Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

flashcards for nbe > microbiology > Flashcards

microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum is cause by a

A

chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is a mode of direct disease transmission?

A

droplet spray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is most likely to enter the body through the genitourinary tract?

A

syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The type of lesion most closely associated with tuberculosis is

A

a tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The advantage of using heat for the disinfection of materials over other forms of disinfection, like the use of chemicals, is that heat:

A

penetrates throughout the materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Normal flora bacteria will cause which of the following types of infection?

A

endogenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ophthalmia neonatorum is an infection caused by a species of bacteria which is a member of the genus

A

Neisseria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What body cell is known to perform the process of phagocytosis?

A

a leukocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A communicable disease that occurs in a community only as an occasional case is termed

A

sporadic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Monilia is used synonymously with

A

Candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following would most likely transmit typhoid fever as a mechanical vector?

A

housefly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A communicable disease that attacks a large number of persons in a community at about the same time is termed

A

epidemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of viral disease would cause lesions of the skin?

A

dermatropic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Puerperal sepsis is commonly referred to as

A

childbed fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What organism causes the condition of lobar pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following organisms is an exotoxin producer?

A

Clostridium tetani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Select the organism that is classified as a member of the Fungi Kingdom.

A

yeast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A visible mass of bacterial growth resulting from the reproduction of a single cell is a

A

colony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where are spores formed?

A

within the cell cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The disease known as “Ebola” is caused by which of the following types of organisms?

A

virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The portal of entry of Salmonella typhi is

A

mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The highest temperature at which growth for a species will take place is the

A

maximum temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of these transmit disease by biting the host?

A

biological vectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Rickettsia grow only as

A

parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of these is primarily bacteriostatic in its action?

A

cold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

An association of two organisms that is detrimental to one is

A

antibiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following is true of a carrier?

A

may have never had the disease that is being carried
may have had the disease and recovered
exhibits no symptoms of the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is an infection of the blood with actual growth and multiplication of pathogens in the blood?

A

septicema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Bacteria are considered to be

A

prokaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

With what disease is rubella identified?

A

German measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A bacterium which has a high degree of pathogenicity is said to be very

A

virulent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Pertussis is a disease that is commonly called

A

whooping cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The structures that produce mobility for bacteria cells are the

A

flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The lowest temperature at which growth for a species will take place is the

A

minimum temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What control process is used to destroy something of no value?

A

incineration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A viral disease affecting only humans is

A

mumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the chemical agents is described as a coal-tar derivative?

A

phenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The type of acquired immunity that results from exposure to viral antigen when the virions are modified in a laboratory to be unable to cause disease is:

A

artificially acquired active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What infection occurs in an individual who has no other active infection?

A

primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What term is defined as the invasion of the body by living microorganisms with subsequent multiplication and disease production?

A

infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

In the terminal disinfection process, the embalmer should consider which of the following qualities of the disinfectant:

A

readily available
broad spectrum (kills a lot of different kinds of microorganisms)
low toxicity (not so harmful to other materials or tissues)
all of these are important considerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The disinfection process is aimed at:

A

Destruction of pathogenic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following statements is true abut Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

A

It is always fatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which mechanical method of sanitation is likely to be used in the practice of mortuary hygiene?

A

scrubbing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The causative agent of typhus fever is a

A

rickettsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which of the following requires living cells for growth?

A

viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which one of the following diseases is caused by a spiral-shaped organism?

A

Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Substances produced by body cells to combat foreign proteins introduced into the living body are called

A

antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What disease is caused by Francisella tularensis?

A

rabbit fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which of these is least effective in sterilizing instruments?

A

free-flowing steam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Malaria is caused by a:

A

protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of these is an example of pathogenic protozoa?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What type of immunity is passed from the mother to the fetus?

A

natural passive immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Malaria and amoebiasis are caused by

A

protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The organism responsible for the infection epidemic meningitis exit from the host by mean of

A

droplet spray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which of the following organisms is the causative agent for a venereal disease?

A

Treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A bacterium which has had its virulence reduced is said to be

A

attenuated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

All diseases caused by microorganisms are properly referred to as:

A

infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes is responsible for the infectious disease

A

rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The type of immunity conferred after birth is called

A

acquired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Vaccines bring about a type of immunity referred to as

A

active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which of the following is classified as viscerotropic?

A

hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Diplococci appear

A

in pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which of the following is capable of producing an enterotoxin that will cause food poisoning?

A

Staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Why are ultraviolet light rays lethal to bacteria?

A

they damage the DNA or RNA of the microbe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The entrance into a host by means of a deep puncture wound may cause

A

tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The prefix “staphylo” refers to an organism’s tendency to

A

occur in grape-like clusters
q

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The causative organism for Tetanus is from the Genus:

A

Clostridium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Parrot fever is

A

transmitted by air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Vibrio cholerae are bacteria responsible for the infection called

A

Asiatic cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Epidemic typhus bacteria are transmitted by:

A

lice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

A mutally advantageous symbiotic relationship between two organisms is

A

mutualism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which of the following is caused by a member of the genus Staphylococcus?

A

food poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which of the following is NOT an effective disinfectant?

A

soap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The study of all microscopic life forms is

A

microbiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which of the following is an example of a fomite?

A

coffee cup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which of the following is caused by a Chlamydia?

A

Psittacosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The word “streptococcus” describes

A

spherical cells arranged in chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Serum hepatitis has been attributed to

A

exposure to blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The cytoplasm of the typical eucaryotic cell is separated from the nucleus by the

A

nuclear membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Those eukaryotic, true-fungi that reproduce by budding are called

A

yeasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which structure functions to protect the organism and to enhance its virulence?

A

capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Those bacteria that grow best at a relatively low temperature are

A

psychrophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the classification for the disease poliomyelitis?

A

neurotropic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

A communicable disease that has spread to more than one country may be described as

A

pandemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

A bacterium that prefers dead inorganic material, but can also obtain nourishment from living organic material is classified as:

A

facultative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Hemolysins and leucocidins are classified as

A

bacterial toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

A poisonous substance produced by a microorganism is

A

a toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Which of these is a characteristic of rickettsial organisms?

A

they are all arthropod-borne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

An agent which liberates gases or fumes for the purpose of destruction of insects and microorganisms is called

A

a fumigant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Lockjaw is the common name for the disease

A

tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Spherical shaped bacteria that form grape-like clusters are called

A

staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Local skin abscesses are infections usually caused by the members of the genus

A

Staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Which of the following does NOT play a part in the transmission of salmonellosis?

A

virions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Least likely to be a viral disease is

A

bubonic plague

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

A thin whip-like organelle of bacterial motility is the

A

flagellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The study of the smallest of the microbes containing any DNA or RNA is called:

A

virology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

The causative agent of a disease modified in such a manner that it will no longer cause the disease but will still promote the production of antibodies is a(n)

A

vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Acne. boils. and pus formation on the skin is most commonly caused by

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

An infection which has a relatively short and severe course is termed:

A

acute

101
Q

Antibiotics have thus far been ineffective against most varieties or types of

A

viruses

102
Q

What type of infection is one in which the causative agent enters the body through one of the portals of entry?

A

exogenous

103
Q

When having contact with the deceased human body, at the place of death or in the preparation room, the funeral home personnel should always practice:

A

universal precautions

104
Q

What term refers to the invasion of the body by macroscopic parasites?

A

Infestation

105
Q

Which of the following is the least effective in the destruction of microbes?

A

cold temperature

106
Q

A sudden increase in the severity of the symptoms of a disease:

A

exacerbation

107
Q

With what disease is Varicella Zoster identified?

A

shingles

108
Q

Microorganisms that can cause a disease only when the host is weakened by another disease or abnormal condition are classified as:

A

opportunists

109
Q

Inflammation is primarily a

A

physiological body defense

110
Q

The destruction of all pathogens except bacterial spores is termed:

A

disinfection

111
Q

The presence of a capsule may affect a bacterium by

A

increasing virulence

112
Q

Which of these microbes is described as being “comma” shaped?

A

Vibrio cholera

113
Q

Those bacteria that prefer to live in the presence of free oxygen but can live in its absence are classified as:

A

facultative

114
Q

Lack of resistance to a specific disease is called

A

susceptibility

115
Q

Gas gangrene and tissue gas is caused by

A

Clostridium perfringens

116
Q

The serum derived from an animal that has been immunized to an infectious disease and is used to confer immunity to others. including humans, is called

A

antiserum

117
Q

What infection occurs as a late complication of another disease and is itself the actual cause of death?

A

terminal

118
Q

Those microorganisms that do not normally invade the body of the host to produce disease are

A

normal flora

119
Q

Which of the following substances is most specific in antimicrobial action?

A

antibodies

120
Q

Rabbit fever is the common name for the disease

A

tularemia

121
Q

Which disease is NOT dermatropic?

A

Mumps

122
Q

Which of the following enzymes is often referred to as “the spreading factor”?

A

hyaluronidase

123
Q

The reduction of surface tension is significant in the disinfection process because it allows for the:

A

maximum contact with surfaces being disinfected

124
Q

Bacteria usually reproduce by

A

binary fission

125
Q

Those spore forming bacteria that currently contain spores are called

A

sporulating

126
Q

The type of immunity that results from the inoculation of a toxoid is

A

artificially acquired active

127
Q

The size of bacteria is measured in a special unit called

A

a micrometer

128
Q

Silver nitrate prophylaxis was once used for the control of

A

ophthalmia neonatorum

129
Q

The temperature at which a species of bacteria grows best is

A

optimum temperature

130
Q

Histoplasmosis and coccidiodomycosis are caused by

A

fungi

131
Q

Congenital disease transmission occurs through the

A

placenta

132
Q

The process of passing a liquid through a material with pores so small that bacteria cannot pass through is

A

filtration

133
Q

Ultraviolet rays of sunlight

A

are bactericidal

134
Q

What is a condition in which bacteria are found in the blood but not multiplying there?

A

bacteremia

135
Q

Which of the following diseases is caused by the organisms responsible for infection entering the body through the parenteral route of infection?

A

Tetanus

136
Q

Infections caused by members of the genus Salmonella are primarily transmitted by

A

ingestion

137
Q

Which of the following organisms is capable of forming capsules when living as parasites?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

138
Q

Self digestion of tissue by enzymes of their own formation is called

A

autolysis

139
Q

Spores are most likely to form when

A

the conditions for reproduction are not favorable

140
Q

Toxemia, septicemia, and bacteremia are all associated with:

A

blood

141
Q

Which of the following organisms has a high lipid or wax content of the cell wall?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

142
Q

The destruction of all microorganisms and their products is termed

A

sterilization

143
Q

In the name Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the first name is the

A

genus

144
Q

Oral and vaginal thrush are caused by

A

Candida albicans

145
Q

Which organism is acid fast positive?

A

Mycobacterium

146
Q

An agent which destroys yeasts and molds is termed a/an

A

fungicide

147
Q

Which is the following structures interfere most with phagocytosis?

A

capsules

148
Q

The causative organism in primary atypical pneumonia is:

A

Mycoplasma

149
Q

Mosquitos have been implicated in the transmission of which of the following types of Hepatitis?

A

no types of Hepatitis

150
Q

Syphilis is an infection caused by

A

Treponema pallidum

151
Q

The relationship between two organisms which results in a better condition than either of them could achieve alone is:

A

symbiosis

152
Q

The type of immunity which is the result of placental transfer of antibodies is called

A

naturally acquired passive

153
Q

Which of the following is a mechanical body defense?

A

cilia

154
Q

Which of the following is included in some surface disinfectants as the actual disinfecting chemical?

A

phenol

155
Q

Viruses have been found to be capable of infecting…

A

man
animals
insects

156
Q

What type of condition is produced by the application of an antiseptic?

A

bacteriostatic

157
Q

Molds are

A

multicellular

158
Q

Which of these statements is descriptive of spirochetes?

A

they are spiral-shaped microbes which move around a variable axis

159
Q

Which of these bacteria is the cause of the disease whose first sign of infection is a soft chancre?

A

Treponema pallidum

160
Q

Which of the following diseases is caused by contact with contaminated blood serum?

A

Hepatitis type B

161
Q

What are poisonous substances produced by bacteria and released only when the bacterial cells die and disintegrate?

A

endotoxins

162
Q

The process of ingestion of bacteria by leukocytes is

A

phagocytosis

163
Q

Which of the following diseases is not protected against by the MMR vaccine?

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

164
Q

Ringworm arises from

A

a fungal infection

165
Q

The type of immunity that is inherited is called

A

innate

166
Q

Rabies is also called

A

hydrophobia

167
Q

Many bacteria possess a thick colorless gelatinous outer covering called a

A

capsule

168
Q

The same virus that causes the chickenpox will also cause a secondary infection in some individuals. This second infection is known as

A

shingles

169
Q

The most common mode of transmission for tuberculosis is

A

droplet

170
Q

Which of those listed below are obligate intracellular parasites?

A

chlamydia
rickettsia
viruses

171
Q

Which of the following is caused by a rickettsia?

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

172
Q

A disease not transmitted from one host to another is

A

non-communicable

173
Q

Endospore formation is characteristic of

A

Bacillus anthracis

174
Q

Which of the following is NOT a fungal infection?

A

Giardiasis

175
Q

Clostridrium perfringens causes

A

tissue gas

176
Q

Septic sore throat is caused by a:

A

coccus

177
Q

Spore formation in bacteria is characterized as:

A

a protective device

178
Q

Attenuation affects a pathogen by

A

decreasing virulence

179
Q

A virus is a

A

strict parasite

180
Q

Those bacteria which are spherical in shape are called

A

cocci

181
Q

Which is NOT a viral disease?

A

Typhus fever

182
Q

_______________ are poisonous substances produced by bacteria and released into the surrounding medium by the living cells.

A

exotoxins

183
Q

What infection is one in which microorganisms or their products are spread by the blood or lymph throughout the entire body?

A

general

184
Q

Protozoa may be classified as

A

unicellular

185
Q

Which of these is an example of a physiological defense mechanism of the body against infection?

A

inflammation

186
Q

Which structure contains the material of inheritance?

A

nucleic acid

187
Q

What is the most common mode of transmission for gonorrhea?

A

direct contact

188
Q

The inhibition of bacterial growth and reproduction without necessarily destroying the organisms is the result of

A

an antiseptic

189
Q

Which of the following enzymes causes blood plasma to clot?

A

coagulase

190
Q

A foreign protein, which when introduced into the body, excites the body cells to produce antibodies against itself, is called a(n)

A

antigen

191
Q

Which organism causes the disease known as thrush?

A

Candida

192
Q

Vaccination with cowpox virus will produce an immunity to:

A

variola

193
Q

In the transmission of the Zika virus, the mosquito is acting as which of the following?

A

biological vector

194
Q

The portal of entry of Streptococcus pneumoniae is the

A

nose and mouth

195
Q

Which of the following viruses is most likely transmitted from person to person by unsanitary injection procedures?

A

Hepatitis B

196
Q

Which of the following is NOT a phenolic compound?

A

Glutaraldehyde

197
Q

Which of the following is most efficient in destruction of microorganisms?

A

steam under pressure

198
Q

The disease known as puerperal sepsis occurs in the

A

female reproductive tract

199
Q

Which of the following is NOT applicable to viruses?

A

they are autotrophic organisms

200
Q

Dermatomycosis is caused by

A

Epidermophyton

201
Q

Staphylococcus aureus causes

A

a nosocomial infection

202
Q

Bacteria that require organic chemical compounds for nourishment are

A

heterotrophic

203
Q

What is the proper term for smallpox?

A

variola

204
Q

An infection which is caused by organisms already present in the body is best described as

A

endogenous

205
Q

Racial immunity is an example of

A

innate immunity

206
Q

Those bacteria which grow best at temperatures between 30 and 40 degrees Celsius are classified as ___.

A

mesophilic bacteria

207
Q

Which of the following is classified as pneumotropic?

A

influenza

208
Q

What term refers to the preference of a pathogen for a particular part of the body?

A

elective localization

209
Q

What is the implication of sterilization?

A

to render an object free of all living organisms

210
Q

The autoclave usually generates a temperature of about

A

121 degrees C

211
Q

What part of the body is affected by encephalitis?

A

the brain

212
Q

Those bacteria that may be capable of forming spores are called

A

bacili

213
Q

Which of the following is a quaternary ammonium compound?

A

Zephiran chloride

214
Q

The spread of microorganisms from host to host by food, milk and water is what mode of transmission?

A

indirect contact

215
Q

The causative agent of the infection called septic sore throat is

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

216
Q

What type of bacteria grows best between temperatures of30 degrees celsius and 40 degrees celsius?

A

Mesophilic

217
Q

Yersinia pestis causes

A

plague

218
Q

Those organisms which reproduce by budding are:

A

yeasts

219
Q

According to the humoral theory of immunity, antigen binds to ___ as part of that response.

A

antibody

220
Q

What type of substance is secreted by a living cell that can bring about chemical changes in another substance without undergoing any substantive change themselves?

A

enzymes

221
Q

A communicable disease which is constantly present to a greater or lesser degree within a community is termed

A

endemic

222
Q

pH is a method for measurement of

A

alkalinity

223
Q

A term that may be used to describe the presence of true pathogens on inanimate objects is

A

contamination

224
Q

German measles are more correctly known as

A

rubella

225
Q

Tuberculosis is an example of a

A

bacterial disease

226
Q

Which of these is the causative agent of dysentery?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

227
Q

A virus which causes fever blisters or cold sores is

A

Herpes simplex virus

228
Q

Which of these statements best describes a pathogen?

A

an organism capable of producing disease in susceptible host

229
Q

If an insect transmits a pathogen from an animal to a human. The insect is acting as the ________________ in the transmission of this disease.

A

vector

230
Q

To disinfect a reusable body-bag or cot pouch, the embalmer should use:

A

1:9 bleach to water solution

231
Q

What term is defined as the degree of the ability of a microorganism to cause disease?

A

virulence

232
Q

What infection is one caused by two or more different organisms at about the same time?

A

mixed

233
Q

What type of pathogens cause disease under most conditions?

A

true pathogens

234
Q

Endospore formation is characteristic of the member of the genus

A

Clostridium

235
Q

The Kingdom which includes single cell organisms which are classified by their type of motility: pseudopodia, cilia, or flagella, is:

A

Protista

236
Q

What infection is one which occurs in an individual who already has an infection of another type?

A

secondary

237
Q

The most often diagnosed viral infection is

A

the common cold

238
Q

What type of virus would have an affinity for the liver?

A

viscerotropic

239
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of viruses?

A

they are obligate saprophytes

240
Q

Chlamydia psittaci causes

A

parrot fever

241
Q

An organism that can utilize inorganic matter as food is called

A

autotropic

242
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

243
Q

Which of the following substances produced by bacterial cells will destroy red blood cells?

A

hemolysin

244
Q

Antibodies that inactivate invading bacterial cells by causing the cells to form clumps are called

A

agglutinins

245
Q

The common cold is transmitted by

A

droplet spray

246
Q

What type of infection spreads from one spot of infection to cause other spots of infection in the body?

A

focal

247
Q

An inflammation of the middle ear caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae is

A

otitis media

248
Q

A highly developed state of resistance to a specific disease is called

A

immunity

flashcards for nbe (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions