi diagnosis

A

microscopic examination of blood smears for mcirofilariae
samples collected at night

618
Q

brugia malayi microfilariae morphology
size:
nuclei:
sheath:
habitat:
cephalic space:

A

200-300 micrometers in length
2, located in the tail
present
upper lymphatic
twice as long as broad

619
Q

causes bancroftian filariasis, a condition that produces lesions in the lymphatics, elephantiasis may occur
tropics and subtropics

A

wuchereria bancrofti

620
Q

wuchereria bancrofti vectors

A

culex
aedes
anopheles

621
Q

wuchereria bancrofti microfilariae morphology
size:
nuclei:
sheath:
habitat:
cephalic space:

A

250-300 micrometers in length
none
present
lower lymphatic
long as broad

622
Q

causes river blindness
most infections occur in africa, south america and mexico

A

onchocerca volvulus

623
Q

onchocerca volvulus MOT

A

bite of the simulium (black fly)

624
Q

onchocerca volvulus microfilariae morphology
size:
nuclei:
sheath:
habitat:

A

150-360 micrometers
none
present
subcutaneous tissue

625
Q

loa loa microfilariae morphology
size:
nuclei:
sheath:
habitat:

A

250-300 micrometers
continuous up to the tip of the tail
none
subcutaneous tissue

626
Q

causes subcutaneous tissue infections and infections of the conjunctival lining of the eye
most infections occur in africa

A

loa loa

627
Q

loa loa MOT

A

bite of the Chrysops (deer) fly

628
Q

onchocerca volvulus diagnosis

A

tissue or ophthalmic analysis for microfilariae
skin snips or skin shavings (urine)

629
Q

loa loa diagnosis

A

blood smear examination of microfilariae

630
Q

mansonella perstans / dipetalonema perstans: common name

A

persistent filaria

631
Q

mansonella perstans / dipetalonema perstans: intermediate host/vector

A

cullicoides spp
biting midges

632
Q

mansonella perstans / dipetalonema perstans: periodicity

A

non periodic (present both day and night)

633
Q

mansonella perstans / dipetalonema perstans: specimen

A

blood

634
Q

mansonella perstans / dipetalonema perstans: appearance

A

non sheathed

635
Q

mansonella perstans / dipetalonema perstans: tail end

A

nuclei continuous to the tip of the blunt tail

636
Q

mansonella perstans / dipetalonema perstans: habitat

A

body cavities (usually peritoneal and pleural cavity)

637
Q

mansonella ozzardi: common name disease

A

ozzard’s filaria

638
Q

mansonella ozzardi: diseases

A

mansoneliasis
ozzard’s filariasis

639
Q

mansonella perstans / dipetalonem perstans: disease

A

dipetalonemiasis

640
Q

mansonella ozzardi: intermediate host/vector

A

cullicoides spp
biting midges

641
Q

mansonella ozzardi: periodicity

A

non periodic (present both day and night)

642
Q

mansonella ozzardi: specimen

A

blood and skin biopsis

643
Q

mansonella ozzardi: appearance

A

non sheathed

644
Q

mansonella ozzardi: tail end

A

no nuclei on tail
tail is tapering into thin filament

645
Q

mansonella ozzardi: habitat

A

body cavities

646
Q

mansonella streptocerca: disease

A

streptocerca filariasis
dermatitis

647
Q

mansonella streptocerca: intermediate host/vector

A

cullicoides spp
biting midges

647
Q

mansonella streptocerca: periodicity

A

non periodic (present both day and night)

648
Q

mansonella streptocerca: specimen

A

skin snips

649
Q

mansonella streptocerca: appearance

A

non sheathed

650
Q

mansonella streptocerca: tail end

A

nuclei continuous to the tip
relatively straight but strongly bent in “shepherd’s crook curve)

651
Q

mansonella streptocerca: habitat

A

skin and subcutaneous tissues

652
Q
A