Microbial Genetics Flashcards

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1
Q

What is Genetics? What does this subject comprise of?

A

Genetics: the science of heredity
-includes the study of genes
-what genes are
-How they carry information
-How genes replicate and are passed to subsequent generations of cells or other organisms
-How gene expression determines an organisms characteristics
-regulation of gene expression
-gene mutation and prepare
-DNA recombination

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2
Q

What is a gene?

A

Gene: a segment of DNA or RNA that encodes for a polypeptide or RNA chain that has a function in the organism

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3
Q

Which organisms have RNA genes?

A

some Bacteriophages and Viruses

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4
Q

Name 6 RNA products that are expressed in either prokaryotic or eukaryotic microbes and describe their function

REVIEW

A

RNA Products:
1. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA); forms part of ribosomes and catalyzes protein synthesis in ribosome ; translates mRNA into protein
2. Transfer RNA (tRNA); aka as adaptor molecule that is link between mRNA and amino acids sequence. They carry amino acids to ribosome based on mRNA nucleotide sequence (try matching codon with amino acid)
-translate genetic code into proteins
3. SnRNAs (small nuclear RNAs; associate with proteins into complex called Snrnps (small nuclear ribonucleotide proteins; form splicesome complex) and involved in SPLICING.
4. SnoRNAS Small Nucleolar mRNAs); proteins that associate with Nucleolus: they are Guide RNAs to modify Ribosomal RNAs (rRNAs).
5. MiRNAs (microRNAS; regulatory function
6. SRNAs (small RNAs; regulatory RNAs )

Expressed only in eukaryotic: miRNAs, snRNAs
Expressed only in Prokaryotic: SnoRNAs,
Both: rRNAs and tRNAs, sRNAs

(SIDE NOTE: mRNA is NOT Final product, since it will be converted to protein (it is an intermediate)

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5
Q

What are riboszymes?

A

Ribozymes: RNAS that possess catalytic activity

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6
Q

What is a genome?

A

Genome: ALL the genetic information in a cell

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7
Q

What is genomics?

A

Genomics: The study of Genomes -Sequencing and study of all the nucleotide sequences including structural genes, regulatory sequences and noncoding DNA segments

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8
Q

What is a chromosome?

A

Chromosome: the structure that carries ESSENTIAL hereditary information

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9
Q

Does Bacterial chromosome= bacterial genome?
REVIEW THIS

A

No bacterial chromosome does not equal bacterial genome, because bacteria can have chromosome and plasmids

bacterial genome: chromsome + plasmid)

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10
Q

What does genome refer to?

A

Genome refers to the total DNA and RNA of organism.

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11
Q

What are the components of the bacterial genome and what are its features?

A

Bacterial Genome:
A. Chromosome
1. Most species have ONE CIRCULAR double-stranded DNA chromosome
2. Sizes range from 500-6000 kb
( humans—3.3 million kb- 600 fold increase than bacteria) (5,000 genes vs 21,000)
-hence humans have a lot of DNA and large genes (while bacteria is compacted; not a lot of space)
3. bacterial genome is Looped, folded and attached at one or several points on plasma membrane within nucleoid (folded by supercoiling by DNA gyrase)
4. Carries all Essential genes of the organism.
B. Plasmids
1. Autonomously replicating extrachromosomal DNA
2. Sizes range from 1-300 Kb (1-5% of the genome)
3. **
Contain genes that are conditional. NOT necessary for day to day survival but required under certain conditions **

Ex. Resistance, virulence, metabolic pathways (degrading and synthesizing) , bacteriocins, and plasmid transfer genes
-Also carry transposons

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12
Q

What percentage of cell volume makes up E. coli chromosomal DNA? How long is E.coli DNA stretched out.

A

E. coli chromosomal DNA is COMPACTED to 10% of the cell’s volume
(if you stretched E.coli chromosomal DNA it would be 1 mm long (2um) This 1 mm long DNA is compacted to 10% cell volume.

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13
Q

How can Plasmids be classified? What are the different types of plasmids?

A

Plasmids can be classified by FUNCTION
types of plasmids
1. Conjugative Plasmid
2. Dissimilation Plasmids
3. R factors/plasmids

(also have virulence plasmids and bacteriocin plasmid)

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14
Q

What is a conjugative plasmid?

A

Conjugative plasmid: carries genes necessary for Transfer of plasmid (by conjugation) to another cell

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15
Q

What is Dissimilation plasmids? What are examples?

A

Dissimilation Plasmids: Encode enzymes for catabolism of Unusual compounds
-prevalent in some species;
Pseudomonas known to degrade unusual compounds like (Toluene, camphor, and petroleum hydrocarbons)
-Ti plasmids that encode genes to catabolize opines

TI plasmids: (infect plants cells, and transfer potion of plasmid into plant, trigger plants to produce opines and have enzymes that degrade opines for energy )

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16
Q

WWhat are R factors/Plasmids ?
REVIEW

A

R factors/Plasmids: Encode resistance to antibiotics, heavy metals, bacteriophages and often….
-carry multiple resistance genes (r-determinants)
-are Conjugative (resistance transfer factor, RTF)
(allows them to transfer resistance gene to another organism)

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17
Q

What Is an example of a conjugative plasmid and what are its features?

A

Resistant plasmid R100 (a conjugative plasmid)
- Resistance Transfer Factor (RTF): all the genes necessary for transfer
R- determinants: all resistance genes
has resistance for mercury (heavy metal), sulfonamide, streptomycin, chloram-phenicol)

Other structures in plasmid:
(had origin of replication, origin of transfer, Plus and conjugation proteins)

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18
Q

What kind of other unique structures does R100 have?

A

Plasmid R100 has insertion elements and transposons

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19
Q

What are other functional plasmid groups and what are their structures and functions? How are bacteriocins namd? Provide examples

A

Other functional Plasmid groups:
1. Virulence plasmids: encode for proteins that enhance pathogenicity of the bacteria
- they allow attachment to host cells
- express toxins (exfoliative toxin (S.aureus) and neurotoxins (C. tetani)
2. Bacteriocin plasmids: encode for bacteriocins (ribosome synthesized peptides that kill closely related bacterial species or even different strains off the same species
- SOME are named after the species its produced by adding “cin” to the species or genus of the bacteria
(ex: Staphylococcus epidermis produces staphylococcin)
(Escherichia coli produces** colicin)
(
**Lactococcus lactic produces NISIN) (unique naming)

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20
Q

What is the difference between bacteriocins and antibiotics?

A

Bacteriocins (polypeptides) are produced by ribosomes and most of them inhibit closely related organisms.

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21
Q

What is a Genotype?

A

genotype: The genetic makeup of organism/ an organism’s collection of genes

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22
Q

What are the basics of bacterial and Archaea genetic Nomenclature?

A

Basics of bacterial and Archaea Genetic Nomenclature:
All bacteria and Archaea use the same rules
-Genes are assigned a 3-letter designation (pathway, cell structure, function or mutant phenotype)
-written in lower case and italicized
-Different genes affecting the same pathway are distinguished by Capital letters (ex: fadA, fadB, fadD; 3 enzymes in pathway to degrade fatty acids)
-Each different mutant is assigned a unique allele number (ex: lacZ19)
-

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23
Q

What is an example of E.coli genotype? How do you know what genotype is about?

A

E.coli genotype
most people name strains based on initials or order generate organism. If you known about physiology of organism, can make guesses of what it means.
MC1061 (name of strain) , araD139 (arabinose D); degradation of arabinose
Delta (araA-leu)7696
galE15 (galactose)
galK16
lacZ74 (lac operon)
rpsL50 (ribosomal protein
hsdR2 (host species defense; function)
argF2 (gene involved in biosynthesis pathway)

**When you write genotype, write names of mutants (defective genes) **
-all mutant alleles have numbers at the end.

Genes are Not listed in the genotype are assumed wild type
other examples:
pilc (synthesis of piling)
lamb (lambadresistant: phenotype)

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24
Q

What is a phenotype ?Describe it more in detail.

A

Phenotype: the external manifestations of an organism genotype (the observable properties of an organism)
-phenotypes consist of 3-letter symbols, these are NOT italicized, and first letter of symbol is capitalized
when writing symbol for phenotype:
+ indicates a functional phenotype
- indicates Nonfunctional.
Bio- cannot make biotin (but is required as supplement to minimal medium)
,Arg- or Met- ; means it cannot make Arg or Met (but they are required as supplement to minimal medium)
if you have Lac- : you cannot utilize lactose as carbon source
if Gal- : you cannot utilize Galactose as a carbon source
-if there is a r in Str^r it means it is Resistant to antibiotic streptomycin
-if there is a s in Str^s, it means you are Sensitive to antibiotic streptomycin

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25
Q

Describe the components of a Genetic map of the chromosome of E.coli. What are ORF?s What are short tandem repeats and what do they contain? What do the numbers represent in the genetic map?

REVIEW

A

Genetic Map of the Chromosome of E.coli
1. ORFs: Open reading frame in DNA sequence that lacks termination codons and so can potentially translate as a polypeptide chain
The entire genome does NOT consist of back to back genes (there are DNA between genes that do not code for anything)
2. Short Tandem Repeats (STRs)
-Short DNA sequences (usually 2-5 base pairs) that are repeated numerous times in a head-tail manner.
They are important for use in DNA fingerprinting ( bacterial and humans)
The repeats will be same, but number of repeats will be different.

-The polymorphisms in STRs are due to the different number of copies of the repeat element that can occur in a population
The numbers on the genetic map (0-100) represent Conjugation minutes

(in eukaryotes, introns throw you off in open reading frame; so to help with issue, make CDNA)

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26
Q

Describe the DNA structure and its components

A

DNA structure
-Polymer of nucleotides: Adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine
-Double helix
-“Backbone is deoxyribose-phosphate
-Strands are held together by hydrogen bonds between AT and CG
-Strands are antiparallel

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27
Q

How would you modify the figure to represent dsRNA (double stranded) ?

A

Get rid of thiamine, replace with Uracil; ADD hydroxyl (OH) group here (to make ribose sugar; 2 OHs)

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28
Q

What is the order of Transcription? What does this mean?

A

Transcription goes from 5’ to 3’
5’ refers to phosphate and 3’ refers to OH on sugar.
always extend 5’ to 3’

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29
Q

What occurs in semiconservative replication ?

A

Semiconservative Replication
-1) The double helix of the parental DNA separates as weak hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides on opposite strands break in response to action of replication enzymes
2) Hydrogen bonds form between new complementary nucleotides and each strand of the parental template to form new base pairs
3) Enzymes catalyze the formation of sugar-phosphate bonds between sequential nucleotides on each resulting daughter strand

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30
Q

How does DNA replicate? Explain how.

A

DNA replicates semi conservativiely.
Strand opens up,
new nucleotides that complement prexisting nucleotides of template come in and form double bonds
enzymes link sugar phosphates together.
before known that DNA replication was semiconservative, it was thought replication was Conserative (1 parent made intact, entirely new double stranded molecule) or Dispersive model

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31
Q

Discuss the differences between semiconservative, conservative and dispersive model. Who were the ones that discovered DNA replication was semiconservative?

A

Semi conservative model : produces 2 helices in which each helix contains one New strand and One Old (parental ) strand
Conservative Model : produces 2 helices in which one helix contains entirely OLD DNA and other helix contains entirely NEW DNA.
Dispersive model: produces 2 helices in which each strand contains alternating segments of Old and New DNA
-Messelson and Stahl discovered DNA replication was semi-conservative

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32
Q

What is the role of DNA polymerase, DNTPs, and nucleoside in DNA Synthesis?

A

DNA Synthesis
-DNA Polymerases only add new DNTPs to the 3’ end
-Energy is supplied from phosphates of DNTP’s (deoxynucleoside triphosphate)
-When a nucleotide triphosphate bonds to the sugar, it loses two phosphates.
-Hydrolysis of the phosphate bonds provides the energy for the reaction

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33
Q

Differentiate between nucleoside and nucleotide

A

nucleoside: Base and sugar
Nucleotide: base, sugar and phosphate (either 1, 2 or 3 phosphates)

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34
Q

What is the process of DNA synthesis and what structures are included ? What is the rate of error for E.coli DNA polymerase? What further reduces error.

A

DNA Synthesis:
DNA is copied by the DNA polymerase
-in the 5’ –> 3’ direction
-Leading strand is synthesized continuously
-Lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously (Okazaki fragments) and initiated by an RNA primer
-RNA primers are removed by a DNA polymerase and Okazaki fragments joined by DNA ligase
-Overall error rate of E.coli DNA polymerase is low (10^-5) then further reduced to a 10^-9 bases due by PROOFREADING

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35
Q

List out the steps of DNA synthesis ?

A

Steps of DNA Synthesis :
1) Enzymes unwind the parental double helix
2) Proteins bind stabilize the unwound parental DNA (single stranded binding proteins ; ssbps)
3) The leading strand is synthesized continuously by DNA polymerase
4) The lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously. Primase, an RNA polymerase, synthesizes short RNA primer, which is then extended by DNA polymerase
5) DNA polymerase digests RNA primer and replaces it with DNA polymerase
6) DNA ligase joins the discontinuous fragments of the lagging strand

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36
Q

Discuss the important enzymes in DNA replication and their functions

A

Important enzymes in DNA Replication, Expression and Repair:
1. DNA Gyrase: relaxes supercoiling ahead of replication fork; (Generates (-) supercoils)
2. **DNA Ligase: makes covalent bonds to JOIN DNA strains; Okazaki fragments and new segments in excision repair
3. **DNA polymerases: Synthesize DNA; proofread and facilitate repair of DNA
4. Endonucleases: Cut DNA backbone in a strand of DNA; facilitate repair and insertions
5. **Helicase: Unwinds double stranded DNA
6. Methlyase: adds methyl group to selected bases in newly made DNA
7. Photlyase: uses visible light energy to separate UV-induced pyrimidine dimers
8. **Primase: An RNA polymerase that makes RNA primers from a DNA template
9. Ribozyme: RNAs that possess catalytic activity (can catalyze chemical reaction)
10. **RNA Polymerase: Copies RNA from a DNA template
11. SnRNP: RNA protein complex that removes introns and splices exons together
12. Topoisomerase or Gyrase: Relaxes superocoild ahead of replication fork; Separates DNA circles at the end of DNA replication
13. Transposase: Cuts DNA backbone, leaving a single-stranded “sticky ends”

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37
Q

How are DNA Gyrase and Topoisomerase similar and different ?

A

BOTH DNA Gyrase and Topoisomerase RELAX Supercoiling
TYPE I Topoisomerase; that RELAXES supercoiling and cuts ONE DNA strand .
-DNA Gyrase is like a form of type II Topoisomerase that RELAXES supercoiling (NEGATIVE Supercoiling) and REDUCES supercoiling. It cuts TWO strands of DNA

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38
Q

Are any of the enzymes listed above) prokaryotic or eukaryotic specific?

A

Yes, DNA Gyrase is Prokaryotic specific: only bacteria
snRNPS; (small nuclear ribonucleotides proteins) are only eukaryotic

(the rest of enzymes are found in both)

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39
Q

Describe the E.coli DNA replication process? How many origins of replication and replication forks are there? What separates the two loops in replication?

How long does it take bacterium E. coli chromosome to replicate? Vs Doubling time?

A

E.coli DNA replication is BIDIRECTIONAL
it has **single origin of replication*
Process:
The replication initiates at origin of replication and Polymerase moves in 2 different directions (bidirectional)
-2 replication forks that will continue until you have gone all around chromosome and separate two loops with Topoisomerase
Then, two genomes get attached to cell membrane at opposite poles, so that when cell divides you segregate chromosomes into different cells
After duplication, each copy of the origin binds to the membrane at OPPOSITE POLES
bacterium E.coli requires 40 minutes to finish replication time for chromosome
-but the doubling time of organism is as fast as 20 minutes
(2 replication forks, one continuous side, other side discontinuous)

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40
Q

Explain how it Is possible for E. coli chromosome replication to be 40 mins but the doubling time to be as fast as 20 minutes.

A

because when organism initiates replication every 20 minutes; after first initiation starts at origin of replication, it makes a complete genome every 20 minutes.
It initates a new set every 20 mins, so hence completes another chromosome every 20 minutes (1 is halfway done)

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41
Q

What occurs in Bacterial Transcription? When does transcription start and stop?

A

Bacterial Transcription:
-DNA is transcribed to make RNA(mRNA, tRNA, rRNA, etc)
-Transcription begins when RNA polymerase binds to the PROMOTER sequence
-Transcription proceeds in the 5’ to 3’ direction
-Trancription stops when it reaches a TERMINATOR sequence

(RNA polymerase is bound to DNA)

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42
Q

Describe the process of transcription in Prokaryotes. What are the steps and components involved?

A

Process of Transcription in Prokaryotes:
1) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter, and DNA unwinds at the beginning of a gene
2) RNA is synthesized by complementary base pairing of free nucleotides with the nucleotides bases on the template strand of DNA
3) The site of synthesis moves along DNA; the DNA that has been transcribed rewinds.
4) Transcription reaches the terminator
5) RNA and RNA polymerase are released the DNA helix re-forms.

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43
Q

Compare and contarast Prokaryotic vs Eukaryotic RNA Polymerases

A

Prokaryotic RNA polymerases: single polymerase with 1 transcriptional factor (sigma factor that regulates the polymerase)
Eukaryotic RNA polymerases: 3 types of RNA polymerases, and lots of transcription factors

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44
Q

Compare and contrast Bacterial Rho dependent vs Rho Independent Termination

A

Bacterial Rho dependent Termination : Nucleotide sequences are recognized by Rho protein, which bind sequence and cause polymerase to come off
Rho independent Termination: sequence dependent; NO proteins involved in sequence. When RNA is made, it will form stem loop structure.
Stem is G-C rich (strong stem ) and stem loop is followed by a string of U’s (uracils) causing polymerase to fall off

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45
Q

What occurs in mRNA transcription and processing in Eukaryotes? What are the steps?
What further Eukaryotic mRNA modification are NOT shown?

A

mRNA Transcription and Processing in Eukaryotes:
1. In the nucleus, a gene composed of exons and introns is transcribed to RNA by RNA polymerase
2. Processing involves snRNPS (small nuclear ribonuclear proteins) in the nucleus to Remove the Intron-derived RNA and Splice together the Exon-derived RNA into mRNA
3) After further modification, the mature mRNA travels to the cytoplasm, where it directs protein synthesis
Further Eukaryotic mRNA modifications Not shown:
-5’ Methyl guanosine Cap at 5’end (beginning of sequence)
-Poly A tail added at end of sequence

Introns are removed in the nucleus before mRNA gets transported out of the cytosol (where translation occurs)

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46
Q

What occurs in translation? When does it start and end?

A

Translation (process of converting mRNA into protein)
-mRNA is translated into CODONS (three nucleotides)
-Translation of mRNA begins at the START codon: AUG
-Translation Ends at NONSENSE Codons; UAA, UAG, UGA

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47
Q

Describe the genetic code and it’s components. What structure carries the anticodon?

A

The Genetic Code
-61 sense codons on mRNA encode the 20 amino acids
(total of 64 codons; if include 3 nonsense/stop codons)
-The genetic code is DEGENERATE (several codons can code for same amino acid)
EXCEPT AUG (Methionine) has 1 codon
-tRNA carries the complimentary ANTICODON
(anticodon is the trinucleotide sequence that is complementary to codon in mRNA)
tRNA charged with Amino acid to match mRNA

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48
Q

What is purpose of Degeneracy in Genetic Code? What does the start codon encode for in bacteria?

A

Degeneracy enables SILENT Mutations (if change the last codon ,you still have same amino acid)
ex; Serine has 4 different codons that code for same aa (can change 2 of nucleotides in codon)
-in bacteria, the start codon encodes for N-formylmethionine
(specific tRNA carries N-formylmethionine )

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49
Q

What is Codon bias?

A

Codon Bias: The probability that a given codon will be used to code for an amino acid over a different codon ,which codes for the same amino acid.

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50
Q

Do all bacterial proteins in the cell contain N-formylmethioniine was the first amino acid? Explain why or why not

A

NO, because most of them (start codons: Nformlymethioine) become processed and removed. Although they start with the codon that encodes for N-fomylmethionine, they have enzymes that will remove it

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51
Q

What are the necessary components for the initiation of translation?

A

Necessary components for initating translation:
- 2 ribosomal subunits (large and small_
-tRNA,
-Anticodon (charged with amino acids)
-Methionine (start codon)
mRNA

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52
Q

How is the correct AUG start codon recognized in prokaryotes vs Eukaryotes?

A

Recognize correct AUG (start) codon:
in Prokaryotes,
In Eukaryotes, Uses SCANNING Model: Cap (at 5’ end) is recognized by the ribosome and when it binds to the ribosome, it scans it for the first AUG.
( CAP protects 5’ end and is needed for ribosomes to translate )

In prokaryotes, use Shine Dalgarno Sequence. Upstream of correct AUG, a few nucleotides up, there is a short sequence called shine Dalgarno. This sequence is complementary to sequence in ribosomal RNA, which allows Ribosome to recognize where it should start.

(shine dalgarno sequence matches sequence in ribosome, to align it and be translated.)

prokaryotes have Shine dalgarno sequence allow ribosome to align with AUGs, also have operon: 3 different start codons and 3 different stop codons

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53
Q

What is an operon?

A

Operon: group of genes that are under control of single operator. Multiple genes on a single RNA transcript
(operons are bacteria specific)
(eukaryotes doe NOT have operons; since they cannot internally load)

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54
Q

Describe the steps of translation? When is the only time amino acid is in her favorite o

A

Translation
1. On the ribosome, when ribosome binds DNA, there are three sites, E site (Exit) P site (peptidyl) and A site (Aminoacyl)
2. When you first initiate translation , the first tRNA goes to the P site (only time get amino acid in P site is at initiaton of translation) (subsequently tRNA goes to A site). So have start codon (formylmethioine in bacteria) and next tRNA
3) Another tRNA goes to A site (carrying Leucine) , peptide bond formed between Methionine and leucine
4) methionine will then be released from tRNA and ribosome will move along mRNA in 5’ to 3’ causing tRNA (that had start codon) to move to exit site and tRNA carrying leucine (attached to Met) to P site.
Also another tRNA carrying with another anticodon (that codes for GGU) another Amino acid (glycine) will enter A site. –Transfer leucine to glycine to form peptide bond
5) 3 tRNAS in the E (Aug start codon), P site (leucine with Methionine attached) and A site (Glycine). This process keeps going (growing polypeptide chain) on until reach end of gene. Then, Nothing enters A site because of STOP codon and polypeptide is released from tRNA.
6) Ribosome comes off and new protein is made.

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55
Q

How are the processes of transcription and translation in prokaryotes?

A

In Prokaryotes, transcription and translation are COUPLED
(RNA polymerase (catalyzing transcription) and Ribosome (catalyze translation) can bind to same RNA transcript
As soon as polymerase starts making mRNA, polymerase transcribes
as soon As AUG code in shine dalgarno sequence are exposed, they are bound by ribosome and start translating before whole mRNA is made
As soon as Ribosome moves past AUG , and moves farther down transcript and Aug is exposed again another ribosome will bind hence Polycistronic ( mRNA that encodes for multiple different protein products)
Transcription and translation occur at the same time (they are coupled)

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56
Q

Why aren’t these processes (transcription and translation ) coupled in eukaryotes?

A

Transcription and translation are NOT coupled in Eukaryotes.
This is because in eukaryotes, Transcription occurs in Nucleus; mRNA is processed in multiple different ways
only when mRNA is fully processed, its exported to cytosol for translation .
Hence translation and transcription cannot occur at the same time in eukaryotes.

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57
Q

Describe the genes that are involved in transcriptional control of bacteria. Explain the role of Constitutive, Repressible, and inducible genes. what is Catabolite repression?

A

Transcriptional control in bacteria
-Constitutive genes (60-80%) are expressed at a FIXED rate (not regulated in any way; expressed at same level)
-Other genes are expressed only as needed
-Repressible genes: transcription rate decreased by a regulator protein called a repressor. Default position is ON
-Catabolite repression: the INHIBITION of synthesis of alternative catabolic enzymes by a preferred carbon source (ex; glucose)
(if you already have glucose, you shut off transcription of other enzymes, since glucose is preferred)
Inducible genes: transcription rate Increases by a regulatory proton called an Inducer. Default position is OFF.
(protein binds promotor and increases transcription rate)

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58
Q

Discuss the negative and positive regulation that occur in the lac operon

A

Lac Operon has both negative and positive regulation
structure:
*I region is the repressor. It is NOT regulated and has its own promoter
*The operon genes for lac operon: ZYA is expressed from a single promoter and has operator
operator: a sequence that a repressor binds

(control region structural genes: PO ZYA)
-P is promoter
-O is Operator

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59
Q

What occurs in Negative regulation of the lac operon?

A

Negative regulation of the Lac operon:
The repressor mRNA is produced and converted to protein. That repressor binds the operator sequence and prevent RNA polymerase from moving forward and hence BLOCKING transcription
Repressor Active, Operon OFF

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60
Q

What occurs in the Induction of the lac operon? What are the enzymes used for this process?

A

Induction of Lac operon:
A small molecule called Allolactose (inducer) binds to repressor, it will cause lac operon to come off
-Allolactose: disaccharide, similar compound to lactose that is generated when you bring lactose into the cell.
(lactose itself does not affect repressor)
beta galactosidase : enzyme that cleaves disaccharide to glucose and galactose. It cleaves a beta bond between the two sugars
Repressor Inactive, Operon still OFF
permease : transport enzyme that brings in lactose
Transacetylase; enzyme that puts acetyl group on lactose
lactose: disaccharide of glucose and galactose
If you have lactose around, you can use enzymes to degrade lactose.
operon is still off, since you need something for RNA polymerase to bind.

Just removing repressor does not turn on operon (need activator)

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61
Q

How do you turn on the Operon?

A

To turn on Operon:
1. you have to remove repressor
2. activate repressor

62
Q

What occurs in Catabolite Repression?
What two carbon sources are used and how does this affect cells.? Which one is preferred and used up first? What happens when you combine the sources together?

A

Catabolite Repression:
the growth of cells on two different carbon sources; Lactose and glucose
-The growth is FASTER if give cell Glucose, hence it is the preferred carbon source.
if you mix lactose and glucose together, you find RAPID growth initially, until all of the glucose is used up. Then you have a lag time, and the lactose gets used.
*You do not turn on lactose operon and use lactose until you have used up all of glucose

63
Q

What are the two conditions that must be met to turn on lactose operon?

A

To turn on Lactose operon:
1. You must have lactose
2. You do NOT have glucose

64
Q

What occurs during positive regulation of the lac operon?

A

Positive regulation of the lac operon
when have Lactose and glucose present;
Remove the Repressor, BUT RNA polymerase CANNOT bind, because you need Catabolite Activator Protein (CAP) to be active. Under these conditions, CAP is NOT active, so polymerase does not bind and have no products

Lactose present, NO glucose: CAP binds the promoter and facilitates loading of the RNA Polymerase. Now you do NOT have repressor and polymerase can transcribe, make products.
(Active CAP), inactive lac repressor)

65
Q

What must occur to activate transcription? How do you activate CAP (Catabolite Activator Protein)? How are cAMP levels controlled?

A

To activate transcription:
1. Activator must be present
2. NO repressor
You activate CAP by producing cyclic AMP (cAMP)
Glucose induces expression or activation adenylate cyclase. The more adenylate cyclase you have, the more cAMP you have
cAMP is a coactivator.
The more adenylate cyclase you have (made by glucose), the more cAMP
The more glucose, LESS cAMP.
(hence cAMP is indirectly proportional to glucose)

66
Q

Describe and predict what will happen to operon and will be bound to promoter region if there is presence of glucose and lactose; presence of glucose, absent of lactose; absence of both glucose and lactose; absence of glucose and presence of lactose

A
  1. Presence of Glucose and presence of lactose: Operon is OFF, because CAP is Not Bound (also have no repressor)
    (CAP not bound since glucose is present )
  2. Presence of glucose, absence of lactose: Operon is OFF both because Lac repressor is BOUND and because CAP is NOT bound
    (lac repressor bound, since no lactose present)
  3. Absence of Both glucose and Lactose:
    Operon is OFF because lac repressor is bound
    (since glucose is not present, CAP is bound)
  4. Absence of glucose; presence of lactose:
    *OPERON is ON
    ( becuase CAP is bound, allowing RNA polymerase to bind to promoter and start transcription)
    (also, Lac repressor is not bound since, lactose is present)
    -
67
Q

What occurs in the the Trp Operon? What happens to the repressor?

A

The Trp Operon: synthesizes Tryptophan
-It is normally an INACTIVE Repressor
Repressor inactive, Operon on
if you do not have tryptophan, the repressor is inactive and operon is on (allow biosynthesis of tryptophan)
.

68
Q

What occurs during Negative Regulation of the Trp Operon?

A

Negative Regulation of the Trp operon
-if Repressor is active, operon is OFF
this occurs if you have tryptophan, you activate repressor and shut off biosynthesis of tryptophan (prevent production of tryptophan)
-Tryptophan is a co-repressor, since the presence of tryptophan will allow it to bind to repressor protein and activate it. This activation will then turn OFF operon and shut off biosynthesis of tryptophan

69
Q

Explain the mechanisms of transactional regulation in bacteria. What are the components and how does each mechanism differ? What are examples?

A

Mechanisms of transcriptional regulation in bacteria
You have activators and repressors that are regulated by a small LIGAND
lac repressor: Allolactose is the ligand that regulates its binding
Trp operon: ligand is tryptophan
-CAP is regulated by cAMP

70
Q

Explain the different mechanisms used for both Negative and positive regulation in bacteria.

A

Negative Regulation (bound repressor protein Prevents protein transcription)
- Usually a bound repressor protein to promoter will turn gene off. However, if you ADD a ligand to repressor protein, it will switch gene ON, by removing the repressor protein
- Also, a repressor protein that is bound to ligand and attached to promoter can turn gene off. However, if you REMOVE ligand from repressor protein, it can switch gene ON, by removing repressor protein.

Positive Regulation (Bound Activator protein Promotes transcription)
-a bound activator protein to promoter region usually allows RNA polymerase to bind and turn gene on. However, when ADD a ligand you switch gene OFF, by removing activator protein
- Also, if you have a activator protein with ligand bond to gene , it allows RNA polymerase to bind to promoter region and turn gene on. However, if you remove ligand, it switches gene OFF, by removing activator protein

71
Q

Explain how it is possible for some bacterial transcriptional regulator to recognize the same sequence but activate one gene and repress the other

A

it depends on the PLACEMENT of the PROMOTER.
- When the protein binds near promoter region, it can recruit polymerase to bind.
Hence, the protein has to have ability to bind sequence and bind polymerase.
if protein binds upstream from promoter, it will not be able to bind polymerase, it will just block.

repressors stop transcription by blocking.
activators enhance transcription by recruiting promoter or help promoter bind or help initiation of transcription.

72
Q

What is epigenetic control? What is an example? Explain how this may occur in eukaryotes and prokaryotes

A

Epigentic control (ex; DNA methylation): heritable changes in gene expression that occur WITHOUT changes in the DNA sequence
-A change in phenotype Without a change in genotype
DNA methylation is an example
-In eukaryotes, only (CG) nucleotides are methylated (the C in CG is methylated), causing genes to be SILENCED. These silenced genes (off) are passed to offspring, but can be reversed later
-In Prokaryotes, GA
TC is the predominant methylation (A is methylated in GATC), and is important for Restriction Modification and Replication Fidelity. May also influence gene expression

(Restriction Modification: protects sites from being cleaved by enzymes)

73
Q

what additional steps of bacterial gene expression (post-transcriptional control) can be regulated?

A

Additional steps of bacterial gene expression that can be regulated in bacteria:
1) mRNA stability
2) Translation
3) Protein stability

74
Q

Differentiate between the major Regulatory RNA molecules in the Eukaryotes vs Bacteria and discuss their roles

A

Regulatory RNA molecules
-Eukaryotic: have microRNAs (miRNAs) that are approximately 22 nucleotide single-stranded RNAs that are incorporated into a RISC (RNA induced silencing complex). RNAs in RISC serve as a guide to target Specific complementary mRNAS and will either alter their translation or stability (degrade mRNA or inhibit translation)
(the miRNAs are modified in nucleus and packaged into complex called RISC).
-Bacteria: Bacterial small RNAs (sRNAs) are highly structures 50-500 nucleotide RNAs (bigger than miRNAS) that generally bind to PROTEIN targets and modify function. Alternatively may bind to mRNA targets and regulate translation or stability.

75
Q

What is a mutation? what are different types of mutations? what is a mutagen? What is a spontaneous mutation and when do they occur?

A

Mutation: A change in the base sequence of DNA
-mutations may be neutral, beneficial or harmful
Mutagen: Agent that causes mutations
Spontaneous Mutations: Occur in the ABSENCE of a mutagen
(they occur during DNA replication, when polymerase makes mistakes)
-mutagen will increase rate

76
Q

What are the different types of Sequence changes (mutations) in DNA? Which of the above types of mutations is most EASILY reverted spontaneously?

A

Different types of sequence changes (mutations) in DNA:
A. Base substitutions: substitution of one single nucleotide base for anther
1. Transitions- change in one purine to another purine
2. Transversions- change from purine to pyrimidine
(purines: AG; Pyrimidines: CUT)
B. Additions and Deletions
C. Inversion: a deletion and reassertion in the opposite orientation
-point mutation, specifically base substitution is most easily reverted spontaneously (RNA polymerase can be corrected mistake)

77
Q

What is a point mutation?

A

Point mutation: Change within a gene in which a base pair in the DNA sequence is changed, inserted, or deleted
(base substitutions like transitions and transvehrsion are examples of point mutations)
-(additions and deletions can be point mutations if single nucleotide involved)
inversion-NOT point mutation

78
Q

Which DNA sequence changes within the ORF (open reading frame) occur, and how does this affect protein?

A

DNA sequence changes within ORF (open reading frame) can impact the Amino acid composition of the protein translated
-Missense mutants: a base substitution that results in the replacement of one amino acid for another (ex: alanine to glycine)
-Nonsense mutants: base substitution that creates an in frame STOP codon
-Silent mutations: a base substitution does NOT alter the amino acid composition of the protein (due to degeneracy code)
(change last codon and still get same aa)
-Frame shift mutants: insertion or deletion of one or few bases which alters the reading frame.

79
Q

Why do Frame shift mutations generally lead to premature terminations?

A

b/c There’s a RANDOM chance of hitting a STOP codon

80
Q

Do nucleotide changes outside the ORFS (open reading frames) impact gene expression?

A

YES, nucleotide changes outside ORF can impact gene expression because **you can have mutation in promoter (affect polymerase binding),mutation in operator sequence, have mutations that affect transcriptional stops and mutations that affect regulatory aspects of gene expression.

81
Q

What are the temperature sensitive mutants and how are they related to conditional lethal mutants?

A

Temperature sensitive mutants: mutation in a protein in which protein is more unstable at a particular temperature
Ex: TS: high temperature; raise temp, and protein unfold and protein is no longer active–> conditional lethal mutations
if have temperature sensitive mutant that might be lethal at high temp (42 degrees Cfor E coli) but low temp at 40 degrees C, it will be permissive and survive.

82
Q

Provide an example for base substitution in missense, nonsense and frame shift mutations

A

-Missense mutation: example change cysteine to thymine; mRNA will change codon and cause amino to change from glycine to Serine
-Nonsense mutation change nucleotide from thymine to adenine; mRNA will code for a change to U, so have UAG codon which is STOP codon
-Frame shift mutation (Deletion): deletion of A will change frame, and change phenylalanine to Leucine, and glycine to alanine, and randomly generate stop codon

83
Q

What is the definition of mutation rate provided in textbook?
How else can mutation rates be defined?

A

Mutation rate: the probability that a gene will mutate when a cell divides
(according to textbook)
Mutation rates can be defined in several ways:
1) mutations per base pair per generations/cell division **
2) mutations per gene per generation/cell division**
3) mutations per genome per generation/cell division** (less common)
Typically expressed as powers of 10.
(

84
Q

What is the Spontaneous mutation rate for E.coli? How can mutagens affect mutations rate?

A

E. coli Spontaneous mutation rate= 1 in 10^9 replicated base pairs (10^-9) or 1 in 10^6 replicated genes (10^-6) or 1 in 10^3 (10^-3)
-Mutagens can INCREASE mutation rate > 1000 fold

85
Q

Are mutations generally beneficial, neutral or detrimental to the cell?

A

Mutations are generally Neutral or detrimental (due to evolution)
*cell division and generation are equivalent for single-celled organisms

86
Q

What are the different types of mutagenic agents? What are examples?

A

Mutagenic agents:
-Base modifiers: ex: Nitrous acid and hydroxylamine (modify bases that are already in DNA sequence)
-Base analogs: ex: Bromouracil
-Radiation:
-Frame shift mutagens : Acridine (orange)
-Mobile genetic elements
also X-rays, UV (Ultraviolet) Light are mutagenic agents

87
Q

What is the role of base modifiers? How does it work? Example?

A

Base modifiers: Nitrous Acid
-Base modifiers like Nitrous Acid modifies a preexisting base
***Nitrous acid Deaminates adenines and cytosine, so they base pair with C and A **
So, Adenine that is deaminated will base pair with cytosine (deaminated cytosine base pair Adenine)
Result: end up getting a G to C change in SECOND generation

(first altered parent, one daughter normal, one altered with cytosine)

88
Q

What is the role of Nucleoside analogs? Provide Examples.

A

Nucleoside Analog: molecules that look like the normal nucleotides but Base pair differently
(incorporated into DNA, but once in DNA they will change how they base pair)
-can form Tautomers
ex; **2-Aminopurine nucleoside that looks like Adenine
Ex2: 5-Bromouracil nucleoside looks like Thymine

89
Q

How do nucleoside analogs change in their tautomeric forms?

A

tautomeric forms: switch form so they can change base pairing
2 AP (2-Aminopurine nucleoside) can base pair with Thymine; but also reform its structure (be protonated) and base pair with Cytosine (has 2 tautomers)
- 5-Bromouracil can be incorporated in DNA (Keto form) and base pair with Adenine; but it can also change to Enol form where it base pairs with Guanine

90
Q

What are the direct and indirect actions that occur during Ionizing Radiation? What are examples of this?

A

Ionizing radiation (X rays and gamma rays)
Ionizing radiation can damage DNA directly or indirectly
-Direct action: X-rays and gamma rays can physically BREAK the sugar phosphate backbone (resulting in single or double-strand break), the bases themselves, or the connecting hydrogen bonds
(they can break covalent bonds in backbone, purines, or anywhere)
Indirect action: cause the formation of ions (produce hydroxyl radical) that can oxidize bases resulting in errors in replication and repair that causes mutations

91
Q

How can UV radiation affect DNA? What are repair mechanisms that are used?

A

UV radiation can damage DNA by causing THYMINE DIMERS
(UV radiation is NOT Ionizing radiation)
UV Thymine Dimers: covalent bond formed between two adjacent thymines on same strand
Repair Mechanisms;
1. Photolyases: Enzymes that separate thymine dimers
2. Nucleotide excision repair (not limited tot thymine Dimers)

-The thymine dimers produce bulge that can be recognized by enzymes called Photolyases that can break bond (requires light for enzyme function)
Another way to repair damage:
process of Nucleotide excision repair:
-Exonuclease will cut the DNA (cleave on both strands of thymine dimer) and remove damaged DNA
-DNA polymerase will fill the gap by synthesizing New DNA, using intact strand as template (replace nucleotides that have been removed)
-DNA ligase will SEAL the gap

92
Q

Can nucleotide excision repair Deletions?

A

NO, Nucleotide excision cannot repair deletions because it needs a TEMPLATE strand (to fill in missing part)

93
Q

How are undamaged, but non complementary bases distinguished from correct bases?

A

RNA polymerase has a mechanism where it looks for mistakes
You must distinguish new strand from old strand
***METHYLATION will help recognize new synthesis from old strand
new strand will NOT be methylated yet

(Assume new synthesis has mutation)

94
Q

What are examples of frame shift mutagens? How do they work?

A

Frame shift mutagens (cause Deletions/insertions)
Examples:
-Benzopyrene: present in smoke and soot
-Aflatoxin: secreted by a variety of molds that grow on peanuts and grain
-Acridine orange: Fluorescent cationic dye
These mutagens are planar molecules (Flat) that intercalate (insert) in between the bases, that cause polymerase to insert additional nucleotides or delete nucleotides.

95
Q

What is the role of the base analog azidothymidine (AZT)? How does it work?

A

The Base analog Aziodthymidine (AZT) is uses as an Antiretroviral drug
-Thymidine analog is used to treat AIDS (one of first drugs used for AIDS)
Mechanism of action: it TERMINATES the grown chain (when incorporated into DNA, nothing else can be added to it or elongated)

(AZT one of first targets of endoviruses)

96
Q

Why is the retrovirus impaired more than the host? Is the mitochondiral RNA polymerase sensitive to AZT?

A

Retrovirus is impaired more than the host because:
1. Viral Reverse Transcriptase has a 100 fold greater affinity for AZT than cellular DNA polymerase
(viruses recognize RT as being more normal nucleotide than DNA polymerase; so RT inserted more frequently)
2. Cells can quickly repair DNA chain if broken by AZT, whereas the virus cannot.

97
Q

Is the mitochondrial RNA polymerase sensitive to AZT?

A

YES the mitochondrial RNA polymerase is MORE Sensitive than cellular DNA polymerase

98
Q

Which strategies are used to detect mutants?

A

mutations are RARE, even in the presence of a mutagen
Strategies to detect mutants:
1) Postiive (Direct) selection detects mutant cells that GROW under conditions their unmutated parents wouldn’t
2) Negative (Indirect) selection detects mutants cells that do NOT grow.
-replica plating
3) A screen identifies mutant colonies that appear different

99
Q

Why is it useful to generate mutants (consider both commercial applications and research)? Why are bacterial useful for generating mutants?

A

It is useful to generate mutants to make more Antibiotics, make a protein more temperature resistant or more active.
In research, it helps to ascribe function to genes. (used to understand gene function ) (ex: mutate gene and ask what consequences are of mutant)
-Bacterial are useful for generating mutants because:
-Large numbers
-Reproduce quickly
-Most are HAPLOID (beneficial since phenotypes are masked)

100
Q

What occurs in Direct selection and how does it work?

A

Direct Selection:
-Grow on media supporting mutant, but NOT wild-type
-only rare mutants will survive
-ex: antibiotic resistance
(trying to find resistance to streptomycin)
original cells are sensitive and if put on streptomycin plates, media won’t grow. if mutants cells, you have ones that grow streptomycin.

101
Q

What occurs in Indirect selection and what does this procedure require?

A

Indirect selection
-Used when there is NO medium on which the mutant can grow and the parent cell cannot
-Mutants that require a growth factor Not normally present (ex: auxotrophic mutants)
-conditional lethal mutants (ex: Ts)
-Procedur requires:
Replica plating

102
Q

Describe the process of replica plating

A

Replica plating process:
1. Sterile velvet is pressed on the grown colonies on the master plate.
-The master plate with medium contains Histidine (amino acid; enriched complex medium)
2. Cells from each colony are transferred from the velvet to new plates
-have petri plate with medium containing histidine
-have petri plate with medium lacking histidine
3. Plates are incubated
4. Growth on plates is compared. A colony that grows on the medium with histidine, but could not grow on the medium without histidine is Auxotrophic (histidine requiring mutant)
(this method is not really how it works, since no stamping really happens, instead you use replica block)
in the end you get two copies

103
Q

How would this procedure (replica plating) be modified to identify temperature sensitive mutants ?

A
104
Q

What occurs in replica block?

A

Replica block:
-put velveteen over top of block, put plate on block, transfer the cells, take the two plates, transfer 1 and then transfer second plate.
You can keep transferring a whole bunch of cells and transfer cells from velveteen and makes many copies
-the number of cells you transfer will decrease

105
Q

What advantage does direct select have over indirect selection?

A

Direct selection: you can put a billion cells on one plate.
Hence Direct selection is EASIER to screen (faster process), and uses less effort
with indirect selection, you can only put about 150 colonies on plate.

106
Q

What occurs in phenotypic screening? What is it used for? what are examples?

A

Phenotypic Screening
-look for recognizable differences in colony morphology- Not selection, just screening
-pH indicators (change color)
-Differential breakdown of material in media
Ex; Sugars
ex; blood agar ( see if there is zone of clearing if degrade blood)

107
Q

What is the purpose of the Ames test. How does it work? How do you know the growth of colonies is Not due to spontaneous mutation?

A

Ames Test: test used to determine whether a particular compound is mutagenic
-uses bacteria Salmonella to test whether chemical compounds can cause mutations in DNA of an organism.
(used to identify chemical carcinogens)
Process:
You have a culture of bacteria (Salmonella strain )
-the Salmonella strain has mutation in it, so it CANNOT make histidine
Can have different mutations (point mutation, deletion, transition/transversion) in one of the histidine genes
-Add suspected mutagen and rat liver extract, allow cells to grow and then take cells and put media that has no histidine. They will get colonies.
Assumption: The colonies grow on media since they have mutation
Hence you start with a point mutation, and then look for another mutation that reverts back to wild type (original mutation)
ex: change adenine to thymine; you want to change thymine back to adenine

1) How do you know this growth is not due spontaneous mutation? (but due to mutagen)
- because there is a control experiment you have to do. No mutagen added, so you have two colonies. (you expect mutagen to increase number)

-control: same experiment, except NO mutagen is added
-Different mutagens cause different types of mutations.
you must test different salmonella stains that have different types of mutations in histidine gene, to determine which mutant it is.

108
Q

What is the purpose of the Rat liver extract in the Ames Test?

A

Rat liver extract purpose: trying to mimic what happens in your body. if you ingest compounds that go in liver. The liver will metabolize into something else. You try to Add enzymes from rat liver.
increase in colony; demonstrates its a mutagen

109
Q

Are mutagens also carcinogens?

A

Yes, 90% of mutagens are carcinogens

110
Q

What is the procedure for the Ames test

A

Procedure for Ames Test:
1st you have a strain of Histidine dependent Salmonella that is control (has No suspected mutation added) that will add to media (that lacks histidine). This media will be incubated and will result in only a few colonies of revertant bacteria

Then you have experimental sample of smamonella strain (that histidine dependent) and contains suspected Mutagen. You add to media (lacking histidine) and incubate for a couple hours, and result in many colonies of bacteria (due to salmonella mutating to restore histidine gene)
The higher number of revertant colonies of bacteria in experimental sample that contains mutagen, suggests that the mutagen will cause mutation in gene, allowing histidine to be produced and increase in colonies to form.
-Initially point mutations are made in histidine dependent bacteria (salmonella), causing bacteria to not be able to produce Histidine. Hence bacteria will not grow unless hisitndine is supplied. Once Salmonella (that lack histidine) are cultured in media with mutagen, mutations in gene cause a reversion to amino acid production (reverse mutation)

111
Q

What are different types of Genetic Transfer and How do they differ? What kind of genetic transfer do bacteria undergo?

A

Vertical Gene transfer: occurs during reproduction between generations of cells
Horizontal gene transfer: the transfer of genes between cells of the SAME generation
Bacteria can undergo BOTH vertical gene transfer and Horizontal gene transfer
(replication correlate to vertical gene transfer; Recombination correlates to Horizontal transfer)
(in bacteria, replication occurs first, then recombination)

112
Q

What are 3 mechanisms of Horizontal Gene transfer in Bacteria? When will transferred DNA be passed on to next generations? What happens if DNA is circular or if DNA is linear?

A

3 mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria
I. Transformation
II. Conjugation
III. Transduction
Once DNA gets into the cell, it has to be replicated (or it will be lost when cell divides)
-Since the transferred DNA usually does NOT contain an origin of replication, these genes will be passed on to succeeding generations, only if the transferred DNA becomes incorporated in the recipient chromosome.

113
Q

What happens to reproduction if DNA is circular? what if DNA is linear?

A

If DNA in cell is circular and has origin of replication, it can be replicated
-if DNA is linear (does not have origin of replication) it must be incorporated into genome (or it will get lost)

114
Q

What occurs during Homologous recombination? What does this process require? What is crossing over? Compare and contrast crossing over events that occur in Linear DNA vs Circular DNA

A

Homologous Recombination:
The exchange of genes between two DNA molecules
-Crossing over occurs when two chromosomes break and rejoin
-Recombination is a complex process involving different enzymes, with redundant functions
**The RecBCD pathway is the main pathway used in bacteria **
- *Homologous recombination requires the RecA protein
**sequences that are recombined are homologous **
if DNA is linear and integrates into chromosomes you need 2 crossover events (only parts where crossover occurs must be identical sequence)
If DNA is circular and integrates with chromosome, (with homologous sequence) you only need to have 1 recombination event (1 cross over event)

115
Q

List he steps of homologous recombination

A

Homologous Recombination
1. DNA from one cell aligns with DNA in recipient cell. Notice that there is a nick in the donor DNA
2. DNA from the donor aligns with complementary base pairs in the recipient’s chromosome. This can involve thousands of base pairs
3. Rec A protein catalyzes the joining of the two strands
4. The result is that the recipient’s chromosme contains new DNA. Complementary base pairs between two strands will be resolved by DNA polymerase and ligase. The donor DNA will be destroyed. The recipient may now have one or more genes
-This process differs substantially in eukaryotes

116
Q

What occurred in Frederick Griffith’s experiment? Why was it so significant? What did Avery, Macleod and McCarty discover?

A

Frederick Griffith’s eperiment (1928) deomonstrated GENETIC TRANSFORMATION
experiment:
1. Living encapsulated bacteria injected into mouse, the mouse died. The cosines of encapsulated bacteria were isolated from dead mouse
2. Living non- capsulated bacteria (non virulent) injected into the mouse, the mouse remained healthy. A few colonies of non-encapsulated bacteria were isolated from mouse; phagocytes destroyed the nonencapsualted bacteria
3. Heat killed-encapsulated bacteria injected into mouse, the mouse remained healthy . No colonies were isolated from the mouse
4. Living nonencapsulated and heat-killed encapsulated bacteria injected into mouse. Mouse died. Colonies of encapsulated bacteria were isolated from deda bacteria.
-1944, Avery, Macleod and McCarty showed that DNA was responsible for converting the harmless streptococcus pneumonia into virulent strain

117
Q

What is transformation? How does this process work in bacteria?

A

Transformation: The Direct uptake of DNA by recipient cells
-natural transformation is an active process demanding specific enzymes produced by the recipient cell
-The natural occurrence of this property is unusual among specific enzymes produced by the recipient cell.
-The natural occurrence of this property(naturally take up DNA) is unusual among bacteria (1% in laboratory conditions) and Species Specific (about 15 species in bacteria)
-Although natural transformation is only possible for a small percentage of bacterial species, almost All species can be transformed under laboratory conditions

118
Q

What are the steps of tranformation process?

A

Transformation process:
1. As the DNA fragment enters the cell (recipient) , one strand is degraded
2. Single strand from donor finds homologous sequence on recipient chromosomes
3. Donor sequence replaces recipient sequence, which is degraded.

119
Q

What is meant by cell “competence” ?

A

Cell competence: Cell’s efficiency at
uptaking DNA from its environment

120
Q

What is Bacterial conjugation? Which bacteria does it occur in? What is the best studied conjugative plasmid?

A

Bacterial conjugation: transfer of a plasmid from one cell to another by means of cell to cell contact
Conjugation mechanism differs between gram-negative and gram-positive species
-conjugation among gram-negative bacteria (ex: Escherichia coli)
The F. Plasmid is the best studied conjugative plasmid

(F plasmid (fertility plasmid) contains transposons, origin of transfer, origin of vegetative replication)

121
Q

Describe how Gram-Negative bacterial conjugation and the component involved. What is the structure and function of sex plus?

A

Gram-negative Bacterial Conjugation
-F plasmid-encoded hair-like projection termed sex pili contact specific receptor sites on the surface of the recipient cell
(The sex pilus makes contact with F cell and forms mating bridge)
-Although the sex plus is a hollow tube, its not a conduit for DNA, but Brings the cells in proximity.

(F+ cell carries plasmid; F- cell does NOT carry plasmid)

122
Q

Discuss the steps of the mechanism for Gram-Negative bacterial conjugation

A

Mechanism of Gram-negative conjugation
1. An F+ and an F- cell make contact and form cytoplasmic bridge
2. One strand of the plasmid is nicked
3. Strand elongation at the 3’ end displaces the 5’ end into the bridge
4. The single strand is cut after one complete circle is transferred. At the same time, the complementary plasmid strand is synthesized in the F+ cell.
5. The ends are ligated restoring the doubt stranding circular configuration

123
Q

What occurs in the gram-positive bacterial conjugation?

REVIEW

A

Conjugation among Gram-positive bacteria (Enterococcus faecalis: pCF10)
-Does NOT involve sex pili
- Has recipient and donor cells -Adhesion protein: Asc10
-Donor-produced pheromone: cCf10
-recipient produce pheromone : cCF10
-Phermone inhibitor : ICF10
The single arrow indicate positive control
The inverted arrows indicate negative control and the double arrows indicated polypeptide synthesis from a plasmid (ICF10, Asc10_ or chromosomal (cCF10) gene

124
Q

What occurs in the mobilization of the E.coli chromosome? What are Hfr’s ? What occurs at the same time as DNA replication?

A

Mobilization of the E.coli chromosome: Hfr’s
-The F plasmid can integrate into the E.coli genome via homologous recombination, thereby allowing the chromosome the ability to transfer itself to another cell
-A cell with an integrated F is called an Hfr cell
-Hfr is the acronym for high-frequency recombination , which refers to the fact that some chromosomal genes are transferred from an Hfr cell to an F-cell with considerably higher frequency than from an F+ cell.
-conjugative transfer occurs concomitantly (at the same time) with DNA replication, so that the donor cell does not lose genetic information

125
Q

What sequences do F plasmids and bacterial chromosomes have in common that permit integration via homologous recombination?

A

They BOTH have Sequences elements; TRANSPOSONS

126
Q

Following conjugation between Hfr and F- cells, does the F- cell become Hfr?
REVIEW

A

NO, because the bridge breaks; amount of time

127
Q

Is integration of the F plasmid into the bacterial chromosome random ?

A

NO, it will occur w sequence elements
REVIEW

128
Q

Describe what occurs in the formation of the Hfr strain

A

Formation of the HFR strain:
Integration of an F plasmid into a bacterial chromosome (E.coli) occurs by recombination within a simple translocation
- Now that you have integrated plasmid, conjugational transfer begins at the ori site; thus the two parts of split plasmid become located at either end of the chromosome. The chromosome now is an Hfr chromosome, capable of being transferred to another cell.

129
Q

What are the steps of chromosome crossing to F- cell ?

A

Chromosmes cross to F- cell:
1. a+ enters f- at 5 min
2. b+ first enters F- at 8 min
3. c+ first enters F- at 17 min
4. d+ first enters F- at 30 min
The entire chromosome takes 90 mins to cross to F-
(this rarely happens because the pairs usually separate before transfer is complete)
(note: the whole entire chromosome does not get transformed)

130
Q

Explain how linkage maps are constructed?

A

Construction of linkage maps by interrupted-mating experiments
F- cells that are str^r are crossed with Hfr cells that are str^s
-The F- cells also have a number of mutations that prevent them from carrying out certain metabolic steps
REVIEW

131
Q

What odes the linear order of transfer depend on ?

REVIEW

A

The linear order of transfer is dependent on the Hfr strain
(insert site and orientation of F plasmid)
-Homologous regions were pairing take place are between 2 and b
-Where plasmid conjugated depends on where insertions happens
-Where the it inserts, dictates where the origin of replication is.
The 1 region is transferred last–> the b region b and c regions are direction of transfer and the a-2 region of Hfr are transferred first

132
Q

Describe what occurs in the mobilization of E.coli for F’ plasmids.

A

Mobilization of the E. coli chromosme: F’ plasmids
The F plasmid can be correctly excised from Hfr DNA to yield an F+ cell containing the original bacterial chromosome and independent F factor
-However, should the excision involve a different bacterial IS element than was originally used for integration, the excised F factor will contain a segment of bacterial DNA. This form is called F’

( genetic map of E.coli chromosome can show approximate regions carried by F-prime factors)

133
Q

How could you distinguish whether a cell is F+, Hfr, ,or F’ ?

A

Isolate the plasmid from cell> look at the plasmid REVIEW THIS

134
Q

What is Transduction? What are the two types?

A

Transduction: phage mediated genetic recombinant in bacteria
in simplest terms, a traducing particle might be regarded as bacterial DNA (or phage-bacterial DNA hybrid) in a phage coat.
Types:
-Generalized transduction
-Specialized transduction

135
Q

What is Generalized transduction?

A

Generalized transduction: a random fragment of bacterial DNA is accidentally encapsulated in a phage protein coat in place of the phage DNA. The P1 bacteriophage is an example

136
Q

Explain why the frequency of transducing specific cane from a donor cell to recipient cell is low

A
137
Q

What occurs in specialized transduction?

A

A

138
Q

Explain why the frequency of transducing specific cane from a donor cell to recipient cell is low

A
139
Q

Explain why the frequency of transducing specific cane from a donor cell to recipient cell is low

A

The frequency of transducing a specific gene from a donor cell to recipient cell is low because:
1. The encapsulation of bacterial DNA is LOW (1/1000)
2. The probability that the transuding particle carries the gene of interest is LOW (depends on genome size and capacity of virus particle)
3. Successful infection of the P1 transducing particle is required
4. The transduced gene must RECOMBINE with the homologous portion of the chromosome

140
Q

What is contransduction frequency?

A

Contrasnduction frequency: the frequency you start with REVIEW

141
Q

What is specialized transduction? How does it work?

A

Specialized transduction; Only those genes located on the bacterial genome close to the prophage insertion site can be transduced
-A specialized traducing particle contains a hybrid phage and bacterial DNA molecule which integrates into the phage genome as the phage DNA would do in the process of becoming normal in the prophage.

142
Q

Differentiate between the generalized and specialized transduction processes?

A

Generalized Transduction
-Involves injecting phage and bacterial chromosome, phage DNA
-Phage replication and fragmentation of bacterial DNA occur (a+ = any bacterial gene)
-Then lysis occurs forming normal nontransducing phages and a rare phage (a+) which has accidentally packaged the a+ gene, and can transduce an a- cell to a+
Specialized Transduction
-involves Integrated prophage, UV induction
-Includes Normal excision of prophage and RARE abnormal excision of prophage that picks up the adjacent s+ gene (s+ = special bacterial gene)
-Then lysis occurs for both processes (Normal excision and Rare excision)/
-Lysis in Normal excision will produce normal nontransducing phage
-lysis of Rare abnormal excision will produce phages that carry s+ one and can transduce from s- to s+
hence both generalized and specialized transduction have normal transuding phage, undergo lysis and will make rare phage

143
Q

What are transposable elements?

A

Transposable elements: self-mobilizable genetic elements or “jumping genes” that can be transferred from place to place on the chromosme and into and out of plasmids
two types: replicative and non replicative transposons

144
Q

Differentiate between replicative and non replicative transposons

A

Replicative transposons: leaves a copy of itself at the original location
Non-replicative transposon- Does NOT leave a copy of itself
-most transposons are replicative

145
Q

Describe the target site preferences and where insertions occur in the genome

A

Target site preferences are rarely very stringent or very long. Thus, suitable insertion locations for many IS (insertion sequences) occur thousands of times in each genome. However, insertion is NOT random

146
Q

What are three major kinds of transposable elements?

A

3 major kinds of transposable elements:
a. Insertion sequence (IS) elements
b Transposons (composite and Tn3 type)
-carry antibiotic resistance gene
c. Certain phages (such as Mu)

147
Q

Which two genes control the movement of the transposon?
What are the main functions of transposons like Tn3 (type) transposons?

A

Transposes and Resolves are genes that control the movement of transposon
Transposon at the original site can jump to other sites, leaving behind a copy itself.
it can also jump into and out of plasmid

148
Q

Describe how the insertion of transpose Tn5 into R100 occurs.

A

Insertion of the Transposon Tn5 into R100
1. Transposes cuts DNA, leaving sticky ends
2. Sticky ends of transposon and target DNA anneal

149
Q

Explain what occurs in the dissemination of antibiotics resistance and virulence gene through a bacterial population

A

All the previous decscirbe mechanisms permit rapid exchange of genes from one strain to another
However, most resistance gene transfer is plasma mediated, but plasma mediated traits can interchange with chromosomal elements
-Virtually ALL resistance determinant genes on R plasmids are present at transposons

150
Q

What is the role of E.Coli? what toxic stain of E.coli was made and what are its effects
-What toxin is produced by E coli strain?

A

Escherichia coli O157:H7
Normally E.coli benefits the body by suppressing the growth of harmful bacterial species and synthesizing appreciable amounts of vitamin
-A toxin-producing strain of E.coli was first seen in 1982 and is now the Leading cause of Diarrhea worldwide
Shigatoxin is the toxin produced by Strain.

151
Q

How did E.coli O157:H7 acquire this toxin gene?

A

Specialized transduction