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Next Generation Exam 2 > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

High estrogen/progesterone predisposes to infection. (choose one)

A

Progesterone

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2
Q

Why are UTIs more common in females than males?

A

Males have a long urethra that protects against retrograde infections of prostate

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3
Q

What is balanoposthitis?

A

Inflammation of the penis and/or prepuce

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4
Q

Which bacteria can cause balanoposthitis? 3 answers

A

Corynebacterium renale (most common), also Trueperella pyogenes +/- Mycoplasma spp.

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5
Q

What is the gram reaction and morphology of C. renale?

A

Gram positive rods

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6
Q

Where do C. renale normally live? (source of infection)

A

Commensal on genital tract of carrier males; also skin and mucous membranes

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7
Q

What is the disease called that C. renale causes?

A

Pizzle rot in sheep

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8
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Pizzle Rot in sheep?

A

Increased protein in diet -> increased urea in urine -> C. renale produces urease which breaks down urea to ammonia -> ammonia causes irritation of skin of preputial opening +/- penis -> C. renale invades damaged epithelium & causes ulcerative lesions

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9
Q

What is the most common route of infection for orchitis? What about epididymitis?

A

Orchitis = mostly hematogenous

Epididymitis = mostly ascending from urogenital tract (esp. younger animals)

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10
Q

What species is most commonly affected by orchitis/epididymitis?

A

Rams

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11
Q

What are the most common bacteria associated with orchitis & epididymitis? 3 answers.

A

Brucella spp., Actinobacillus seminis, & Histophilus somni in young rams

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12
Q

Which bacteria can cause prostatitis in dogs? (Hint: same ones that cause cystitis) 4 answers

A
  1. Staphylococcus pseudintermedius (most common)
  2. E. coli (& Proteus, Klebsiella)
  3. B-hemolytic Streptococcus (S. canis)
  4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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13
Q

What is the best way to correctly diagnose prostatitis in dogs? (Besides using ultrasound)

A

Submit prostatic tissue samples (FNA or biopsy) for cytology and/or culture

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14
Q

What is the treatment of choice for prostatitis in dogs?

A

Fluoroquinolones or TMS for long period of time

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15
Q

In which species does seminal vesiculitis and which bacteria are most commonly involved?

A

Bulls; Trueperella pyogenes & Leptospira hardjo (host-adapted to cattle)

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16
Q

What disease is the most common cause of inflammatory cells detected during semen examination of bulls?

A

Seminal vesiculitis

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17
Q

In what species and what time is endometritis most significant?

A

Mares; post-mating

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18
Q

What is the most common isolate associated with endometritis in mares?

A

Strep equi ss zooepidemicus

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19
Q

What are the best methods for diagnosing endometritis in mares?

A

Guarded swab or biopsy

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20
Q

What is metritis?

A

Inflammation of the entire wall of the uterus

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21
Q

What is the most common pathogen involved in pyometra in cattle?

A

Trueperella pyogenes

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22
Q

How do you diagnose pyometra in cows?

A

Metricheck device

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23
Q

What age & stage of the estrous cycle does pyometra usually occur in dogs?

A

Middle aged to older bitches during diestrus

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24
Q

What pathology of the uterus in the bitch may be occurring concurrently with the pyometra?

A

Cystic Endometrial Hyperplasia (CEH)

25
Q

What is the most common pathogen causing pyometra in dogs?

A

E. coli

26
Q

What is the best method for diagnosing pyometra in bitches?

A

FNA of surgical sample

27
Q

Why do some dogs with pyometra present as being pu/pd?

A

E. coli endotoxin interferes with action of ADH on renal tubules -> medullary washout & isosthenuria

28
Q

What is the preferred method for diagnosing Brucella canis in dogs?

A

Culture of blood and/or semen; better to have 3 negative cultures before ruling out due to intermittent shedding

29
Q

What is the only Brucella species that is not zoonotic? Which animal species does it infect?

A

B. ovis; sheep only

30
Q

Which species is most commonly infected by Brucella abortis?

A

Cattle

31
Q

Which species are most commonly infected by Brucella melitensis?

A

Sheep and goats

32
Q

Which species is most commonly infected by Brucella suis?

A

Pigs

33
Q

How are Brucella transmitted? 2 answers

A

Primarily via direct contact with infected/carrier animals and fomites (contaminated feed/water).

34
Q

What are the 4 routes of infection of Brucella spp?

A

Ingestion (milk/licking placenta or genitalia), exposure of mucosal surfaces, venereal (intermittent shedding by males), & congenital

35
Q

Which pathogen is a gram negative rod (coccobacilli), strict aerobe, oxidase positive, and is phagocytosed by macrophages before being taken to regional lymph nodes and disseminated hematogenously?

A

Brucella spp.

36
Q

Brucella proliferate best in cells with high levels of what? (Hint: these cells are in the placenta)

A

Erythritol

37
Q

How long can Brucella be shed for after abortion?

A

Up to 6 weeks post abortion

38
Q

What 3 specific diseases does Brucella abortus cause?

A
  1. Abortion in cows
  2. Epididymitis & orchitis in bulls
  3. Fistulous withers & poll evil in horses
39
Q

Are Brucella spp. more likley to cause abortion in early or late gestation?

A

Late gestation

40
Q

What specific diseases does Brucella canis cause in dogs? (Multiple answers, do your best)

A
  1. Canine abortion (>50 d.), infertility in bitches & sick pups
  2. Epididymitis, sperm abnormalities, & infertility in dogs
  3. Systemic dissemination common -> prostatitis, meningoencephalitis, diskospondylitis, etc.)
41
Q

What specific diseases does Brucella suis cause in pigs? 3 answers

A
  1. Abortion in sows
  2. Epididymitis & orchitis in boars
  3. Disseminated infections (spondylitis, arthritis, etc.; more common than B. abortus)
42
Q

What specific diseases does Brucella ovis cause in sheep? 3 answers

A
  1. Mostly epididymitis in rams
  2. Abortion in ewes (rare & late term)
  3. Decreased flock fertility rates
43
Q

What species is the most severe of the zoonotic Brucella infections?

A

Brucella melitensis

44
Q

What species is the most severe of the zoonotic Brucella infections?

A

Brucella melitensis (esp. problem w/ goat cheese in Mexico & SW U.S.)

45
Q

T/F: Brucellosis is a notifiable disease (except B. canis; although varies by state).

A

True

46
Q

How are Brucella infections treated in ruminants & pigs?

A

Tx not allowed; Policy of test & slaughter b/c difficult to tx

47
Q

How are Brucella infections treated in ruminants & pigs?

A

Tx not allowed; Policy of test & slaughter b/c difficult to treat

48
Q

How are Brucella infections treated in dogs?

A

Combination therapy of high dose Doxycycline & Enrofloxacin for multiple courses; also recommended to spay/castrate dog too

49
Q

Leptospira is most likely to cause abortion in cattle in early or late stage gestation?

A

Late gestation (7-8 months)

50
Q

What 2 campylobacter spp. cause reproductive tract disorders in sheep & goats?

A
  1. C. jejuni
  2. C. fetus ssp. fetus
51
Q

What is the most common Campylobacter species causing reproductive tract disorders in cattle?

A

C. fetus ssp. venerealis

52
Q

What is the primary mode of transmission of C. jejuni & C. fetus ssp. fetus in sheep & goats? (sometimes cattle)

A

Ingestion by feco-oral route or may invade through GIT & cause septicemia w/ subsequent localization in repro tract

53
Q

What is the primary mode of transmission of C. fetus ssp. venerealis in cattle?

A

Bulls to cows during breeding or by AI (less common)

54
Q

How is Campylobacter fetus ssp. venerealis diagnosed?

A

Culture or PCR

55
Q

T/F: C. fetus ssp. venerealis is carried in male repro tract and bulls are often asymptomatic.

A

True

56
Q

What 2 specific diseases does Campylobacter fetus ssp. venerealis cause in cattle?

A

Infertility & sporadic abortion

57
Q

What specific disease does Campylobacter fetus ssp. fetus cause primarily in sheep and less commonly in goats, cattle, & pigs?

A

Abortion (can also see placentitis)

58
Q

What 2 specific diseases does Listeria monocytogenes cause in ruminants?

A

Late-term abortion & neonatal septicemia;

May see “milk spots” on liver

Next Generation Exam 2 (2 decks)

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