microbiology Flashcards
1
Q
Lymphogranuloma venereum is cause by a
A
chlamydia
2
Q
Which of the following is a mode of direct disease transmission?
A
droplet spray
3
Q
Which of the following is most likely to enter the body through the genitourinary tract?
A
syphilis
4
Q
The type of lesion most closely associated with tuberculosis is
A
a tubercle
5
Q
The advantage of using heat for the disinfection of materials over other forms of disinfection, like the use of chemicals, is that heat:
A
penetrates throughout the materials
6
Q
Normal flora bacteria will cause which of the following types of infection?
A
endogenous
7
Q
Ophthalmia neonatorum is an infection caused by a species of bacteria which is a member of the genus
A
Neisseria
8
Q
What body cell is known to perform the process of phagocytosis?
A
a leukocyte
9
Q
A communicable disease that occurs in a community only as an occasional case is termed
A
sporadic
10
Q
Monilia is used synonymously with
A
Candida
11
Q
Which of the following would most likely transmit typhoid fever as a mechanical vector?
A
housefly
12
Q
A communicable disease that attacks a large number of persons in a community at about the same time is termed
A
epidemic
13
Q
What type of viral disease would cause lesions of the skin?
A
dermatropic
14
Q
Puerperal sepsis is commonly referred to as
A
childbed fever
15
Q
What organism causes the condition of lobar pneumonia?
A
Streptococcus pneumoniae
16
Q
Which of the following organisms is an exotoxin producer?
A
Clostridium tetani
17
Q
Select the organism that is classified as a member of the Fungi Kingdom.
A
yeast
18
Q
A visible mass of bacterial growth resulting from the reproduction of a single cell is a
A
colony
19
Q
Where are spores formed?
A
within the cell cytoplasm
20
Q
The disease known as “Ebola” is caused by which of the following types of organisms?
A
virus
21
Q
The portal of entry of Salmonella typhi is
A
mouth
22
Q
The highest temperature at which growth for a species will take place is the
A
maximum temperature
23
Q
Which of these transmit disease by biting the host?
A
biological vectors
24
Q
Rickettsia grow only as
A
parasites
25
Which of these is primarily bacteriostatic in its action?
cold
26
An association of two organisms that is detrimental to one is
antibiosis
27
Which of the following is true of a carrier?
may have never had the disease that is being carried
may have had the disease and recovered
exhibits no symptoms of the disease
28
What is an infection of the blood with actual growth and multiplication of pathogens in the blood?
septicema
29
Bacteria are considered to be
prokaryotic
30
With what disease is rubella identified?
German measles
31
A bacterium which has a high degree of pathogenicity is said to be very
virulent
32
Pertussis is a disease that is commonly called
whooping cough
33
The structures that produce mobility for bacteria cells are the
flagella
34
The lowest temperature at which growth for a species will take place is the
minimum temperature
35
What control process is used to destroy something of no value?
incineration
36
A viral disease affecting only humans is
mumps
37
Which of the chemical agents is described as a coal-tar derivative?
phenol
38
The type of acquired immunity that results from exposure to viral antigen when the virions are modified in a laboratory to be unable to cause disease is:
artificially acquired active
39
What infection occurs in an individual who has no other active infection?
primary
40
What term is defined as the invasion of the body by living microorganisms with subsequent multiplication and disease production?
infection
41
In the terminal disinfection process, the embalmer should consider which of the following qualities of the disinfectant:
readily available
broad spectrum (kills a lot of different kinds of microorganisms)
low toxicity (not so harmful to other materials or tissues)
all of these are important considerations
42
The disinfection process is aimed at:
Destruction of pathogenic agents
43
Which of the following statements is true abut Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
It is always fatal
44
Which mechanical method of sanitation is likely to be used in the practice of mortuary hygiene?
scrubbing
45
The causative agent of typhus fever is a
rickettsia
46
Which of the following requires living cells for growth?
viruses
47
Which one of the following diseases is caused by a spiral-shaped organism?
Syphilis
48
Substances produced by body cells to combat foreign proteins introduced into the living body are called
antibodies
49
What disease is caused by Francisella tularensis?
rabbit fever
50
Which of these is least effective in sterilizing instruments?
free-flowing steam
51
Malaria is caused by a:
protozoa
52
Which of these is an example of pathogenic protozoa?
Entamoeba histolytica
53
What type of immunity is passed from the mother to the fetus?
natural passive immunity
54
Malaria and amoebiasis are caused by
protozoa
55
The organism responsible for the infection epidemic meningitis exit from the host by mean of
droplet spray
56
Which of the following organisms is the causative agent for a venereal disease?
Treponema pallidum
57
A bacterium which has had its virulence reduced is said to be
attenuated
58
All diseases caused by microorganisms are properly referred to as:
infections
59
Streptococcus pyogenes is responsible for the infectious disease
rheumatic fever
60
The type of immunity conferred after birth is called
acquired
61
Vaccines bring about a type of immunity referred to as
active
62
Which of the following is classified as viscerotropic?
hepatitis
63
Diplococci appear
in pairs
64
Which of the following is capable of producing an enterotoxin that will cause food poisoning?
Staphylococcus
65
Why are ultraviolet light rays lethal to bacteria?
they damage the DNA or RNA of the microbe
66
The entrance into a host by means of a deep puncture wound may cause
tetanus
67
The prefix "staphylo" refers to an organism's tendency to
occur in grape-like clusters
q
68
The causative organism for Tetanus is from the Genus:
Clostridium
69
Parrot fever is
transmitted by air
70
Vibrio cholerae are bacteria responsible for the infection called
Asiatic cholera
71
Epidemic typhus bacteria are transmitted by:
lice
72
A mutally advantageous symbiotic relationship between two organisms is
mutualism
73
Which of the following is caused by a member of the genus Staphylococcus?
food poisoning
74
Which of the following is NOT an effective disinfectant?
soap
75
The study of all microscopic life forms is
microbiology
76
Which of the following is an example of a fomite?
coffee cup
77
Which of the following is caused by a Chlamydia?
Psittacosis
78
The word "streptococcus" describes
spherical cells arranged in chains
79
Serum hepatitis has been attributed to
exposure to blood
80
The cytoplasm of the typical eucaryotic cell is separated from the nucleus by the
nuclear membrane
81
Those eukaryotic, true-fungi that reproduce by budding are called
yeasts
82
Which structure functions to protect the organism and to enhance its virulence?
capsule
83
Those bacteria that grow best at a relatively low temperature are
psychrophilic
84
What is the classification for the disease poliomyelitis?
neurotropic
85
A communicable disease that has spread to more than one country may be described as
pandemic
86
A bacterium that prefers dead inorganic material, but can also obtain nourishment from living organic material is classified as:
facultative
87
Hemolysins and leucocidins are classified as
bacterial toxins
88
A poisonous substance produced by a microorganism is
a toxin
89
Which of these is a characteristic of rickettsial organisms?
they are all arthropod-borne
90
An agent which liberates gases or fumes for the purpose of destruction of insects and microorganisms is called
a fumigant
91
Lockjaw is the common name for the disease
tetanus
92
Spherical shaped bacteria that form grape-like clusters are called
staphylococci
93
Local skin abscesses are infections usually caused by the members of the genus
Staphylococcus
94
Which of the following does NOT play a part in the transmission of salmonellosis?
virions
95
Least likely to be a viral disease is
bubonic plague
96
A thin whip-like organelle of bacterial motility is the
flagellum
97
The study of the smallest of the microbes containing any DNA or RNA is called:
virology
98
The causative agent of a disease modified in such a manner that it will no longer cause the disease but will still promote the production of antibodies is a(n)
vaccine
99
Acne. boils. and pus formation on the skin is most commonly caused by
Staphylococcus aureus
100
An infection which has a relatively short and severe course is termed:
acute
101
Antibiotics have thus far been ineffective against most varieties or types of
viruses
102
What type of infection is one in which the causative agent enters the body through one of the portals of entry?
exogenous
103
When having contact with the deceased human body, at the place of death or in the preparation room, the funeral home personnel should always practice:
universal precautions
104
What term refers to the invasion of the body by macroscopic parasites?
Infestation
105
Which of the following is the least effective in the destruction of microbes?
cold temperature
106
A sudden increase in the severity of the symptoms of a disease:
exacerbation
107
With what disease is Varicella Zoster identified?
shingles
108
Microorganisms that can cause a disease only when the host is weakened by another disease or abnormal condition are classified as:
opportunists
109
Inflammation is primarily a
physiological body defense
110
The destruction of all pathogens except bacterial spores is termed:
disinfection
111
The presence of a capsule may affect a bacterium by
increasing virulence
112
Which of these microbes is described as being "comma" shaped?
Vibrio cholera
113
Those bacteria that prefer to live in the presence of free oxygen but can live in its absence are classified as:
facultative
114
Lack of resistance to a specific disease is called
susceptibility
115
Gas gangrene and tissue gas is caused by
Clostridium perfringens
116
The serum derived from an animal that has been immunized to an infectious disease and is used to confer immunity to others. including humans, is called
antiserum
117
What infection occurs as a late complication of another disease and is itself the actual cause of death?
terminal
118
Those microorganisms that do not normally invade the body of the host to produce disease are
normal flora
119
Which of the following substances is most specific in antimicrobial action?
antibodies
120
Rabbit fever is the common name for the disease
tularemia
121
Which disease is NOT dermatropic?
Mumps
122
Which of the following enzymes is often referred to as "the spreading factor"?
hyaluronidase
123
The reduction of surface tension is significant in the disinfection process because it allows for the:
maximum contact with surfaces being disinfected
124
Bacteria usually reproduce by
binary fission
125
Those spore forming bacteria that currently contain spores are called
sporulating
126
The type of immunity that results from the inoculation of a toxoid is
artificially acquired active
127
The size of bacteria is measured in a special unit called
a micrometer
128
Silver nitrate prophylaxis was once used for the control of
ophthalmia neonatorum
129
The temperature at which a species of bacteria grows best is
optimum temperature
130
Histoplasmosis and coccidiodomycosis are caused by
fungi
131
Congenital disease transmission occurs through the
placenta
132
The process of passing a liquid through a material with pores so small that bacteria cannot pass through is
filtration
133
Ultraviolet rays of sunlight
are bactericidal
134
What is a condition in which bacteria are found in the blood but not multiplying there?
bacteremia
135
Which of the following diseases is caused by the organisms responsible for infection entering the body through the parenteral route of infection?
Tetanus
136
Infections caused by members of the genus Salmonella are primarily transmitted by
ingestion
137
Which of the following organisms is capable of forming capsules when living as parasites?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
138
Self digestion of tissue by enzymes of their own formation is called
autolysis
139
Spores are most likely to form when
the conditions for reproduction are not favorable
140
Toxemia, septicemia, and bacteremia are all associated with:
blood
141
Which of the following organisms has a high lipid or wax content of the cell wall?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
142
The destruction of all microorganisms and their products is termed
sterilization
143
In the name Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the first name is the
genus
144
Oral and vaginal thrush are caused by
Candida albicans
145
Which organism is acid fast positive?
Mycobacterium
146
An agent which destroys yeasts and molds is termed a/an
fungicide
147
Which is the following structures interfere most with phagocytosis?
capsules
148
The causative organism in primary atypical pneumonia is:
Mycoplasma
149
Mosquitos have been implicated in the transmission of which of the following types of Hepatitis?
no types of Hepatitis
150
Syphilis is an infection caused by
Treponema pallidum
151
The relationship between two organisms which results in a better condition than either of them could achieve alone is:
symbiosis
152
The type of immunity which is the result of placental transfer of antibodies is called
naturally acquired passive
153
Which of the following is a mechanical body defense?
cilia
154
Which of the following is included in some surface disinfectants as the actual disinfecting chemical?
phenol
155
Viruses have been found to be capable of infecting…
man
animals
insects
156
What type of condition is produced by the application of an antiseptic?
bacteriostatic
157
Molds are
multicellular
158
Which of these statements is descriptive of spirochetes?
they are spiral-shaped microbes which move around a variable axis
159
Which of these bacteria is the cause of the disease whose first sign of infection is a soft chancre?
Treponema pallidum
160
Which of the following diseases is caused by contact with contaminated blood serum?
Hepatitis type B
161
What are poisonous substances produced by bacteria and released only when the bacterial cells die and disintegrate?
endotoxins
162
The process of ingestion of bacteria by leukocytes is
phagocytosis
163
Which of the following diseases is not protected against by the MMR vaccine?
Rocky Mountain Spotted fever
164
Ringworm arises from
a fungal infection
165
The type of immunity that is inherited is called
innate
166
Rabies is also called
hydrophobia
167
Many bacteria possess a thick colorless gelatinous outer covering called a
capsule
168
The same virus that causes the chickenpox will also cause a secondary infection in some individuals. This second infection is known as
shingles
169
The most common mode of transmission for tuberculosis is
droplet
170
Which of those listed below are obligate intracellular parasites?
chlamydia
rickettsia
viruses
171
Which of the following is caused by a rickettsia?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
172
A disease not transmitted from one host to another is
non-communicable
173
Endospore formation is characteristic of
Bacillus anthracis
174
Which of the following is NOT a fungal infection?
Giardiasis
175
Clostridrium perfringens causes
tissue gas
176
Septic sore throat is caused by a:
coccus
177
Spore formation in bacteria is characterized as:
a protective device
178
Attenuation affects a pathogen by
decreasing virulence
179
A virus is a
strict parasite
180
Those bacteria which are spherical in shape are called
cocci
181
Which is NOT a viral disease?
Typhus fever
182
_______________ are poisonous substances produced by bacteria and released into the surrounding medium by the living cells.
exotoxins
183
What infection is one in which microorganisms or their products are spread by the blood or lymph throughout the entire body?
general
184
Protozoa may be classified as
unicellular
185
Which of these is an example of a physiological defense mechanism of the body against infection?
inflammation
186
Which structure contains the material of inheritance?
nucleic acid
187
What is the most common mode of transmission for gonorrhea?
direct contact
188
The inhibition of bacterial growth and reproduction without necessarily destroying the organisms is the result of
an antiseptic
189
Which of the following enzymes causes blood plasma to clot?
coagulase
190
A foreign protein, which when introduced into the body, excites the body cells to produce antibodies against itself, is called a(n)
antigen
191
Which organism causes the disease known as thrush?
Candida
192
Vaccination with cowpox virus will produce an immunity to:
variola
193
In the transmission of the Zika virus, the mosquito is acting as which of the following?
biological vector
194
The portal of entry of Streptococcus pneumoniae is the
nose and mouth
195
Which of the following viruses is most likely transmitted from person to person by unsanitary injection procedures?
Hepatitis B
196
Which of the following is NOT a phenolic compound?
Glutaraldehyde
197
Which of the following is most efficient in destruction of microorganisms?
steam under pressure
198
The disease known as puerperal sepsis occurs in the
female reproductive tract
199
Which of the following is NOT applicable to viruses?
they are autotrophic organisms
200
Dermatomycosis is caused by
Epidermophyton
201
Staphylococcus aureus causes
a nosocomial infection
202
Bacteria that require organic chemical compounds for nourishment are
heterotrophic
203
What is the proper term for smallpox?
variola
204
An infection which is caused by organisms already present in the body is best described as
endogenous
205
Racial immunity is an example of
innate immunity
206
Those bacteria which grow best at temperatures between 30 and 40 degrees Celsius are classified as ___.
mesophilic bacteria
207
Which of the following is classified as pneumotropic?
influenza
208
What term refers to the preference of a pathogen for a particular part of the body?
elective localization
209
What is the implication of sterilization?
to render an object free of all living organisms
210
The autoclave usually generates a temperature of about
121 degrees C
211
What part of the body is affected by encephalitis?
the brain
212
Those bacteria that may be capable of forming spores are called
bacili
213
Which of the following is a quaternary ammonium compound?
Zephiran chloride
214
The spread of microorganisms from host to host by food, milk and water is what mode of transmission?
indirect contact
215
The causative agent of the infection called septic sore throat is
Streptococcus pyogenes
216
What type of bacteria grows best between temperatures of30 degrees celsius and 40 degrees celsius?
Mesophilic
217
Yersinia pestis causes
plague
218
Those organisms which reproduce by budding are:
yeasts
219
According to the humoral theory of immunity, antigen binds to ___ as part of that response.
antibody
220
What type of substance is secreted by a living cell that can bring about chemical changes in another substance without undergoing any substantive change themselves?
enzymes
221
A communicable disease which is constantly present to a greater or lesser degree within a community is termed
endemic
222
pH is a method for measurement of
alkalinity
223
A term that may be used to describe the presence of true pathogens on inanimate objects is
contamination
224
German measles are more correctly known as
rubella
225
Tuberculosis is an example of a
bacterial disease
226
Which of these is the causative agent of dysentery?
Entamoeba histolytica
227
A virus which causes fever blisters or cold sores is
Herpes simplex virus
228
Which of these statements best describes a pathogen?
an organism capable of producing disease in susceptible host
229
If an insect transmits a pathogen from an animal to a human. The insect is acting as the ________________ in the transmission of this disease.
vector
230
To disinfect a reusable body-bag or cot pouch, the embalmer should use:
1:9 bleach to water solution
231
What term is defined as the degree of the ability of a microorganism to cause disease?
virulence
232
What infection is one caused by two or more different organisms at about the same time?
mixed
233
What type of pathogens cause disease under most conditions?
true pathogens
234
Endospore formation is characteristic of the member of the genus
Clostridium
235
The Kingdom which includes single cell organisms which are classified by their type of motility: pseudopodia, cilia, or flagella, is:
Protista
236
What infection is one which occurs in an individual who already has an infection of another type?
secondary
237
The most often diagnosed viral infection is
the common cold
238
What type of virus would have an affinity for the liver?
viscerotropic
239
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of viruses?
they are obligate saprophytes
240
Chlamydia psittaci causes
parrot fever
241
An organism that can utilize inorganic matter as food is called
autotropic
242
Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by
Rickettsia rickettsii
243
Which of the following substances produced by bacterial cells will destroy red blood cells?
hemolysin
244
Antibodies that inactivate invading bacterial cells by causing the cells to form clumps are called
agglutinins
245
The common cold is transmitted by
droplet spray
246
What type of infection spreads from one spot of infection to cause other spots of infection in the body?
focal
247
An inflammation of the middle ear caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae is
otitis media
248
A highly developed state of resistance to a specific disease is called
immunity
