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Phase 2a > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Immediate antibiotic for suspected meningitis?

A

Benzylpenicillin.

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2
Q

Beta-haemolytic gram-positive strep, Lancefield group A?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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3
Q

Antibiotic for pregnant woman with UTI?

A

Nitrofurantoin (but not in third trimester).

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4
Q

What nutrient agar is used to grow mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Lowenstein-Jensen

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5
Q

C. diff microbiology characteristics?

A
  • anaerobic
  • gram positive
  • rods
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6
Q

Pseudomonas microbiology characteristics?

A
  • aerobic
  • rod
  • non-lactose fermenting
  • positive oxidase test
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7
Q

Proteus microbiology characteristics?

A
  • facultatively anaerobic
  • non-lactose fermenting
  • negative oxidase test
  • gram-negative rod
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8
Q

Salmonella microbiology characteristics?

A
  • gram-negative rod
  • facultatively anaerobic
  • non-lactose fermenting
  • negative oxidase test
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9
Q

Shigella microbiology characteristics?

A
  • gram-negative rod
  • facultatively anaerobic
  • non-lactose fermenting
  • negative oxidase test
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10
Q

Most common cause of infective endocarditis in adults?

A
  1. Staph aureus
  2. Strep viridans
  3. Coagulate negative staph
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11
Q

Strep viridans microbiology?

A

Optochin resistant alpha-haemolytic streptococcus.

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12
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae microbiology?

A

Optochin sensitive alpha-haemolytic streptococcus.

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13
Q

Test used to distinguish between staphylococcus and streptococcus?

A

Catalase

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14
Q

Gram positive diplococcus causing meningitis?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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15
Q

Gram negative diplococcus causing meningitis?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

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16
Q

Gram negative bacilli?

A
  • E. coli
  • campylobacter
  • pseudomonas
  • salmonella
  • shigella
  • proteus
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17
Q

Gram negative cocci?

A
  • neisseria

- moraxella (catarrhalis)

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18
Q

Gram positive cocci?

A
  • staphylococci
  • streptococci
  • enterococci
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19
Q

Gram positive bacilli?

A
  • bacillus anthracis
  • corynebacterium diphtheriae
  • listeria monocytogenes
  • clostridium
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20
Q

Intracellular bacteria?

A
  • coxiella
  • chlamydia
  • rickettsia
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21
Q

Are the standard staphylococci / streptococci aerobic or anaerobic?

A

Aerobic

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22
Q

Coagulase positive staph?

A

Staph aureus

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23
Q

Coagulase negative staph?

A

Staph epidermidis

Staph saprophyticus

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24
Q

Alpha haemolytic strep?

A
  • s. pneumoniae

- viridans strep

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25
Beta haemolytic strep?
s. pyogenes
26
Group A strep?
s. pyogenes
27
Which gram positive bacilli are aerobic?
- corynebacterium diphtheriae - listeria monocytogenes - bacillus anthracis
28
Which gram positive bacilli are anaerobic?
Clostridium
29
How can aerobic gram negative bacilli be sub-classified?
- lactose fermenters | - non-fermenters
30
Are gram negative bacilli mostly aerobic or anaerobic?
Aerobic
31
Lactose fermenters?
- E. coli | - klebsiella
32
Non-fermenters?
- salmonella - shigella - proteus - pseudomonas
33
Other aerobic gram negative bacilli?
- campylobacter - helicobacter - legionella - haemophilus
34
Stain for mycobacteria?
Ziehl-Neelsen
35
How to distinguish pseudomonas from other gram negative aerobic bacilli (non-lactose fermenting)?
Oxidase test - pseudomonas is oxidase positive.
36
Agar for lactose fermentation?
MacConkey
37
Most common pathogens causing CAP?
1. strep pneumoniae | 2. haemophilus influenzae
38
What is chocolate agar?
Blood agar with haemolysed RBCs.
39
How is legionella tested for?
Urine antigen test.
40
What does acid-fast mean?
Bacilli are red stained on Ziehl-Neelsen stain, even after washing with acid and alcohol.
41
Bacterial causes of infection / colonisers in COPD?
- s. pneumoniae - h. influenzae - moraxella catarrhalis
42
Viral causes of infection in COPD?
- respiratory syncytial virus - influenza - rhinovirus - seasonal coronaviruses
43
Cause of bronchiectasis?
Severe bacterial infection - whooping cough (bordatella pertussis), TB.
44
Colonising organisms in bronchiectasis?
- h. influenzae - s. pneumoniae - m. catarrhalis - pseudomonas
45
Predominant colonising organism in neonates / infants with CF?
Staph aureus
46
Predominant colonising organism in infants / children with CF?
Haemophilus influenzae
47
Predominant colonising organism in older children and adults with CF?
Pseudomonas
48
Bacterial responsible for 'culture negative' endocarditis?
- coxiella burnetii | - chlamydia psittaci
49
Most common cause of IE in IVDU?
Staph aureus
50
Most common organism found in IE blood cultures?
1. Staph aureus 2. Strep viridans 3. Staph epidermidis / staph saprophyticus.
51
Cause of IE found in the oral cavity?
Viridans strep
52
Source of coagulase negative staph in IE?
Contamination of IV lines.
53
Criteria for IE diagnosis?
Modified Duke's criteria
54
Criteria for 'definite' IE?
- 2 major - 1 major, 3 minor - 5 minor
55
Major criteria for IE?
- positive blood culture with typical organism | - new valve regurgitation / dehiscence of prosthetic valve
56
Minor criteria for IE?
- fever > 38 - IVDU - prosthetic valve - positive blood culture not meeting major criteria
57
Bacterial causes of diarrhoea?
- e. coli - vibrio cholerae - shigella dysenteriae - salmonella - campylobacter - bacillus cereus
58
Bacterial causes of antibiotic-associated diarrhoea?
Clostridium difficile
59
Viral causes of diarrhoea?
- rotavirus | - norovirus
60
Protozoal causes of diarrhoea?
- cryptosporidium | - giardia lamblia
61
Source of salmonella (not typhi)?
- hens' eggs | - poultry
62
Source of salmonella typhi?
- canned meat - shellfish Uncommon in the UK.
63
Source of e.coli 0157?
Raw or partially cooked ground beef.
64
Source of campylobacter?
Undercooked chicken.
65
H. pylori gram stain appearance?
Gram negative spiral bacillus.
66
Test for H. pylori?
Urea breath test.
67
Source of bacillus cereus?
Rice
68
Common infective organisms in cellulitis?
- group A beta haemolytic strep (s. pyogenes) | - staph aureus
69
When are atypical infective organisms seen in cellulitis?
- IVDU | - immunocompromised
70
Microbial cause of skin abscess?
Staph aureus
71
Microbial cause of lung abscess?
- staph aureus - klebsiella pneumoniae - mycobacterium tuberculosis
72
Microbial cause of liver abscess?
- e. coli
73
Microbial cause of kidney abscess?
- e. coli | - klebsiella
74
Common organisms causing UTI?
- e. coli - proteus mirabilis - klebsiella - staphylococcus saprophyticus - staphylococcus epidermidis - enterococci
75
Causes of UTI?
- sexual intercourse - catheterisation - enlarged prostate - renal tract tumours - renal stones
76
Investigations for UTI?
Mid stream urine - microscopy, sensitivity and culture.
77
Bacterial causes of meningitis in neonates?
- e. coli - group B strep (strep agalactiae) - listeria monocytogenes
78
Bacterial causes of meningitis in infants?
- neisseria meningitidis - haemophilus influenzae - strep pneumoniae
79
Bacterial causes of meningitis in young adults?
- neisseria meningitidis | - strep pneumoniae
80
Bacterial causes of meningitis in the elderly?
- strep pneumoniae - neisseria meningitidis - listeria monocytogenes
81
Viral causes of meningitis?
- enteroviruses (Coxsackie virus) - herpes simplex virus - mumps virus
82
Is encephalitis normally viral or bacterial?
Viral
83
Organisms causing encephalitis?
- herpes simplex virus - varicella zoster virus - HIV - mumps virus - measles virus
84
What agar does neisseria meningitidis grow on?
Chocolate agar
85
Macroscopic appearance of staph aureus?
Gold, round colonies
86
What grows on blood agar?
Streptococcus
87
What is CLED agar used for?
- proteus (stops motile proteus swarming) | - lactose status
88
What is XLD agar used for?
Salmonella and shigella.
89
Atypical causes of CAP?
- mycoplasma pneumoniae - chlamydophila pneumoniae - legionella pneumophila
90
Treatment of CAP?
- oral amoxicillin | - IV co-amoxiclav (if unwell)
91
Treatment of HAP?
Guided by microbiology - often IV co-amoxiclav and gentamicin.
92
What are the 4 Cs associated with C. diff infection?
- clindamycin - cephalosporins - co-amoxiclav - ciprofloxacin
93
What does C. diff infection lead to?
- pseudomembranous colitis - toxic megacolon - perforation and death
94
Treatment of C. diff infection?
Discontinue inciting antibiotic, and start vancomycin.
95
Which gram negative rods are oxidase positive?
- pseudomonas aeruginosa | - haemophilus influenzae
96
Most common organism causing UTI?
E. coli
97
Common cause of UTI in young women?
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
98
Treatment of UTI in pregnant women at term?
- amoxicillin (if culture results available and sensitive) | - cefalexin
99
Which two classes of antibiotics inhibit cell wall synthesis?
- glycopeptides | - beta lactams
100
Examples of glycopeptide antibiotics?
- vancomycin | - teicoplanin
101
Sub-categories of beta lactam antibiotics?
- penicillins - cephalosporins - carbapenems
102
Examples of penicillins?
- benzylpenicillin - amoxicillin - flucloxacillin
103
Examples of cephalosporins?
- cefotaxime | - ceftriaxone
104
Examples of carbapenems?
- meropenem
105
Which antibiotic classes inhibit protein synthesis?
- macrolides - tetracyclines - aminoglycosides Also chloramphenicol (not a class).
106
Examples of macrolides?
- clarithromycin | - erythromycin
107
Examples of tetracyclines?
Doxycycline
108
Examples of aminoglycosides?
- gentamicin | - streptomycin
109
Which antibiotics inhibit nucleic acid synthesis?
- trimethoprim - ciprofloxacin (fluoroquinolone) - rifampicin - metronidazole
110
Agar used for sensitivity testing?
Mueller-Hinton agar.
111
Common antibiotic resistance mechanisms?
- beta-lactamase | - efflux pumps (pseudomonas aeruginosa)
112
Why is MRSA resistant to flucloxacillin?
- mecA gene - encodes a unique transpeptidase not inhibited by beta lactam antibiotics - can continue peptidoglycan crosslinking
113
Fungi cell wall composition?
Chitin and glucan.
114
How do treatments for fungal infections work?
- target cell wall / plasma membrane | - not very effective
115
Example of antifungals?
- fluconazole - ketoconazole - clotrimazole - terbinafine
116
What does candida albicans cause?
- vaginal infections - oral infections - sepsis - line / catheter infections
117
What does aspergillus fumigatus cause?
Lung infections
118
Two examples of pathogenic fungi?
- candida albicans | - aspergillus fumigatus
119
Definition of a virus?
Infectious, obligate intracellular parasite. | Comprises genetic material surrounded by a protein coat or membrane.
120
Example of dsDNA virus?
- herpes viruses | - adenovirus
121
Example of ssDNA virus?
- HPV | - parvovirus
122
Example of dsRNA virus?
Rotavirus
123
Example of ssRNA positive sense virus?
- hep A, C, E | - polio
124
Example of ssRNA negative sense virus?
- hep D - influenza - measles - rabies
125
Example of ssRNA virus with reverse transcriptase?
HIV
126
Example of dsDNA virus with reverse transcriptase?
Hepatitis B
127
Which hepatitis viruses can lead to chronic infection?
- hep B - hep C - hep D (only with hep B)
128
Vector for malaria?
Anopheles mosquito
129
Clinical implication of the distinguishing gram positive and gram negative bacteria?
Affects choice of antibiotics. Gram positive bacteria cell wall is easier to penetrate so they are susceptible to more antibiotics than gram negative bacteria.
130
What is MRSA resistant to?
- beta lactams - gentamicin - tetracycline - erythromycin
131
Treatment for thread worms?
Mebendazole
132
Five properties of a virus?
- genetic material is DNA or RNA - attachment proteins - intracellular parasite, require host cell for survival & replication - carry enzymes that function within host cells - viruses have a protein coat surrounding their genetic material, and may also have a lipid envelope (no cell wall)
133
How can viruses cause disease?
- trigger an overactive immune response resulting in inflammation - directly kill host cells - cause abnormal host cell functioning - evade intra- and extra-cellular immune system - viral proliferation
134
Most common cause of fungal nail infection?
Trichophyton species
135
How do antibiotics work?
Binding to a specific target site, crucial to bacteria survival (site varies between classes).
136
Clinical situations requiring HIV test?
- recurrent candida infection - recurrent infection - atypical pneumonia (pneumocystis jiroveci) - suspected Kaposi sarcoma (abnormal skin lesions)

Phase 2a (10 decks)

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