Microbial Diversity and Pathogenesis Flashcards

1
Q

How do microbes avoid soluble immunity factors?

A
  1. Avoid complement fixation
  2. Destroy Ab
  3. Avoid eliciting/detection by Ab
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2
Q

How is Toxoplasmosis diagnosed?

A
  • Serology (ELISA for anti-toxiplasma serum antibodies) - blood test
  • PCR
  • Histology (detection of tissue cysts) or gross pathology (retina)
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3
Q

Define

Merozoites

A

a small amoeboid sporozoan trophozoite (as of a malaria parasite) produced by schizogony that is capable of initiating a new sexual or asexual cycle of development

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4
Q

True or False:

Normal flora can become pathogenic

A

True

These are termed opportunistic pathogens

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5
Q

Definition

lacking a cell nucleus

A

Anucleate cells

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6
Q

True or False:

Toxoplasma infect phagocytes by being phagocytosed

A

False

The invade the phagocytes

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7
Q

Definition

an infection caused by pathogens (bacteria, viruses, fungi, or protozoa) that take advantage of an opportunity not normally available, such as a host with a weakened immune system, an altered microbiota (such as a disrupted gut microbiota), or breached integumentary barriers

A

Opportunistic pathogens

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8
Q

Define

Phage therapy

A

the therapeutic use of bacteriophages to treat pathogenic bacterial infections

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9
Q

Definition

symbiosis which is beneficial to both organisms involved

A

Mutualism

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10
Q

What are human mycoses caused by?

A

True fungal pathogens and opportunistic pathogens

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11
Q

What are the differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A
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12
Q

What causes Giardiasis?

A
  • G. intestinalis*
  • G. lamblia*
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13
Q

Definition

the cells and tissues of a host that support growth of a particular virus or bacterium

A

Tissue tropism

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14
Q

Define

E. coli

A

a bacterium commonly found in the intestines of humans and other animals, some strains of which can cause severe food poisoning

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15
Q

Definition

DNA sequences that can move around the genome, changing their number of copies or simply changing their location, often affecting the activity of nearby genes

A

Mobile genetic element

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16
Q

Define

Anucleate cells

A

lacking a cell nucleus

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17
Q

Define

16S rRNA

A

the component of the 30S small subunit of a prokaryotic ribosome that binds to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence

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18
Q

What is the normal flora of the lower respiratory tract?

A

It does not usually have microbiota

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19
Q

Definition

molecules shared by groups of related microbes that are essential for the survival of those organisms and are not found associated with mammalian cells

A

PAMPs

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20
Q

What is the bulk of the cell wall comprised of in Acid-fast bacteria?

A

Unique types of lipids such as mycolic acid

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21
Q

Definition

starting from the beginning

A

De novo

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22
Q

The relationship between the normal flora and the host is:

Select one:

a. mutualistic and parasitic
b. symbiotic
c. paratism and commensalism
d. commensalism and mutalism

A

The relationship between the normal flora and the host is:

Select one:

a. mutualistic and parasitic
b. symbiotic
c. paratism and commensalism

d. commensalism and mutalism

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23
Q

What does viral protain VP16 do in class 1 viruses?

A

Stimulates cellular reverse transcriptase to transcribe IE genes

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24
Q

How do viruses lyse cells?

A

Viroporins - hydrophobic proteins, interact with and disrupt membranes

Picornaviruses - VP2

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25
Q

Which section of the IgA molecule does IgA protease cleave?

A

The hinge region

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26
Q

Definition

recovering from an illness or medical treatment

A

Convalescent

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27
Q

Define

Resident flora

A

The microorganisms that usually occupy a particular body site

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28
Q

Definition

a compound present in the walls of Gram-positive bacteria. It is a polymer of ribitol or glycerol phosphate

A

Teichoic acid

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29
Q

Define

Adhesins –

A

cell-surface components or appendages of bacteria that facilitate adhesion or adherence to other cells or to surfaces, usually the host they are infecting or living in

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30
Q

What is unique to Mycoplamataceae bacteria?

A

They completely lack a cell wall

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31
Q

Definition

any of a group of spore-producing organisms feeding on organic matter, including moulds, yeast, mushrooms, and toadstools

A

Fungi

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32
Q

Definition

a common bacterium that lives on the skin or in the nose and in most situations it is harmless. However, if it enters the body through a cut in the skin, it can cause a range of mild to severe infections, which may cause death in some cases. Also known as S. aureus

A

Golden staph

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33
Q

Define

Invasins

A

Any of a class of proteins associated with the penetration of bacteria into mammalian cells

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34
Q

Definition

a carbohydrate-enriched coating that covers the outside of many eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic cells, particularly bacteria

A

Glycocalyx

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35
Q

Describe spherical viruses

A

Icosahedral ordered symmetry

Formed by repeating units of protein

A regular polyhedron with 20 triangular faces

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36
Q

Define

Operon

A

a unit made up of linked genes which is thought to regulate other genes responsible for protein synthesis

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37
Q

Definition

an organism consisting of a cell or cells in which the genetic material is DNA in the form of chromosomes contained within a distinct nucleus. They include all living organisms other than the eubacteria and archaea

A

Eukaryotes

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38
Q

Definition

a supergroup of protists that are defined by an asymmetrical appearance with a feeding groove that is “excavated” from one side; it includes various types of organisms which are parasitic, photosynthetic and heterotrophic predators

A

Excavata

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39
Q

Define

A-B toxins –

A

two-component protein complexes secreted by a number of pathogenic bacteria. They can be classified as Type III toxins because they interfere with internal cell function

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40
Q

What stimulates transcription of early genes in class 1 viruses?

A

IE gene proteins

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41
Q

What makes up most of the cell wall of a Gram-positive bacteria?

A

Peptidoglycan

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42
Q

Definition

a major constituent of the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria

A

Lipoteichoic acid

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43
Q

What is the step-wise gene expression of viruses?

A

Immediate early

Early

Late (Assembly and egress)

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44
Q

Definition

the capsid of a virus with the enclosed nucleic acid

A

Nucleocapsid

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45
Q

What is the ideal media to grow bacteria from the respiratory tract?

A

Horse blood agar

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46
Q

Definition

a microscopic parasite that causes the diarrheal illness known as giardiasis

A

Giardia

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47
Q

True or False:

Candida albicans can form biofilms

A

True

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48
Q

How is Toxoplasmosis transmitted?

A

Ingestion of raw/undercooked cyst-infected meat

Contaminated drinking water

Ingestion of raw/undercooked vegetables

Ingestion of cat feces

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49
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of Giardiasis

A
  • Cysts undergo developmental change in duodenum and form trophozoites
  • Trophozoites attach to duodenal epithelial cells via a sucking disk
  • Feed on mucosal secretions and grow and multiply, interfering with intestinal absorption
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50
Q

Define

Transcytosis

A

a type of transcellular transport in which various macromolecules are transported across the interior of a cell

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51
Q

Definition

a blood protein produced in response to and counteracting a specific antigen. They combine chemically with substances which the body recognizes as alien, such as bacteria, viruses, and foreign substances in the blood

A

Antibodies (Ab) –

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52
Q

Bacterial siderophores:

Select one:

a. Act as receptors for nitrogen-binding host proteins
b. Are high molecular weight membrane proteins
c. Allow the normal flora to out-compete pathogens
d. Are used to chelate iron in the environment

A

Bacterial siderophores:

Select one:

a. Act as receptors for nitrogen-binding host proteins
b. Are high molecular weight membrane proteins
c. Allow the normal flora to out-compete pathogens

d. Are used to chelate iron in the environment

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53
Q

Eukaryotes

Select one:

a. Carry out all it’s functions through the cytoplasmic membrane
b. Have a membrane delimited nucleus
c. are only bacteria
d. mycolic acid on the cell wall

A

Eukaryotes

Select one:

a. Carry out all it’s functions through the cytoplasmic membrane

b. Have a membrane delimited nucleus

c. are only bacteria
d. mycolic acid on the cell wall

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54
Q

Definition

a protein released by animal cells, usually in response to the entry of a virus, which has the property of inhibiting virus replication.

A

Interferon

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55
Q

True or False:

The vast majority of DNA sequences in human blood are viral

A

True

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56
Q

Definition

a type of transmission that occurs when bacteria or viruses travel on dust particles or on small respiratory droplets that may become aerosolized when people sneeze, cough, laugh, or exhale

A

Airborne transmission

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57
Q

Definition

a differential stain used to identify acid-fast organisms such as members of the genus Mycobacterium

A

Acid-fast stain

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58
Q

Definition

infection with candida, especially as causing oral or vaginal thrush

A

Candidiasis

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59
Q

Adhesion is mediated by which structures?

A
  • Pili/fibriae
  • Afibrial adhesins
  • Bacterial capsules
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60
Q

Definition

the most common bacterial cytotoxic proteins and are required for virulence in a large number of important pathogens that generally disrupt host cell membranes, but they can have additional effects independent of pore formation

A

Pore-forming toxins

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61
Q

How can Toxoplasmosis be prevented?

A
  • Wear gloves when gardening, carefull cleaning of cat litter trays especially if you are pregnant (or thinking about it)
  • Wash hads properly
  • Cook all meat thoroughly
  • Wash (and peel) your veggies (selected countries)
  • Clean surfaces and kitchen utensils to prevent cross-contamination
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62
Q

Define

Transient flora

A

Microbes inhabiting a body surface or cavity for a brief period of time, usually as a result of their promotion and selection by antibiotic therapy, chemotherapy, hospitalization, illness, or surgery

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63
Q

Definition

a thin but robust layer of mucilage adhering to a solid surface and containing a community of bacteria and other microorganisms

A

Biofilms

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64
Q

Definition

infections that have been caught in a hospital and are potentially caused by organisms that are resistant to antibiotics

A

Noscomial infections

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65
Q

Define

Asymptomatic carrier

A

a person or other organism that has become infected with a pathogen, but that displays no signs or symptoms

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66
Q

What are the three main vectors for horizontal gene transfer?

A

Plasmids

Bacteriophages

Transposons

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67
Q

Definition

a gene that protects a cell from one step on the path to cancer

A

Tumour-supressor gene

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68
Q

What is the name of a parasitic organism that lives within the host?

A

Endoparasite

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69
Q

Define

Bacteriocins

A

a protein produced by bacteria of one strain and active against those of a closely related strain

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70
Q

What happens in cerebral malaria?

A

The infected RBCs obstruct the blood vessels in the brain

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71
Q

Define

Gram positive

A

bacteria that give a positive result in the Gram stain test, which is traditionally used to quickly classify bacteria into two broad categories according to their cell wall.

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72
Q

Define

De novo

A

starting from the beginning

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73
Q

Definition

the transmission of pathogens through vehicles such as water, food, and air

A

Vehicle transmission

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74
Q

Definition

the type of ribosome found in bacteria and archaea that are comprised of a small 30S subunit and large 50S subunit

A

70S ribosome

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75
Q

Define

Antibodies (Ab) –

A

a blood protein produced in response to and counteracting a specific antigen. They combine chemically with substances which the body recognizes as alien, such as bacteria, viruses, and foreign substances in the blood

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76
Q

What are the three protein exotoxins?

A

Membrane-disrupting toxins

A-B toxins

Superantigens

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77
Q

What is considered the 5th Koch’s postulate?

A

Effective therapeutic or preventative measure(s) should eliminate disease

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78
Q

How is cryptosporidium prevented?

A
  • Exclude people with Cryptosporidium infection from childcare, preschool, school and work until there has been no diarrhea for 24 hours
  • People who have diarrhea should not use swimming pools or spas for 14 days after the symptoms have stopped
  • Pasterurisation and boiling as control measures
  • Wash hands
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79
Q

Define

Virulence factor

A

Factor(s) required by the microorganism that enable it to cause disease

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80
Q

How can bacteria inhibit the phagolysosome?

A
  • Block fusion to lysosomes
  • Lyse phagosomal membrane
  • Block/be resistant to acidification
  • Block assemblt of NADPH oxidase
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81
Q

Define

Incubatory

A

the period between exposure to an infection and the appearance of the first symptoms

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82
Q

True or False:

Fungi can produce spores through both sexual or asexual life cycles

A

True

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83
Q

Define

Toxoplasmosis

A

a disease caused by toxoplasmas, transmitted chiefly through undercooked meat, soil, or in cat faeces. Symptoms of infection generally pass unremarked in adults, but can be dangerous to unborn children.

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84
Q

Definition

A chain of easily disrupted fungal cells that is intermediate between a chain of budding cells and a true hypha, marked by constrictions rather than septa at the junctions

A

Elogate pseudohyphae

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85
Q

What are the two major parts of the LPS later?

A

Lipid A

O-specific polysaccharide side chain (O antigen)

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86
Q

Cryptosporidium oocysts are resistant to what and susceptible to what?

A

Resistant to chlorination but are killed by conventional cooking or boiling

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87
Q

Define

Trophozoites

A

a growing stage in the life cycle of some sporozoan parasites, when they are absorbing nutrients from the host

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88
Q

What are the common nematode parasites that infect humans?

A

Roundworms

Hookworms

Pin or threadworms

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89
Q

Which areas do bacteria colonise that have poor access for antibodies?

A

Inside cells

Epidermis

CNS

Gall bladder

Cysts

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90
Q

What do endospores contain?

A

DNA, ribosomes and large amounts of dipicolinic acid in the core (aids dormancy)

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91
Q

Define

Macrophages

A

a large phagocytic cell found in stationary form in the tissues or as a mobile white blood cell, especially at sites of infection

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92
Q

Most fungal pathogens of humans are opportunistic, which means that:

Select one:

a. They infect a host at first contact
b. They need to switch morphology
c. They mostly infect immunosuppressed subjects
d. They require a specific infection route

A

Most fungal pathogens of humans are opportunistic, which means that:

Select one:

a. They infect a host at first contact
b. They need to switch morphology

c. They mostly infect immunosuppressed subjects

d. They require a specific infection route

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93
Q

How is Cryptosporidium transmitted?

A

From animal reservoirs in contaminated food or water (manu birds and mammal shed oocysts in feces)

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94
Q

Definition

a type of transcellular transport in which various macromolecules are transported across the interior of a cell

A

Transcytosis

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95
Q

Definition

an organism that makes ATP by aerobic respiration if oxygen is present, but is capable of switching to fermentation or anaerobic respiration if oxygen is absent

A

Faculative anaerobes

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96
Q

Define

Archaea

A

microorganisms which are similar to bacteria in size and simplicity of structure but radically different in molecular organization. They are now believed to constitute an ancient group which is intermediate between the bacteria and eukaryotes

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97
Q

Definition

any unicellular fungus that reproduces vegetatively by budding or fission, including forms such as candida that can cause disease

A

Yeast

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98
Q

The Plaque Assay:

Select one:

a. A) Is based on the fact that infection is latent in the majority of infected cells, leading to the formation of plaques of dead cells only by the non-latent viruses.
b. A) Is based on the fact that each virion initially infects a single cell, and its progeny infects neighbouring cells, leading to the formation of a plaque of dead cells.
c. Provides a measure of the efficiency of viral replication
d. Provides a measure of the size of the viral genome.

A

The Plaque Assay:

Select one:

a. A) Is based on the fact that infection is latent in the majority of infected cells, leading to the formation of plaques of dead cells only by the non-latent viruses.

b. A) Is based on the fact that each virion initially infects a single cell, and its progeny infects neighbouring cells, leading to the formation of a plaque of dead cells.

c. Provides a measure of the efficiency of viral replication
d. Provides a measure of the size of the viral genome.

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99
Q

Define

S. epidermidis

A

a gram-positive, coagulase-negative cocci that is a part of our skins normal flora

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100
Q

Where are Toxoplasma cysts activated?

A

In the gut

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101
Q

How is Malaria transmitted?

A

Malaria parasites are transmitted from one person to another by the female Anopheles mosquito. The males do not transmit the disease as the feed only on plant juices

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102
Q

What is the eclipse period?

A

Stage where no new viruses are present in host cells

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103
Q

Define

Pathogenicity

A

the property of causing disease

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104
Q

How can bacteria avoid being recognised or inhibit internalisation?

A
  • Avoiding opsonisation
  • Forming capsules (hides PAMPs)
  • Forming biofilms
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105
Q

Definition

an organism that lives in or on an organism of another species (its host) and benefits by deriving nutrients at the other’s expense

A

Parasites

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106
Q

What cells do Toxoplasma infect?

A

Invasion of multiple cells types including moncytes, macrophages, dendritic cells

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107
Q

True or False:

Viruses are only able to grow within a cell

A

False

Viruses do not grow, but they can only assemble within cells

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108
Q

What is the life cycle of a roundworm

A
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109
Q

Definition

a unit made up of linked genes which is thought to regulate other genes responsible for protein synthesis

A

Operon

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110
Q

Definition

collection of nucleic acids, both RNA and DNA, that make up the viral community associated with a particular ecosystem or holobiont

A

Virome

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111
Q

True or False

Disease causing toxins may be found in the cell wall of a bacteria

A

False

Disease causing toxins may be found in the outer membrane of a bacteria

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112
Q

Definition

the genetic material of a bacteriophage, incorporated into the genome of a bacterium and able to produce phages if specifically activated

A

Prophage

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113
Q

Define

Bacteriophages

A

a virus which parasitizes a bacterium by infecting it and reproducing inside it

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114
Q

Definition

distinct class of genomic islands acquired by microorganisms through horizontal gene transfer. They are found in both animal and plant pathogen

A

Pathogenicity island

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115
Q

Definition

a staining technique for the preliminary identification of bacteria, in which a violet dye is applied, followed by a decolorizing agent and then a red dye. The cell walls of certain bacteria (denoted Gram-positive ) retain the first dye and appear violet, while those that lose it (denoted Gram-negative ) appear red

A

Gram stain

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116
Q

What are A-B toxins and what do they do?

A

Binary toxins with a catalytic ‘warhead’ (A) and a targeting component (B). It causes post-translational modifications of polypeptides

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117
Q

E. coli is not present in all humans

Select one:

True

False

A

E. coli is not present in all humans

Select one:

True

False

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118
Q

Definition

Any of many parasitic protozoans, of the class Sporozoa, that reproduce alternately sexually and asexually via spores; they are responsible for diseases such as malaria

A

Sporozones

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119
Q

Definition

bacteria that cannot live outside the host cell

A

Obligate intracellular pathogens

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120
Q

How do bacteria avoid eliciting or detection by antibodies?

A
  1. Remain inside host cells
  2. Host mimicry
  3. Coat with host proteins
  4. Colonise sites with poor access for antibodies
  5. Keep ahead of the immune system
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121
Q

Which enzymes needed by viruses to convert their nucleic acid into mRNA must be encoded by the virus itself?

A

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

RNA-dependent reverse transcriptase

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122
Q

How do you treat Candidiasis?

A
  • There is no satisfactory treatment currently
  • Antifungals used for cutaneous lesions and systemic candidiasis
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123
Q

Define

Lytic cycle

A

one of the two cycles of viral reproduction that results in the destruction of the infected cell and its membrane

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124
Q

What makes up the bacterial cytoplasm?

A

Cytosol

Nucleoid - chromosome

Ribosomes

Inclusion bodies (e.g. endospores)

Cytoskeletal components

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125
Q

Definition

small masses of lymphatic tissue found throughout the ileum region of the small intestine

A

Peyer’s Patch

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126
Q

Define

Naked virus

A

A virus lacking the viral envelope

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127
Q

Define

Cytopathic

A

structural changes in host cells that are caused by viral invasion

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128
Q

What are the symptoms of Cryptosporidiosis?

A

Diarrhea

Stomach pain

Nausea

Fever

Fatigue

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129
Q

Define

Acid-fast bacteria

A

bacteria with a cell wall rich in special acids, called mycolic acids

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130
Q

When are virulence genes expressed?

A

When the bacteria sense a specific niche or in response to population density

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131
Q

How many types of viruses are considered in the Baltimore Classification Scheme?

A

7

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132
Q

Why do antibiotics that target ribosomes not effect human cells?

A

The antibiotics act on the 70S ribosomes unit but has no effect on the 80S units found in human cells

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133
Q

How are healthy individuals treated for Toxoplasmosis?

A
  • Usually no treatment necessary, symptoms abate within weeks to months
  • But… infection leads to chronic infection (may need later treatment)
  • Most cases go undiagnosed and remain clinically unapparent
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134
Q

Definition

the severity or harmfulness of a disease or poison

A

Virulence

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135
Q

Define

Infection

A

a proliferation of a harmful strain of bacteria on or inside the body

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136
Q

Define

Plasmid

A

a genetic structure in a cell that can replicate independently of the chromosomes, typically a small circular DNA strand in the cytoplasm of a bacterium or protozoan

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137
Q

Define

Prophage

A

the genetic material of a bacteriophage, incorporated into the genome of a bacterium and able to produce phages if specifically activated

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138
Q

True or False:

(-) ssRNA viruses, but not (+) ssRNA viruses must deliver RNA-dependent RNA polymerase protein with genome

A

True

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139
Q

Define

Excavata

A

a supergroup of protists that are defined by an asymmetrical appearance with a feeding groove that is “excavated” from one side; it includes various types of organisms which are parasitic, photosynthetic and heterotrophic predators

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140
Q

Koch’s postulates are four criteria that are used to determine whether a disease is caused by a particular microorganism. Which of the following is not a postulate?

Select one:

a. The pathogen must be found in all cases of disease
b. The pathogens must be cultured outside the host in the laboratory
c. The pathogen must cause disease in a healthy animal
d. The pathogen must be tested in humans to determine whether it causes disease
e. The pathogen should be re-isolated from the test animal

A

Koch’s postulates are four criteria that are used to determine whether a disease is caused by a particular microorganism. Which of the following is not a postulate?

Select one:

a. The pathogen must be found in all cases of disease
b. The pathogens must be cultured outside the host in the laboratory
c. The pathogen must cause disease in a healthy animal

d. The pathogen must be tested in humans to determine whether it causes disease

e. The pathogen should be re-isolated from the test animal

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141
Q

Definition

an association between two organisms in which one benefits and the other derives neither benefit nor harm

A

Commensalism

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142
Q

True or False:

It is not possible to become infected with Giardia through contact with blood

A

True

Cysts form in gut

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143
Q

Define

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) layer

A

the major component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria

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144
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis is present in all human beings

Select one:

True

False

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis is present in all human beings

Select one:

True

False

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145
Q

Where does the Plasmodium develop in the mosquito?

A

The Plasmodium develops in the gut of the mosquito and is passed on in the saliva of an infected infect

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146
Q

Define

Pilin

A

a class of fibrous proteins that are found in pilus structures in bacteria

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147
Q

Approximately __% of pathogens known to affect humans are zoonotic

A

Approximately 70% of pathogens known to affect humans are zoonotic

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148
Q

Definition

the infection specificity of certain pathogens to particular hosts and host tissues

A

Host tropism

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149
Q

Why is Toxoplasmosis particularly dangerous for pregnant women?

A

Parasites (tachyzoites) can cross the placenta to the foetus

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150
Q

What percentage of microbes are pathogenic?

A

Less than 5%

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151
Q

Definition

a gram-positive, coagulase-negative cocci that is a part of our skins normal flora

A

S. epidermidis

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152
Q

Definition

a parasitic flatworm; a tapeworm.

A

Cestodes

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153
Q

Definition

a toxin that cause host cells to lyse by forming pores in plasma membrane

A

Membrane-distrupting toxins

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154
Q

Define

Microorganisms

A

a microscopic organism, especially a bacterium, virus, or fungus.

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155
Q

Define

Periplasmic space

A

a concentrated gel-like matrix in the space between the inner cytoplasmic membrane and the bacterial outer membrane called the periplasmic space in gram-negative bacteria

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156
Q

Definition

a relict, nonphotosynthetic plastid found in most protozoan parasites belonging to the phylum Apicomplexa

A

Apicoplast

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157
Q

Draw the Baltimore Classification Scheme diagram

A
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158
Q

Definition

the complete, infective form of a virus outside a host cell, with a core of RNA and a capsid

A

Virions

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159
Q

What is a biofilm?

A

a group of organisms living in a hydrated polymeric matrix

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160
Q

Define

Fungi

A

any of a group of spore-producing organisms feeding on organic matter, including moulds, yeast, mushrooms, and toadstools

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161
Q

Define

O antigen

A

an antigen that occurs in the body of a gram-negative bacterial cell

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162
Q

What is the name of an organism that can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen?

A

Faculative anaerobe

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163
Q

What happens when Plasmodium sporozotes infect humans?

A

Sporozotes are carried by the blood to the liver where they form cyst-like structures containing thousands of merozoites. After 9-16 days they return to the blood and penetrate the red blood cells, where they multiply again, progressively breaking down the RBCs

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164
Q

How do naked viruses egress?

A

Lysis

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165
Q

True or False:

The normal flora is well developed in the womb

A

False

The fetus is sterile in the womb

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166
Q

Definition

a virus which parasitizes a bacterium by infecting it and reproducing inside it

A

Bacteriophages

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167
Q

Define

Commensalism

A

an association between two organisms in which one benefits and the other derives neither benefit nor harm

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168
Q

Where are the coat proteins of enveloped and naked viruses found?

A

Bound to receptors of the capsid of naked viruses and the glycoproteins of enveloped

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169
Q

Definition

a Gram-positive, round-shaped bacterium that is a member of the Firmicutes, and it is a usual member of the microbiota of the body, frequently found in the upper respiratory tract and on the skin

A

S. aureus

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170
Q

Definition

an abnormal form of a normally harmless protein found in the brain that is responsible a variety of fatal neurodegenerative diseases

A

Prions

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171
Q

Definition

a person or other organism that has become infected with a pathogen, but that displays no signs or symptoms

A

Asymptomatic carrier

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172
Q

Definition

the period between exposure to an infection and the appearance of the first symptoms

A

Incubatory

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173
Q

What features fo archaea share with Eukarya?

A
  • DNA replication, transcription and translation seems more like that of Eukarya
  • Archaea DNA has histones
  • Many enzymes involved in DNA replication are similar to those found in Eukarya
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174
Q

An Asymptomatic carrier is one:

Select one:

a. who harbours the pathogen but does not show any symptoms of the disease
b. who is free of the pathogen
c. who is infected by the pathogen and is in the process of being sick with the disease
d. whose has the antibodies against the disease causing agent

A

An Asymptomatic carrier is one:

Select one:

a. who harbours the pathogen but does not show any symptoms of the disease

b. who is free of the pathogen
c. who is infected by the pathogen and is in the process of being sick with the disease
d. whose has the antibodies against the disease causing agent

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175
Q

Why do we study viruses?

A
  • Viruses infect all living things
  • We eat and breathe billions of virions regularly
  • We carry viral genomes as part of our own genetic material
  • Viruses drive Global Cycles
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176
Q

What are the four basic shapes of bacteria?

A

Cocci

Bacilli

Spirochaete

Comma’s

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177
Q

How can Toxoplasmosis alter host behaviour?

A

Possibly linked to a parasite encoded tyrosine hydroxylase that mimics dopamine and therefore modifies behaviour

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178
Q

Where are extracellular parasites found?

A

Blood, intestines or genito-urinary system?

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179
Q

Definition

a protein structure found at the base of a eukaryotic undulipodium (cilium or flagellum)

A

Basal body

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180
Q

Definition

The microorganisms that usually occupy a particular body site

A

Resident flora

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181
Q

Define

Tissue tropism

A

the cells and tissues of a host that support growth of a particular virus or bacterium

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182
Q

Define

Exotoxins

A

a toxin released by a living bacterial cell into its surroundings

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183
Q

Define

Basal body

A

a protein structure found at the base of a eukaryotic undulipodium (cilium or flagellum)

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184
Q

Attachment or adhesion is mediated by:

1 – capsule

2 – cell wall

3 – cytoplasmic membrane

4 – invasins

5 – fimbriae

6 – ribosomes

Select one:

a. 1 & 6
b. 2 & 4
c. 3 & 5
d. 1 & 5

A

Attachment or adhesion is mediated by:

1 – capsule

2 – cell wall

3 – cytoplasmic membrane

4 – invasins

5 – fimbriae

6 – ribosomes

Select one:

a. 1 & 6
b. 2 & 4
c. 3 & 5

d. 1 & 5

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185
Q

Definition

a large phylum of parasitic alveolates. Most of them possess a unique form of organelle that comprises a type of plastid called an apicoplast, and an apical complex structure

A

Apicomplexa

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186
Q

Define

Glycocalyx

A

a carbohydrate-enriched coating that covers the outside of many eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic cells, particularly bacteria

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187
Q

What is the lifecycle of a hookworm?

A
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188
Q

Define

Virulence

A

the severity or harmfulness of a disease or poison

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189
Q

How do enveloped viruses egress?

A

Budding

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190
Q

Define

Dipicolinic acid

A

a chemical compound which composes 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores. It is implicated as responsible for the heat resistance of the endospore.

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191
Q

Define

Parasitism

A

relationship between two species of plants or animals in which one benefits at the expense of the other, sometimes without killing the host organism

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192
Q

True or False:

There are no vaccines available for any parasites

A

True

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193
Q

Define

Yeast

A

any unicellular fungus that reproduces vegetatively by budding or fission, including forms such as candida that can cause disease

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194
Q

What are the three types of symbiotic bacteria-human relationships?

A

Mutualism

Commensalism

Parasitism

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195
Q

In what ways do bacteria avoid complement fixation?

A

Having a capsule - prevents fixation

Secreting complement degrading molecules

Bind antibody by Fc receptor (upside down)

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196
Q

Define

30S ribosome

A

the smaller subunit of the 70S ribosome found in prokaryotes. It is a complex of the 16S ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and 19 proteins

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197
Q

The resident flora of a person will not cause disease in humans

Select one:

True

False

A

The resident flora of a person will not cause disease in humans

Select one:

True

False

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198
Q

What are the Molecular Koch’s postulates?

A
  1. The virulence gene is always found in strains within a particular virulence phenotype
  2. The gene should be expressed in the host
  3. Mutation (inactivation) of that particular gene abolishes the virulence phenotype
  4. Reintroduction of the gene reconstitutes the virulence phenotype
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199
Q

Definition

Any of a class of proteins associated with the penetration of bacteria into mammalian cells

A

Invasins

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200
Q

Definition

infection of the intestine with a flagellate protozoan, Giardia, which causes diarrhoea and other symptoms

A

Giadiasis

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201
Q

Definition

An agent that destroys or causes the expulsion of parasitic intestinal worms.

A

Anthelminthics

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202
Q

Define

Reverse transcriptase

A

an enzyme which catalyses the formation of DNA from an RNA template in reverse transcription.

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203
Q

Definition

An enzyme that catalyzes the splitting of a phospholipid molecule by the addition of water

A

Phospholipases

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204
Q

Define

Acute carrier

A

an infected individual who is not obviously diseases. Can be incubatory or convalescent

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205
Q

Define

Acid-fast stain

A

a differential stain used to identify acid-fast organisms such as members of the genus Mycobacterium

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206
Q

What are the two most common bacteria present in all humans?

A
  • Staphylococcus epidermidis*
  • Escherichia coli*
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207
Q

Definition

the removal of moisture from something

A

Dessication

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208
Q

Prions are proteins that cause microbial diseases

Select one:

True

False

A

Prions are proteins that cause microbial diseases

Select one:

True

False

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209
Q

Define

Comma’s

A

any curved-rod shaped bacterium

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210
Q

Define

Nematode

A

a worm of the large phylum Nematoda, such as a roundworm or threadworm

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211
Q

Define

Zoonoses

A

a disease which can be transmitted to humans from animals

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212
Q

Define

Candida albicans

A

an opportunistic pathogenic yeast that is a common member of the human gut flora. It can also survive outside the human body. It is detected in the gastrointestinal tract and mouth in 40–60% of healthy adults

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213
Q

Define

Apicoplast

A

a relict, nonphotosynthetic plastid found in most protozoan parasites belonging to the phylum Apicomplexa

214
Q

Definition

any of a group of RNA viruses which insert a DNA copy of their genome into the host cell in order to replicate, e.g. HIV.

A

Retrovirus

215
Q

Define

Interferon

A

a protein released by animal cells, usually in response to the entry of a virus, which has the property of inhibiting virus replication.

216
Q

What happens when Toxoplasma faces pressure from the immune system?

A

They form slow-replicating bradyzoites

217
Q

True or False:

E. coli is an example of a bacteria that engages in mutualism with humans

A

True

218
Q

Define

Convalescent

A

recovering from an illness or medical treatment

219
Q

What are the symtoms of Toxoplasmosis in immunocompromised or pregnant individuals?

A
  • Severe and serious pathological consequences
  • Immunocompromised individuals
    • Severe Toxoplasmosis involving gut, eye, heart, brain and other organ damage
  • Pregnant women
    • Foetus abnormalities
  • Can develop from acute infection or reactivation of cysts after infection earlier in life
220
Q

Which of the following questions regarding bacterial invasion is true?

Select one:

a. Can involve the injection of bacterial effector proteins into the host cell by a type 3 secretion system
b. The zipper mechanism is mediated in an “inside-out” manner following bacterial binding to host cell surface molecules
c. Is dependent on spontaneous formation of membrane protrusions
d. A specific interaction with the host cell is not required

A

Which of the following questions regarding bacterial invasion is true?

Select one:

a. Can involve the injection of bacterial effector proteins into the host cell by a type 3 secretion system

b. The zipper mechanism is mediated in an “inside-out” manner following bacterial binding to host cell surface molecules
c. Is dependent on spontaneous formation of membrane protrusions
d. A specific interaction with the host cell is not required

221
Q

Definition

referring to an RNA strand that can serve directly as messenger RNA and be transcribed into DNA

A

Positive sense

222
Q

Where in the body are Candida normally found?

A

They normally reside in the intestinal tract and can be found on mucous membranes and skin withou causing infection

223
Q

Definition

a lipid component of an endotoxin held responsible for the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. It is the innermost of the three regions of the lipopolysaccharide (LPS), also called endotoxin molecule, and its hydrophobic nature allows it to anchor the LPS to the outer membrane

A

Lipid A

224
Q

Definition

bacteria with a cell wall rich in special acids, called mycolic acids

A

Acid-fast bacteria

225
Q

Define

Drenching

A

forcibly administer a drug in liquid form orally to (an animal)

226
Q

Definition

the cause, set of causes, or manner of causation of a disease or condition

A

Aetiology

227
Q

Definition

a rod-shaped bacterium

A

Bacilli

228
Q

What are the enzymes that are used by viruses to convert there nucleic acid into mRNA? What do these enzymes do?

A

RNA-dependent reverse transcriptase: Converts RNA into DNA

RNA-dependent-RNA polymerase: Replicates RNA from RNA template

DNA-dependent polymerase: Replicates DNA from DNA template

229
Q

What is the name of a parasitic organism that lives on the surface of its host?

A

Ectoparasite

230
Q

Definition

a chemical compound which composes 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores. It is implicated as responsible for the heat resistance of the endospore.

A

Dipicolinic acid

231
Q

Define

Pathogenicity island

A

distinct class of genomic islands acquired by microorganisms through horizontal gene transfer. They are found in both animal and plant pathogen

232
Q

Define

Pore-forming toxins

A

the most common bacterial cytotoxic proteins and are required for virulence in a large number of important pathogens that generally disrupt host cell membranes, but they can have additional effects independent of pore formation

233
Q

Define

Prions

A

an abnormal form of a normally harmless protein found in the brain that is responsible a variety of fatal neurodegenerative diseases

234
Q

What secondary cell polymers are found in the cell wall of a Gram-positive bacteria?

A

Teichoic acid

Lipoteichoic acid

235
Q

Which are usually more environmentally stable: Enveloped or naked viruses?

A

Naked viruses

236
Q

Definition

bacteria that do not retain the crystal violet stain used in the gram-staining method of bacterial differentiation

A

Gram negative

237
Q

Definition

a protein present in milk and other secretions, with bactericidal and iron-binding properties

A

Lactoferrin

238
Q

Gram-negative bacteria have a complex outer membrane. What does it contain?

A

Proteins

Lipoproteins

Phopholipids

Lipopolysaccharides

239
Q

Non-transducing retrovirus can cause cancer by:

Select one:

a. Integration into the genome near to a tumour suppressor gene, enhancing its expression
b. Integration within a proto-oncogene, silencing its expression
c. Sequestration of a tumour suppressor protein by viral early gene E7
d. Integration into the genome near to an oncogene, enhancing its expression

A

Non-transducing retrovirus can cause cancer by:

Select one:

a. Integration into the genome near to a tumour suppressor gene, enhancing its expression
b. Integration within a proto-oncogene, silencing its expression
c. Sequestration of a tumour suppressor protein by viral early gene E7

d. Integration into the genome near to an oncogene, enhancing its expression

240
Q

Define

Opportunistic pathogens

A

an infection caused by pathogens (bacteria, viruses, fungi, or protozoa) that take advantage of an opportunity not normally available, such as a host with a weakened immune system, an altered microbiota (such as a disrupted gut microbiota), or breached integumentary barriers

241
Q

Definition

four criteria designed to establish a causative relationship between a microbe and a disease

A

Koch’s postulates

242
Q

What is the most common type of plant pathogen?

A

Fungi

243
Q

What specialised organelles do Apicomplexa have?

A

Apicoplast

Apical complex

244
Q

Define

Flagellum

A

a slender threadlike structure, especially a microscopic appendage that enables many protozoa, bacteria, spermatozoa, etc. to swim

245
Q

What are the typical layers of a virus?

A
  1. Nucleic acid (DNA or RNA)
  2. Protein shell/capsid
  3. (Other layers ‘matrix’)
  4. (Envelope with glycoprotein)
246
Q

Define

Positive sense

A

referring to an RNA strand that can serve directly as messenger RNA and be transcribed into DNA

247
Q

Antibody-dependent enhancement (ADE)

A

occurs when non-neutralizing antiviral proteins facilitate virus entry into host cells, leading to increased infectivity in the cells

248
Q

Definition

A virus lacking the viral envelope

A

Naked virus

249
Q

Definition

a class of fibrous proteins that are found in pilus structures in bacteria

A

Pilin

250
Q

Bacteria that completely lack a peptidoglycan layer will have what result in a Gram stain?

A

Stains Gram negative

251
Q

Definition

a resistant asexual spore that develops inside some bacteria cells

A

Endospores

252
Q

What is the function of the cell wall of a bacteria?

A
  • Maintains shape of the bacterium
  • Provides strong structural support
    • Preventing bursting or collapsing due to osmotic pressure
  • Attachment site
  • Can contribute to pathogenicity
  • Can protect the cell from toxic substances
  • Site of action of some antibiotics
253
Q

Activation of the right operon (lytic genes) causes what in viruses?

A

Expression of lysis genes for replication, lysis and assembly

Repression of left operon promotor

254
Q

What are the two types of membrane-disrupting toxins?

A

Phospholipases

Pore-forming toxins

255
Q

Definition

a worm of the large phylum Nematoda, such as a roundworm or threadworm

A

Nematode

256
Q

Definition

the therapeutic use of bacteriophages to treat pathogenic bacterial infections

A

Phage therapy

257
Q

Define

Lactoferrin

A

a protein present in milk and other secretions, with bactericidal and iron-binding properties

258
Q

How can you get a giardia infection?

A
  • Swallowing Giardia picked up fro msurfaces that contain faeces from an infected person or animal
  • Drinking water or using ice made from water sources where Giardia may live
  • Swallowing water while swimming or playing in water where Giardia could be present
  • Eating uncooked food that contains Giardia organisms
  • Having contact with someone who is ill with giardiasis
  • Travelling to countries where giardiasis is endemic
259
Q

Definition

forcibly administer a drug in liquid form orally to (an animal)

A

Drenching

260
Q

Definition

a large phagocytic cell found in stationary form in the tissues or as a mobile white blood cell, especially at sites of infection

A

Macrophages

261
Q

Definition

Microbes inhabiting a body surface or cavity for a brief period of time, usually as a result of their promotion and selection by antibiotic therapy, chemotherapy, hospitalization, illness, or surgery

A

Transient flora

262
Q

What are the major impediments for the multiplication and dissemination of bacteria?

A

Immune system

Normal flora

Availability of nutrients

263
Q

What shaped bacteria are most likely to produce endospores?

A

Bacilli

264
Q

Define

Teichoic acid

A

a compound present in the walls of Gram-positive bacteria. It is a polymer of ribitol or glycerol phosphate

265
Q

True or False:

Most parasites are eukaryotic

A

True

266
Q

Define

Pili

A

a hair-like appendage found on the surface of many bacteria and archaea

267
Q

Definition

an antigen that occurs in the body of a gram-negative bacterial cell

A

O antigen

268
Q

Define

Nucleoid

A

an irregularly shaped region within the cell of a prokaryote that contains all or most of the genetic material, called genophore

269
Q
A
270
Q

True or False:

Viruses are considered obligate intracellular parasites

A

True

271
Q

Where are intracellular parasites found?

A

In a wide variety of cells (RBCs, macrophages, epithelial cells, brain, muscle etc.)

272
Q

Define

Germination

A

the process in which a spore begins to grow vegetative cells, and sporeling hyphae

273
Q

Definition

chemotrophs that are heterotrophic organisms. They are not capable of fixing carbon to form their own organic compounds

A

Chemoheterotrophs –

274
Q

What is the primary host of Toxoplasma?

A

Wild and domestic cats

275
Q

Definition

a strain of Methicillin-resistant bacteria.

A

MRSA

276
Q

Definition

a bacterium commonly found in the intestines of humans and other animals, some strains of which can cause severe food poisoning

A

E. coli

277
Q

What are the four Koch’s postulates?

A
  1. The microbe must be present in every case of the disease (and absent from healthy hosts)
  2. The microbe must be isolated from the diseased hosts and grown in pure culture
  3. The disease must (should) be reprodiced when a pure culture is introduced into a healthy (susceptible) host
  4. The microbe must be revoerable from an experimentally-infected host
278
Q

Define

IgA

A

an antibody that plays a crucial role in the immune function of mucous membranes

279
Q

Which mechanism is this?

A

Zipper mechanism

280
Q

Definition

a microscopic organism, especially a bacterium, virus, or fungus.

A

Microorganisms

281
Q

What are the 3 main structural forms of a virus?

A

Spherical

Helical

Complex

282
Q

Describe helical viruses

A

Rod shaped coat

Multiple repeating copies of protein coated onto the genome

Hollow tube, like a spiral staircase

283
Q

Define

Ectoparasite

A

parasitic organism that lives on the surface of its host

284
Q

Define

S. aureus

A

a Gram-positive, round-shaped bacterium that is a member of the Firmicutes, and it is a usual member of the microbiota of the body, frequently found in the upper respiratory tract and on the skin

285
Q

Define

Endospores

A

a resistant asexual spore that develops inside some bacteria cells

286
Q

Define

Anthelminthics

A

An agent that destroys or causes the expulsion of parasitic intestinal worms.

287
Q

Definition

any spherical or roughly spherical bacterium

A

Cocci

288
Q

Define

70S ribosome

A

the type of ribosome found in bacteria and archaea that are comprised of a small 30S subunit and large 50S subunit

289
Q

Definition

nuclear or cytoplasmic aggregates of stable substances, usually proteins. They typically represent sites of viral multiplication in a bacterium or a eukaryotic cell and usually consist of viral capsid proteins

A

Inclusion bodies

290
Q

Definition

A normal gene which, when altered by mutation, becomes an oncogene that can contribute to cancer

A

Protooncogenes

291
Q

Define

Sex pilus

A

structure that allow for the transfer of DNA between bacteria, in the process of bacterial conjugation

292
Q

When does Candida cause symptoms?

A

Overgrowth of these organisms

293
Q

Define

Peyer’s Patch

A

small masses of lymphatic tissue found throughout the ileum region of the small intestine

294
Q

Define

Prokaryotes

A

a microscopic single-celled organism which has neither a distinct nucleus with a membrane nor other specialized organelles, including the bacteria and cyanobacteria

295
Q

How does a virus switch from lysogenic to lytic?

A

SOS pathway

Produces protease (recA) following DNA damage which degrades repressor of lytic pathway

Lytic pathway activates and predominates

296
Q

How do extracellular protic parasites evade the immune system?

A

Avoiding recognisition of their plasma membrane

  • Antigenic variation of surface antigens
  • Polymorphisms in dominant surface antigens
  • Degrading complement
297
Q

Which mechanism is this?

A

Trigger mechanism

298
Q

Define

Dessication

A

the removal of moisture from something

299
Q

What are the two phases of a virus life cycle?

A

Virion phase

Infected cell phase

300
Q

Definition

microorganisms which are similar to bacteria in size and simplicity of structure but radically different in molecular organization. They are now believed to constitute an ancient group which is intermediate between the bacteria and eukaryotes

A

Archaea

301
Q

Define

Baltimore Classification Scheme

A

a virus classification system that groups viruses into families, depending on their type of genome (DNA, RNA, single-stranded (ss), double-stranded (ds), etc..) and their method of replication

302
Q

What bacteria produce superantigens?

A

Staph aureus

Strep pyogenes

303
Q

Define

Obligate intracellular pathogens

A

bacteria that cannot live outside the host cell

304
Q

What is the growth limiting nutirent for bacteria?

A

Iron

305
Q

Definition

the component of the 30S small subunit of a prokaryotic ribosome that binds to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence

A

16S rRNA

306
Q

Define

MRSA

A

a strain of Methicillin-resistant bacteria.

307
Q

Definition

an opportunistic pathogenic yeast that is a common member of the human gut flora. It can also survive outside the human body. It is detected in the gastrointestinal tract and mouth in 40–60% of healthy adults

A

Candida albicans

308
Q

Define

Cocci

A

any spherical or roughly spherical bacterium

309
Q

Define

Transposons

A

a chromosomal segment that can undergo transposition, especially a segment of bacterial DNA that can be translocated as a whole between chromosomal, phage, and plasmid DNA in the absence of a complementary sequence in the host DNA

310
Q

The cell wall of Gram positive bacteria is thicker than that of Gram negative bacteria

Select one:

True

False

A

The cell wall of Gram positive bacteria is thicker than that of Gram negative bacteria

Select one:

True

False

311
Q

Define

True hyphae

A

a long, branching filamentous structure of a fungus, oomycete, or actinobacterium

312
Q

What features fo archaea share with bacteria?

A
  • Anucleate cells
  • Cell envelope
  • Generally possess single circular chromosome
  • Vary shape and size
313
Q

Define

IgA protease

A

a highly specific 106kDa enzyme that cleaves amino acid sequences of certain proteins. The natural substrate of it is immunoglobulin A, hence its name

314
Q

What is the largest roundworm parasitising the human intestine?

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

315
Q

Define

Giadiasis

A

infection of the intestine with a flagellate protozoan, Giardia, which causes diarrhoea and other symptoms

316
Q

Define

Faculative anaerobes

A

an organism that makes ATP by aerobic respiration if oxygen is present, but is capable of switching to fermentation or anaerobic respiration if oxygen is absent

317
Q

Define

Viruses

A

an infective agent that typically consists of a nucleic acid molecule in a protein coat, is too small to be seen by light microscopy, and is able to multiply only within the living cells of a host

318
Q

Define

Capsid

A

the protein shell of a virus

319
Q

Definition

a microscopic single-celled organism which has neither a distinct nucleus with a membrane nor other specialized organelles, including the bacteria and cyanobacteria

A

Prokaryotes

320
Q

Define

PAMPs

A

molecules shared by groups of related microbes that are essential for the survival of those organisms and are not found associated with mammalian cells

321
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is different to Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria in that it has:

Select one:

a. LPS
b. mycolic acid
c. peptidoglycan
d. cell membrane

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is different to Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria in that it has:

Select one:

a. LPS

b. mycolic acid

c. peptidoglycan
d. cell membrane

322
Q

Definition

a flexible spirally twisted bacterium, especially one that causes syphilis

A

Spirochaete

323
Q

What are the characteristics of the genus Staphylococcus?

A
  • Gram positive cocci
  • Form irregular clusters
  • Non-motile
  • Faculative anaerobes
  • Catalase positive
324
Q

Definition

the property of causing disease

A

Pathogenicity

325
Q

How is (-) ssRNA converted into mRNA?

A

Needs to be converted into mRNA by RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

326
Q

Define

Provirus

A

the genetic material of a virus as incorporated into, and able to replicate with, the genome of a host cell

327
Q

Mariaus Demariaeii is a bacteria thought to cause an emerging hospital acquired infection frequently manifesting as necrotising fasciitis. It has been found that this bacterium frequently loses pathogenicity in culture. This is a limitation associated with which of Koch’s postulates?

Select one:

a. Postulate 2
b. Postulate 1
c. Postulate 3
d. Postulate 4

A

Mariaus Demariaeii is a bacteria thought to cause an emerging hospital acquired infection frequently manifesting as necrotising fasciitis. It has been found that this bacterium frequently loses pathogenicity in culture. This is a limitation associated with which of Koch’s postulates?

Select one:

a. Postulate 2
b. Postulate 1

c. Postulate 3

d. Postulate 4

328
Q

Define

Apical complex

A

A group of cytoskeletal structures and associated membrane-bounded organelles found at the anterior end of adult obligate intracellular protozoan parasites in the phylum Apicomplexa

329
Q

The peptidoglycan layer of Gram-negative bacteria is much thinner than Gram-positive bactera. What properties does this give Gram-negative bacteria?

A

Relatively greater flexibility

but sensitive to lysis

330
Q

Define

Contact transmission

A

a type of infection transmission that involves direct or indirect interaction between organisms

331
Q

Definition

a toxin released by a living bacterial cell into its surroundings

A

Exotoxins

332
Q

Definition

the smaller subunit of the 70S ribosome found in prokaryotes. It is a complex of the 16S ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and 19 proteins

A

30S ribosome

333
Q

Define

Vehicle transmission

A

the transmission of pathogens through vehicles such as water, food, and air

334
Q

Define

Nucleocapsid

A

the capsid of a virus with the enclosed nucleic acid

335
Q

Definition

the regulation of gene expression in response to fluctuations in cell-population density

A

Quorum sensing

336
Q

True or False:

There are virtually no known Archaea pathogens of humans

A

True

337
Q

Define

Giardia

A

a microscopic parasite that causes the diarrheal illness known as giardiasis

338
Q

What are the two types of bacterial toxins?

A

Exotoxins

Endotoxins

339
Q

Define

Enveloped virus

A

A virus that has an outer wrapping or envelope

340
Q

True or False:

Bacteria that completely lack peptidoglycan are insensitive to penicillin

A

True

341
Q

Definition

a small amoeboid sporozoan trophozoite (as of a malaria parasite) produced by schizogony that is capable of initiating a new sexual or asexual cycle of development

A

Merozoites

342
Q

Define

Lipoteichoic acid

A

a major constituent of the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria

343
Q

What are the limitations of Koch’s postulates?

A
  1. No host factors are taken into account (i.e. carrier states or opportunistic pathogens)
  2. Emphasis on ability to culture the organism
  3. Organisms can lose virulence/pathogenicity during laboratory cultre
  4. Disease may nor require the organism to infect the host (i.e. toxins)
  5. Requires a suitable/susceptible animal model
344
Q

What are some examples of protozoan diseases?

A

Toxoplasmosis

Cryptosporidiosis

Giardiasis

Malaria

345
Q

Define

Helminths

A

a parasitic worm; a fluke, tapeworm, or nematode

346
Q

Define

Aetiology

A

the cause, set of causes, or manner of causation of a disease or condition

347
Q

How can viruses cause cancer?

A

Activation of cellular oncogenes

Expression of their oncogenes

Inactivation of tumor supressors

348
Q

Define

Myocolic acid

A

long fatty acids found in the cell walls of the Mycolata taxon, a group of bacteria that includes Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the causative agent of the disease tuberculosis

349
Q

Definition

relationship between two species of plants or animals in which one benefits at the expense of the other, sometimes without killing the host organism

A

Parasitism

350
Q

Which one of these is not present in prokaryotes

Select one:

a. cell wall
b. spore
c. cell membrane
d. nucleus

A

Which one of these is not present in prokaryotes

Select one:

a. cell wall
b. spore
c. cell membrane

d. nucleus

351
Q

Define

Colonisation –

A

the presence of bacteria on a body surface (like on the skin, mouth, intestines or airway) without causing disease in the person

352
Q

Definition

a virus classification system that groups viruses into families, depending on their type of genome (DNA, RNA, single-stranded (ss), double-stranded (ds), etc..) and their method of replication

A

Baltimore Classification Scheme

353
Q

Definition

a very large structure of many bacteria. It is a polysaccharide layer that lies outside the cell envelope, and is thus deemed part of the outer envelope of a bacterial cell

A

Capsule

354
Q

_____________: the sum of the number of healthy years of life lost due to ill health, disability and premature death

A

Disability Adjusted Life Years (DALYs): the sum of the number of healthy years of life lost due to ill health, disability and premature death

355
Q

What part of the bacteria cell wall is unique to bacteria?

A

Pepidoglycan layer

356
Q

How do bacteria evade phagocytes?

A
  • Avoid being recognised or inhibit internalisation
  • Kill the phagocyte/induce apoptosis (antiphagocyte toxins)
  • Inhibition of phagolysosome (survive phagocytosis)
357
Q

What are the two stages of Giardia lamblia?

A

Resistant cyst stage

Vegetative trophozoite stage

358
Q

Definition

an infective agent that typically consists of a nucleic acid molecule in a protein coat, is too small to be seen by light microscopy, and is able to multiply only within the living cells of a host

A

Viruses

359
Q

What is the Selective media to identify S. aureus?

A

Mannitol salt agar

360
Q

Definition

parasitic organism that lives on the surface of its host

A

Ectoparasite

361
Q

Define

Capsule

A

a very large structure of many bacteria. It is a polysaccharide layer that lies outside the cell envelope, and is thus deemed part of the outer envelope of a bacterial cell

362
Q

What are the mechanisms of disease of viruses?

A
  1. Cell death (cytopathic)
  2. Immunipathology (overaggressive response)
  3. Immunosuppression
  4. Oncogenesis
363
Q

How are pregnany/immunocompromised individuals treated for Toxoplasmosis?

A

Antibiotics

364
Q

Definition

A virus that has an outer wrapping or envelope

A

Enveloped virus

365
Q

Define

Complement –

A

a part of the immune system that enhances the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear microbes and damaged cells from an organism, promote inflammation, and attack the pathogen’s cell membrane

366
Q

Define

Histones

A

any of a group of basic proteins found in chromatin

367
Q

Define

Eclipse period

A

the time between infection by (or induction of) a bacteriophage, or other virus, and the appearance of mature virus within the cell; an interval of time during which viral infectivity cannot be recovered

368
Q

Define

Mutualism

A

symbiosis which is beneficial to both organisms involved

369
Q

Definition

a growing stage in the life cycle of some sporozoan parasites, when they are absorbing nutrients from the host

A

Trophozoites

370
Q

Define

Sporozones

A

Any of many parasitic protozoans, of the class Sporozoa, that reproduce alternately sexually and asexually via spores; they are responsible for diseases such as malaria

371
Q

Define

Membrane-distrupting toxins

A

a toxin that cause host cells to lyse by forming pores in plasma membrane

372
Q

How do Plasmodium reproduce?

A

Sexual reproduction: in anopheles mosquito

Asexual reproduction: in human (called sporozoans) in which sporozones multiply to produce merezoites, these, in turn, become trophozoites

373
Q

Define

Superantigens

A

a class of antigens that result in excessive activation of the immune system. Specifically it causes non-specific activation of T-cells resulting in polyclonal T cell activation and massive cytokine release

374
Q

Definition

a long, branching filamentous structure of a fungus, oomycete, or actinobacterium

A

True hyphae

375
Q

Define

Mobile genetic element

A

DNA sequences that can move around the genome, changing their number of copies or simply changing their location, often affecting the activity of nearby genes

376
Q

How do bacteria outcompete host cells for iron?

A
  • Secreting very high affinity iron-chelators (siderophores) and have siderophore receptors to capture them
  • Expressing high-affinity iron-binding membrane proteins
  • Expressing receptors for iron capture proteins (e.g. lactoferrin, transferron) used by host
  • Express toxins to release host Fe
377
Q

Define

Endotoxins

A

a toxin present inside a bacterial cell that is released when it disintegrates

378
Q

True or False:

Fimbriae are larger than pili

A

False

Pili are larger than fimbriae

379
Q

Define

Retrovirus

A

any of a group of RNA viruses which insert a DNA copy of their genome into the host cell in order to replicate, e.g. HIV.

380
Q

Define

Lysogenic

A

a bacterial cell which can produce and transfer the ability to produce a phage

381
Q

Definition

structure that allow for the transfer of DNA between bacteria, in the process of bacterial conjugation

A

Sex pilus

382
Q

What are the symptoms of Giardia infections?

A

Diarrhea

Gas

Greasy stool

Stomach cramps

Nausea

Dehydration

383
Q

What surrounding the peptidoglycan layer is unique to Gram-negative bacteria?

A

Periplasmic space

384
Q

What is the function and importance of the LPS layer?

A
  • Contributes to the structural integrity of the outer membrane and forms a permeability barrier for certain chemicals
  • Increases the negative charge of the cell membrane and helps stabilise overall memebrane structure
  • Essential for bacterial survival - so possible therapeutic target
  • Collectively highly immunogenic… but ‘molecular mimicry’ and rapid antigenic variation provided by the glycan O
  • The lipid A portion is a major, potent endotoxin
385
Q

Define

Gram negative

A

bacteria that do not retain the crystal violet stain used in the gram-staining method of bacterial differentiation

386
Q

Definition

a disease caused by toxoplasmas, transmitted chiefly through undercooked meat, soil, or in cat faeces. Symptoms of infection generally pass unremarked in adults, but can be dangerous to unborn children.

A

Toxoplasmosis

387
Q

Define

Chemoheterotrophs –

A

chemotrophs that are heterotrophic organisms. They are not capable of fixing carbon to form their own organic compounds

388
Q

Definition

a genetic structure in a cell that can replicate independently of the chromosomes, typically a small circular DNA strand in the cytoplasm of a bacterium or protozoan

A

Plasmid

389
Q

Define

Lysis

A

the disintegration of a cell by rupture of the cell wall or membrane.

390
Q

Which part of the cell do most viruses replicate?

A

Nucleus

391
Q

How do intracellular protists evade the immune system?

A

By hiding inside a cell

392
Q

Definition

long fatty acids found in the cell walls of the Mycolata taxon, a group of bacteria that includes Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the causative agent of the disease tuberculosis

A

Myocolic acid

393
Q

Capsules play an essential role in bacterial pathogenesis because they:

Select one or more:

a. Are involved in bacterial motility
b. Are involved in the transfer of genetic material
c. Prevent phagocytosis
d. Allow evasion of antigen-specific antibody responses
e. Cause sepsis
f. Prevent osmotic lysis
g. Are involved in adhesion

A

Capsules play an essential role in bacterial pathogenesis because they:

Select one or more:

a. Are involved in bacterial motility
b. Are involved in the transfer of genetic material

c. Prevent phagocytosis

d. Allow evasion of antigen-specific antibody responses

e. Cause sepsis
f. Prevent osmotic lysis

g. Are involved in adhesion

394
Q

Definition

a subunit of the capsid, an outer covering of protein that protects the genetic material of a virus

A

Capsomeres

395
Q

Which one of the following describes the three structural types of a viral capsid?

Select one:

a. Helical, complex or icosahedral.
b. Spherical, icosahedral or complex
c. Helical, dodecahedral or complex
d. Complex, helical or cubic.

A

Which one of the following describes the three structural types of a viral capsid?

Select one:

a. Helical, complex or icosahedral.

b. Spherical, icosahedral or complex
c. Helical, dodecahedral or complex
d. Complex, helical or cubic.

396
Q

What are the symtoms of Toxoplasmosis in healthy individuals?

A
  • Acute systemic inflammatory response (mostly clinically unapparent)
    • Most common ‘flu-like’, swollen lymph glands, muscle/bone aches and pains
    • Infrequent, severe GI involvement associated with parasite infection
  • Symptoms often resolve quickly but result in a chronic infection with formation of tissue cysts; may or may not be symptomatic depending on the location of the cysts
397
Q

Definition

a class of antigens that result in excessive activation of the immune system. Specifically it causes non-specific activation of T-cells resulting in polyclonal T cell activation and massive cytokine release

A

Superantigens

398
Q

The Baltimore Scheme classifies viruses based on what?

A
  1. Nature of genome nucleic acid
  2. Mechanisms to generate mRNA (and replicated the genome)
  3. How they make more genome
399
Q

What causes Cryptosporidiosis?

A

Cryptosporidium infection

400
Q

What happens during the intestinal phase of roundworm?

A

The intestinal phase causes malnourishment, intestinal blockage. It will move around the body in response to chemotherapy or fever. Typically occurs 6 - 8 weeks after initial exposure

401
Q

Definition

an irregularly shaped region within the cell of a prokaryote that contains all or most of the genetic material, called genophore

A

Nucleoid

402
Q

Definition

a person or other organism that has been infected with a pathogen for a long time who may or may not be symptomatic

A

Chronic carrier

403
Q

True or False:

Viruses all evolved from a single common ancestor

A

False

404
Q

Define

Quorum sensing

A

the regulation of gene expression in response to fluctuations in cell-population density

405
Q

Definition

Factor(s) required by the microorganism that enable it to cause disease

A

Virulence factor

406
Q

Definition

a parasitic coccidian protozoan found in the intestinal tract of many vertebrates, where it sometimes causes disease.

A

Cryptosporidium

407
Q

Which structure confers host specificity?

A

Tip of the pilus

408
Q

Definition

the process in which a spore begins to grow vegetative cells, and sporeling hyphae

A

Germination

409
Q

‘Blueberry muffin’ skin is typical of which condition?

A

Congenital toxoplasmosis

410
Q

Which of the following AB toxin(s) are associated with alterations in muscle function?

Select one or more:

a. Botulinum toxin
b. Tetanus toxin
c. Diphtheria toxin
d. Cholera toxin

A

Which of the following AB toxin(s) are associated with alterations in muscle function?

Select one or more:

a. Botulinum toxin

b. Tetanus toxin

c. Diphtheria toxin
d. Cholera toxin

411
Q

Definition

a disease caused by any fungus that invades the tissues, causing superficial, subcutaneous, or systemic disease

A

Human mycoses

412
Q

What do virulence factors mediate?

A
  • Colonisation of de novo niches in the body
  • Adhesion (ligands for host cell-expressed proteins)
  • Invasion
  • Immune evasion mechanisms (e.g. bacterial capsules)
  • Tissue damage (toxins)
413
Q

Definition

a type of infection transmission that involves direct or indirect interaction between organisms

A

Contact transmission

414
Q

Describe complex viruses

A

Large viruses; mixture of shapes, no consistent symmetry

415
Q

Define

Lipid A

A

a lipid component of an endotoxin held responsible for the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. It is the innermost of the three regions of the lipopolysaccharide (LPS), also called endotoxin molecule, and its hydrophobic nature allows it to anchor the LPS to the outer membrane

416
Q

Define

Tumour-supressor gene

A

a gene that protects a cell from one step on the path to cancer

417
Q

Which one of these features is present in a Gram negative bacterium but absent in a Gram positive bacterium?

Select one:

a. Peptidoglycan layer
b. Periplasmic space
c. cytoplasmic membrane
d. LPS layer

A

Which one of these features is present in a Gram negative bacterium but absent in a Gram positive bacterium?

Select one:

a. Peptidoglycan layer
b. Periplasmic space
c. cytoplasmic membrane

d. LPS layer

418
Q

What is the difference between the CG content of pathogenicity islands compared to host DNA?

A

There is less C+G in pathogenicity islands

419
Q

Definition

the presence of bacteria on a body surface (like on the skin, mouth, intestines or airway) without causing disease in the person

A

Colonisation –

420
Q

Define

Virome

A

collection of nucleic acids, both RNA and DNA, that make up the viral community associated with a particular ecosystem or holobiont

421
Q

Viruses cannot grow outside their host cells.

Select one:

True

False

A

Viruses cannot grow outside their host cells.

Select one:

True

False

422
Q

Definition

an enzyme which catalyses the formation of DNA from an RNA template in reverse transcription.

A

Reverse transcriptase

423
Q

Definition

a substance forming the cell walls of many bacteria, consisting of glycosaminoglycan chains interlinked with short peptides

A

Peptidoglycan

424
Q

Definition

a strain of Staphylococcus aureus that is resistant to the antibiotic called vancomycin

A

VRSA

425
Q

Definition

cell-surface components or appendages of bacteria that facilitate adhesion or adherence to other cells or to surfaces, usually the host they are infecting or living in

A

Adhesins –

426
Q

Define

Host tropism

A

the infection specificity of certain pathogens to particular hosts and host tissues

427
Q

How does latent infection occur?

A

VP16 and HCF in cytoplasm of neurons (instead of nucleus)

Causes IE genes to be repressed

Latency associated transcript (LAT) expressed

LAT promotes heterochromatic formation

Genome associates with heterochromatin

428
Q

Commensal bacteria could become a pathogen through acquisition of virulence factors by?

Select one:

a. Infection with a lytic bacteriophage
b. Excision of a pathogenicity island
c. Quorum sensing to adapt to life in a biofilm
d. Integration of a transposon

A

Commensal bacteria could become a pathogen through acquisition of virulence factors by?

Select one:

a. Infection with a lytic bacteriophage
b. Excision of a pathogenicity island
c. Quorum sensing to adapt to life in a biofilm

d. Integration of a transposon

429
Q

Where do Cryptosporidium undergo their sexual cycle?

A

In the vertebrate host (no insect vector)

430
Q

How is (+) ssRNA converted into mRNA?

A

They are equivalent so can be directly translated by the cell

431
Q

Define

Budding

A

a form of viral shedding by which enveloped viruses acquire their external envelope from the host cell membrane, which bulges outwards and encloses the virion

432
Q

What are the four main modes of pathogen transmission?

A

Airborne

Contact

Vehicle

Vector borne

433
Q

Define

Colicins

A

a bacteriocin produced by a coliform bacterium

434
Q

Define

Inclusion bodies

A

nuclear or cytoplasmic aggregates of stable substances, usually proteins. They typically represent sites of viral multiplication in a bacterium or a eukaryotic cell and usually consist of viral capsid proteins

435
Q

What causes Malaria?

A

Plasmodium infection

436
Q

Define

Gram stain

A

a staining technique for the preliminary identification of bacteria, in which a violet dye is applied, followed by a decolorizing agent and then a red dye. The cell walls of certain bacteria (denoted Gram-positive ) retain the first dye and appear violet, while those that lose it (denoted Gram-negative ) appear red

437
Q

Definition

the disintegration of a cell by rupture of the cell wall or membrane.

A

Lysis

438
Q

Definition

any of a group of basic proteins found in chromatin

A

Histones

439
Q

Definition

one of the two cycles of viral reproduction that results in the destruction of the infected cell and its membrane

A

Lytic cycle

440
Q

Definition

a bacteriocin produced by a coliform bacterium

A

Colicins

441
Q

How do bacteria mimic host cells to avoid antibodies?

A

Make capsules with sugars mimicking host surface glycoproteins

442
Q

In class 1 viruses, where does the reverse transcriptase for early genes come from?

A

The viral genome

443
Q

Definition

a slender threadlike structure, especially a microscopic appendage that enables many protozoa, bacteria, spermatozoa, etc. to swim

A

Flagellum

444
Q

A Gram stain was carried out it was observed that bacteria appeared purple in colour and appeared as cocci in clusters. Given this information which one of the genus would this bacteria most likely belong to:

Select one:

a. Bacillus
b. Streptococcus
c. Escherichia
d. Staphylococcus

A

A Gram stain was carried out it was observed that bacteria appeared purple in colour and appeared as cocci in clusters. Given this information which one of the genus would this bacteria most likely belong to:

Select one:

a. Bacillus
b. Streptococcus
c. Escherichia

d. Staphylococcus

445
Q

Definition

the time between infection by (or induction of) a bacteriophage, or other virus, and the appearance of mature virus within the cell; an interval of time during which viral infectivity cannot be recovered

A

Eclipse period

446
Q

Antibodies may neutralise bacteria by:

Select one:

a. Lysing them with the assistance of complement
b. Preventing them from secreting toxin molecules
c. Preventing their attachment to cell surfaces
d. Causing them to agglutinate.

A

Antibodies may neutralise bacteria by:

Select one:

a. Lysing them with the assistance of complement
b. Preventing them from secreting toxin molecules

c. Preventing their attachment to cell surfaces

d. Causing them to agglutinate.

447
Q

Define

Bacilli

A

a rod-shaped bacterium

448
Q

What are the four steps in bacteria causing disease?

A
  1. Exposure
  2. Adherance
  3. Penetration/invasion
  4. Colonisation and growth
449
Q

Define

Parasites

A

an organism that lives in or on an organism of another species (its host) and benefits by deriving nutrients at the other’s expense

450
Q

Describe the life cycle of Giardia

A
451
Q

What are the two types of food born disease?

A

True infection (slow response)

Intoxication (immediate response)

452
Q

What is a viron called that isn’t surrounded by a membrane? What is it called when it is?

A

Nucleocapsid = Naked Virus

Nucleocapsid + membrane = Enveloped Virus

453
Q

Define

Apicomplexa

A

a large phylum of parasitic alveolates. Most of them possess a unique form of organelle that comprises a type of plastid called an apicoplast, and an apical complex structure

454
Q

Define

Koch’s postulates

A

four criteria designed to establish a causative relationship between a microbe and a disease

455
Q

Define

Endoparasite

A

parasitic organism that lives within the host

456
Q

Define

Eukaryotes

A

an organism consisting of a cell or cells in which the genetic material is DNA in the form of chromosomes contained within a distinct nucleus. They include all living organisms other than the eubacteria and archaea

457
Q

Definition

a proliferation of a harmful strain of bacteria on or inside the body

A

Infection

458
Q

Definition

a chromosomal segment that can undergo transposition, especially a segment of bacterial DNA that can be translocated as a whole between chromosomal, phage, and plasmid DNA in the absence of a complementary sequence in the host DNA

A

Transposons

459
Q

Define

Phospholipases

A

An enzyme that catalyzes the splitting of a phospholipid molecule by the addition of water

460
Q

What are the 5 basic steps of viral cell infection?

A
  1. Attachment: Enter host organism, ‘recognise’ specific target cell/tissue: attach to correct host cell
  2. Penetration/uncoating: Uncoating/release/exposure of genome payload: access to cellular components
  3. Gene expression/replication: Synthesis of virion components (Protein and nucleic acid)
  4. Assembly of virions: Self-assembly of structural subunits (genome and protein); packaging of nucleic acid, maturation
  5. Release of virions (budding, lysis etc.)
461
Q

Why is the presence of D-amino acids in the peptidoglycan layer importent to bacteria survival?

A

D-amino acids protect against degradation by most peptidases since peptidases only recognise L-isomers of AA residues

462
Q

Define

Peptidoglycan

A

a substance forming the cell walls of many bacteria, consisting of glycosaminoglycan chains interlinked with short peptides

463
Q

Definition

occurs when non-neutralizing antiviral proteins facilitate virus entry into host cells, leading to increased infectivity in the cells

A

Antibody-dependent enhancement (ADE)

464
Q

Viruses are very useful to which areas of modern science?

A

Oncolytic virotherapy

Phage therapy

Reverse transcriptase

Viral gene therapy

Lentivirus transduction

465
Q

Definition

an antibody that plays a crucial role in the immune function of mucous membranes

A

IgA

466
Q

Definition

the major component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria

A

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) layer

467
Q

Which endotoxin often leads to septic shock? How?

A

LPS which contains Lipid A (which is highly toxic to all animals) stimulates release of IL-1 and TNF which is detected by Toll-like receptor 4 and initiates an innate inflammatory signalling cascade

468
Q

What happens during the lung phase of roundworm?

A

A. lumbricoides is known as Ascaris pneumontis. In the lung it causes hemorrhage, inflammation, bacterial infection. It also causes allergy in areas with seasonal transmission. Typically occurs at 6-14 days after initial exposure

469
Q

Definition

any curved-rod shaped bacterium

A

Comma’s

470
Q

True or False:

Humans are very vulnerable to fungi

A

False

Humans are relatively resistant

471
Q

Definition

two-component protein complexes secreted by a number of pathogenic bacteria. They can be classified as Type III toxins because they interfere with internal cell function

A

A-B toxins –

472
Q

Define

Cryptosporidium

A

a parasitic coccidian protozoan found in the intestinal tract of many vertebrates, where it sometimes causes disease.

473
Q

Definition

a part of the immune system that enhances the ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear microbes and damaged cells from an organism, promote inflammation, and attack the pathogen’s cell membrane

A

Complement –

474
Q

Definition

A group of cytoskeletal structures and associated membrane-bounded organelles found at the anterior end of adult obligate intracellular protozoan parasites in the phylum Apicomplexa

A

Apical complex

475
Q

Definition

a form of viral shedding by which enveloped viruses acquire their external envelope from the host cell membrane, which bulges outwards and encloses the virion

A

Budding

476
Q

Definition

a protein produced by bacteria of one strain and active against those of a closely related strain

A

Bacteriocins

477
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of parasitism to the parasite?

A
  • Provision of nutrients (often essential) +
  • Protection from environment, host immune system etc. +
  • Host controls and regulates parasite growth and development (host immune system) -
478
Q

Define

Bacteria

A

a member of a large group of unicellular microorganisms which have cell walls but lack organelles and an organized nucleus, including some which can cause disease

479
Q

Definition

parasitic organism that lives within the host

A

Endoparasite

480
Q

How do microbes avoid phagocytes?

A

Avoid recognition, internalisation, destruction or phagocytosis

481
Q

Define

Biofilms

A

a thin but robust layer of mucilage adhering to a solid surface and containing a community of bacteria and other microorganisms

482
Q

Definition

a disease which can be transmitted to humans from animals

A

Zoonoses

483
Q

Activation of the left operon (lysogenic genes) causes what in viruses?

A

Expression of lysogeny genes including integrase

Repression of right operon promotor

484
Q

Define

Human mycoses

A

a disease caused by any fungus that invades the tissues, causing superficial, subcutaneous, or systemic disease

485
Q

Definition

a bacterial cell which can produce and transfer the ability to produce a phage

A

Lysogenic

486
Q

Definition

a member of a large group of unicellular microorganisms which have cell walls but lack organelles and an organized nucleus, including some which can cause disease

A

Bacteria

487
Q

What two mechanisms mediate bacterial invasion?

A

Zipper mechanism

Trigger mechanism

488
Q

Definition

a highly specific 106kDa enzyme that cleaves amino acid sequences of certain proteins. The natural substrate of it is immunoglobulin A, hence its name

A

IgA protease

489
Q

Definition

the genetic material of a virus as incorporated into, and able to replicate with, the genome of a host cell

A

Provirus

490
Q

Define

Airborne transmission

A

a type of transmission that occurs when bacteria or viruses travel on dust particles or on small respiratory droplets that may become aerosolized when people sneeze, cough, laugh, or exhale

491
Q

How are virulence factors acquired?

A

Through mobile genetic elements

492
Q

What do superantigens do?

A

Cause T-cell activation without the antigen present. It does this by cross-linking MHC class II molecules on antigen-presenting cells and T-cell receptors on CD4+ T cells

493
Q

True or False:

In bacterial germination, one spore gives rise to one cell

A

True

494
Q

What feature of acid-fast bacteria makes it impenetrable to most organic molecules including antibiotics?

A

The thick waxy nature of the lipids in the cell wall

495
Q

What is the function of bacterial capsules?

A

Physical barrier that protects the bacteria cell:

  • Protect against desiccation
  • Prevents bacteriophages from attachment and infection
  • Protects against phagocytosis
496
Q

How can the genetic material of viruses vary?

A

Some viruses have DNA; can be:

  • Double-stranded (ds)
  • Gapped
  • Single-stranded (ss)
  • Linear, circular

Other viruses have RNA; can be:

  • Single-stranded (ss)
  • Double-stranded (ds)
  • Can be in positive (+) or negative (-) sense
  • Can be a single piece (non-segmented)
  • Can be mutliple pieces (segmented)
497
Q

Definition

the protein shell of a virus

A

Capsid

498
Q

Definition

a toxin present inside a bacterial cell that is released when it disintegrates

A

Endotoxins

499
Q

Define

VRSA

A

a strain of Staphylococcus aureus that is resistant to the antibiotic called vancomycin

500
Q

Define

Noscomial infections

A

infections that have been caught in a hospital and are potentially caused by organisms that are resistant to antibiotics

501
Q

What does the life-cycle of Cryptosporidium include?

A

A single oocyst and a trophozoite stage

502
Q

Define

Capsomeres

A

a subunit of the capsid, an outer covering of protein that protects the genetic material of a virus

503
Q

Define

Cestodes

A

a parasitic flatworm; a tapeworm.

504
Q

What is the lifecycle of a tapeworm?

A
505
Q

Definition

a hair-like appendage found on the surface of many bacteria and archaea

A

Pili

506
Q

Define

Elogate pseudohyphae

A

A chain of easily disrupted fungal cells that is intermediate between a chain of budding cells and a true hypha, marked by constrictions rather than septa at the junctions

507
Q

What is the difference between resident flora and transient flora?

A

Resident flora is always present but transient flora is not

508
Q

How do membrane-disrupting toxins work?

A

Lyse host cells by disrupting the integrity of their plasma membrane

509
Q

What surrounds all viruses?

A

Capsid

510
Q

What is the difference between transducing and non-transducing retroviruses?

A

Transducing:

  • Inset within a protooncogene
    • Transcribed together
  • Carry a dominant oncogene

Non-transducing:

  • Inserts near a protooncogene
  • The provirus promotor activates a cellular oncogene in cis
511
Q

Definition

an infected individual who is not obviously diseases. Can be incubatory or convalescent

A

Acute carrier

512
Q

Define

Virions

A

the complete, infective form of a virus outside a host cell, with a core of RNA and a capsid

513
Q

Define

Spirochaete

A

a flexible spirally twisted bacterium, especially one that causes syphilis

514
Q

Which protein stimulates cellular DNA-dependent RNA polemerase to transcribe IE genes?

A

Viral protein VP16

515
Q

What is the most common pathogenic Candida?

A

Candida albicans

516
Q

Excavata have ______ plastids and _________ mitochondria

A

Excavata have no plastids and highly reduced mitochondria

517
Q

Definition

a parasitic worm; a fluke, tapeworm, or nematode

A

Helminths

518
Q

Definition

structural changes in host cells that are caused by viral invasion

A

Cytopathic

519
Q

True or False:

Cryptosporidium have both an apicoplast and apical complex

A

False

They don’t have a apicoplast

520
Q

Definition

a concentrated gel-like matrix in the space between the inner cytoplasmic membrane and the bacterial outer membrane called the periplasmic space in gram-negative bacteria

A

Periplasmic space

521
Q

Define

Chronic carrier

A

a person or other organism that has been infected with a pathogen for a long time who may or may not be symptomatic

522
Q

Define

Candidiasis

A

infection with candida, especially as causing oral or vaginal thrush

523
Q

Define

Plasmodia

A

a parasitic protozoan of a genus which includes those causing malaria.

524
Q

Define

Golden staph

A

a common bacterium that lives on the skin or in the nose and in most situations it is harmless. However, if it enters the body through a cut in the skin, it can cause a range of mild to severe infections, which may cause death in some cases. Also known as S. aureus

525
Q

Define

Protooncogenes

A

A normal gene which, when altered by mutation, becomes an oncogene that can contribute to cancer

526
Q

Definition

bacteria that give a positive result in the Gram stain test, which is traditionally used to quickly classify bacteria into two broad categories according to their cell wall.

A

Gram positive

527
Q

Definition

a parasitic protozoan of a genus which includes those causing malaria.

A

Plasmodia

528
Q

What are the different modes of transmission for protozoan parasites?

A

Insect/tick vectors

Ingestion of infective stage

Venereal transmission (STDs)

529
Q

How strong is the adhesion formed by pili/fibriae and adhesins?

A

Afibrial adhesins: Strong

Pili/fimbriae: Loose

530
Q

What is the most widespread and dangerous species of Plasmodium?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

Can lead to cerebral malaria