Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BMS2052 > Current Challenges in Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Current Challenges in Infectious Disease Flashcards

1
Q

How are there different rabies P-protein isoforms?

A

Differing Kozak sequences around start codons that determine the likelihood of the ribosome initiating translation at that site. Results in 5 different P-proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Definition

denoting or relating to a cell-produced substance that has an effect on the cell by which it is secreted

A

Autocrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Definition

A bacterium that is the most common cause of gas gangrene, a lethal infection of soft tissue, especially muscle

A

C. perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Definition

Lyssavirus protein that encapsidates the genome; required for transcription and replication

A

Nucleoprotein (N)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Definition

Lyssavirus protein required for viral assembly and budding

A

Matrix (M)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

These type of spores indicate what type of Clostridium?

A

C. tetani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define

Dysbiosis

A

a term for a microbial imbalance or maladaptation on or inside the body, such as an impaired microbiota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does DNA dependent RNA polymerase do?

A

Transcribes DNA into RNA

aka RNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Definition

a toxin produced in or affecting the intestines, such as those causing food poisoning or cholera

A

Enterotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which rabies proteins help form the Negri Bodies?

A

N and P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Definition

family of proteins, which function as general cross-linkers between plasma membrane proteins and the actin cytoskeleton and are involved in the functional expression of membrane proteins at the cell surface

A

Ezrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define

Glycoprotein (G)

A

Lyssavirus protein found on the outside or particle, immunogenic; required for viral entry into host cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define

Ovoid subterminal (OST) spores

A

The ovoid shaped spores that most Clostridium spp., including C. perfringens and C. botulinum have

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What makes up the nucleocapsid of the Rabies virus?

A

The nucleocapsid is a Ribonucleoprotein (RNP) - complex composed of RNA and proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define

Adherens junctions (AJ)

A

a cell junction whose cytoplasmic face is linked to the actin cytoskeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List the enterotoxic Clostridia

A

C. perfrigens

C. difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Definition

tiny, self-organized three-dimensional tissue cultures that are derived from stem cells

A

Organoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What form is the Rabies virus genetic material in?

A

Negative sense RNA

(-)ssRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does Rabies virus travel from the bite site to the brain?

A

Retrograde axonal transport along the microtubules of neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which species of Clostridia cause tetanus?

A

C. tetani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which toxin is responsible for intestinal necrosis seen in C. perfringens?

A

β-toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the three broad strategies that viruses have to avoid IFN action?

A
  1. General inhibition of host gene expression
  2. Sequestration/masking of PAMPs
  3. Sequestration/modification of signally components
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define

RNA antigenome

A

The complementary strand of RNA from which the genome of a virus is constructed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which Rabies genes are required for RNA synthesis?

A

N, P and L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

List the neurotoxic Clostridia

A

C. tetani

C. botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the basic characteristics of Clostridium?

A

Gram-positive rods

Obligate anaerobes

Form heat resistant endospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Define

Dead-end host

A

a host from which infectious agents are not transmitted to other susceptible hosts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define

Hydrophobia

A

extreme or irrational fear of water, especially as a symptom of rabies in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When is the tetanus toxin released?

A

Released when the bacteria die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How does Rabies virus enter cells?

A

Rabies virus enters by receptor-mediated endocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the new C. difficile treatments under consideration?

A
  • Probiotics
  • Intravenous IgG antibodies (containing human anti-toxin IgG)
  • Monoclonal antibodies for passive immunotherapy
  • Passive polyclonal immunotherapy (cow colostrum; egg yolk antibodies)
  • Faecal transplant therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Definition

a virus that can be transmitted from bats to humans, causing serious illness

A

Australian Bat Lyssavirus (ABLV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What do you need to make a modified Rabies virus?

A

Rabies genome

N-protein

P-protein

L-protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Describe the structure of the Rabies P-protein

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define

Clostridium

A

an anaerobic bacterium of a large genus that includes many pathogenic species, e.g. those causing tetanus, gas gangrene, botulism, and other forms of food poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

This posture is typical of which type of C. perfringens infection?

A

Type D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the species of Clostridia cause botulism?

A

C. botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Definition

A transmembrane protein that links plasma membranes of adjacent cells together in a Ca2+-dependent manner; aids in maintaining the rigidity of the cell layer

A

E-cadherin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are Negri Bodies?

A

Membrane-less cytoplasmic inclusions caused by Rabies infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Definition

The complementary strand of RNA from which the genome of a virus is constructed

A

RNA antigenome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Definition

a contagious and fatal viral disease of dogs and other mammals, transmissible through the saliva to humans and causing madness and convulsions

A

Rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Definition

a nucleic acid motif that functions as the translation initiation site in most mRNA (link) transcripts

A

Kozak sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Definition

a Gram-positive, rod-shaped, anaerobic, spore-forming, motile bacterium with the ability to produce the neurotoxin botulinum

A

Clostridium botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Definition

Lyssavirus protein required for replication and transcription; also known as RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

A

Large protein (L)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the order of Rabies virus genes?

A

N, P, M, G then L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Define

Clostridium tetani

A

the bacteria responsible for the often fatal disease tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which toxin is responsible for the histotoxic effects of C. perfringens?

A

α-toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Define

Encephalitis

A

inflammation of the brain, caused by infection or an allergic reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

True or False:

Rabies viruses only use one method to disrupt the IFN pathway

A

False

Viruses use many ways to disrupt IFN pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the three main types of IFN?

A

Type I: IFNα and IFNβ - direct response to infection broad cellular expression and receptors

Type II: IFNγ - immune cells

Type III: IFNλ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Define

Negri bodies

A

eosinophilic, sharply outlined, pathognomonic inclusion bodies (2–10 μm in diameter) found in the cytoplasm of certain nerve cells containing the virus of rabies, especially in pyramidal cells within Ammon’s horn of the hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What makes up the three main components of the assembled Rabies virus?

A
  1. Nucleocaspid (RNA, N, P, L)
  2. M (at plasma membrane)
  3. G (glycosylated - sugar groups added)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What shape are Rabies viruses?

A

Helical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

List the 4 different ways that the rabies P-protein inhibits IFN signalling

A
  1. P binds and prevents nuclear import of STAT1/2
  2. P traffics into nucleus and brings STATs out
  3. Nuclear P3 isoform binds STATs in nucleus and prevents bind to DNA
  4. P3 binds STATs and arrests them on microtubules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Definition

a toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium perfringens (C. perfringens) and is responsible for gas gangrene and myonecrosis in infected tissues

A

α-toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What type of spores do most Clostridium spp. including C. sporogenes and C. botulinum produce?

A

Ovoid subterminal (OST) spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Define

Mononegavirus infections

A

the taxonomic home of numerous related viruses. Members of the order that are commonly known are, for instance, Ebola virus, human respiratory syncytial virus, measles virus, mumps virus, Nipah virus, and rabies virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What toxins do Type C C. perfrigens infections involve?

A

α and β toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Define

Sporulation

A

the formation of nearly dormant forms of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How many genes do Lyssaviruses encode? What are they?

A

5

N, P, M, G, L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the new name for the Clostrdium species?

A

Clostridioides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What does the α-toxin of Clostridia do?

A

Phospholipase

Disrupts host-cell plasma membranes

Extensive destruction of cells and tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Define

Anaerobic jars

A

an instrument used in the production of an anaerobic environment. This method of anaerobiosis as others is used to culture bacteria which die or fail to grow in presence of oxygen (anaerobes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What happens to epithelial cell polarity in C. difficile infection?

A

Completely disrupted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

True or False

Both botulism and tetanus can be prevented with a vaccine

A

False

Tetanus has a toxoid vaccine available but botulism has no vaccine available (antitoxin can be used)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which Rabies protein binds to N-RNA and L (linking them together)?

A

P protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Definition

relating to or denoting a hormone which has effect only in the vicinity of the gland secreting it

A

Paracrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What causes sporulation?

A

Adverse conditions

70
Q

Define

Anaerobic chamber

A

atmosphere control units designed to be used when working with oxygen sensitive materials, product containment needs, and/or general isolation control

71
Q

The Rabies genome (-RNA) makes _________ (+RNA) in order to make new genomes

A

The Rabies genome (-RNA) makes antigenome (+RNA) in order to make new genomes

72
Q

Define

botulinum neurotoxin (BoNT)

A

a neurotoxic protein produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum and related species

73
Q

List the histotoxic Clostridia

A

C. perfrigens

C. septicum

C. sordellii

74
Q

Where does replicaiton of the Rabies viral genome occur?

A

In “liquid” Negri Bodies

75
Q

What are the three groups of pathogenic clostridia?

A

Neurotoxin

Enterotoxix

Histotoxic

76
Q

Oxygen causes Clostridium to do what?

A

Form endospores

77
Q

Definition

a cell junction whose cytoplasmic face is linked to the actin cytoskeleton

A

Adherens junctions (AJ)

78
Q

What conditions often develop following microbiota dysbiosis?

A

Candida

C. difficile infection

79
Q

Which type of Clostridia causes gas gangrene?

A

C. perfringens

80
Q

What function do many IFN stimulated genes (ISGs) have?

A

Antiviral properties

81
Q

Are Rabies viruses enveloped or naked?

A

Enveloped

82
Q

True or False

All strains of C. difficile have toxins A and B

A

False

Only virulent strains have the toxins

83
Q

What does C. difficile do to tight junctions in the intestial epithelium?

A

C. diff infection disrupts the junctions between cells

84
Q

Definition

extreme or irrational fear of water, especially as a symptom of rabies in humans

A

Hydrophobia

85
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of Type D C. perfringens infections

A

Pro-ε-toxin: produced in intestine

=

Activated by trypsin/other proteases

=

Increases intestinal pemeability

=

Absorbed into systemic circulation

=

Endothelial cells of brain, kidney etc.

86
Q

Define

Histotoxic

A

poisonous to tissue.

87
Q

Define

C. perfringens

A

A bacterium that is the most common cause of gas gangrene, a lethal infection of soft tissue, especially muscle

88
Q

Define

Clostridium botulinum

A

a Gram-positive, rod-shaped, anaerobic, spore-forming, motile bacterium with the ability to produce the neurotoxin botulinum

89
Q

Why is Rabies almost impossible to completely eliminate?

A

There are so many wild-life reservoirs

90
Q

Define

Organoid

A

tiny, self-organized three-dimensional tissue cultures that are derived from stem cells

91
Q

What are the current C. difficile treatments?

A
  • Discontinuation of antibiotic and fluid replacement
  • More antibiotics!
    • Oral metronidazole and/or vancomycin
      • Relapses occur
      • Other antibiotics are also undergoing trials or have been approved, (eg fidaxomicin; narrow host range)
92
Q

What must Rabies virus bring to the cell in order to replicate?

A

RNA polymerase since it is (-) ssRNA

93
Q

Definition

The round shaped spores that C. tetani have

A

Round terminal (RT) spores

94
Q

What are the major virulence factors of C. difficile?

A

Toxins A and B

95
Q

What types of spores fo C. tetani produce?

A

Round terminal (RT) spores

96
Q

Define

Ezrin

A

family of proteins, which function as general cross-linkers between plasma membrane proteins and the actin cytoskeleton and are involved in the functional expression of membrane proteins at the cell surface

97
Q

Definition

Lyssavirus protein that acts as a cofactor of polymerase L, links L to N-RNA; required for transcription and replication; binds N, immune evasion

A

Phosphoprotein (P)

98
Q

True or False:

C. tetani spores need aerobic conditions to germinate

A

False

They need anaerobic conditions

99
Q

Which toxins are associated with C. perfringens type D infections?

A

α and ε toxins

100
Q

What happens to the Rabies virus in between entry and retrograde transport?

A

The virus is engulfed by the endosome which become acidic. The acidity causes a conformational change in the G protein causing the viral envelop and the endosomal membrane to fuse. This causes the nucleocapsid to be released into the cytoplasm

101
Q

Define

Large protein (L)

A

Lyssavirus protein required for replication and transcription; also known as RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

102
Q

Where do C. perfringens sporulate?

A

In the intestine

103
Q

Define

Retrograde

A

directed or moving backwards

104
Q

Define

Autocrine

A

denoting or relating to a cell-produced substance that has an effect on the cell by which it is secreted

105
Q

Definition

The ovoid shaped spores that most Clostridium spp., including C. perfringens and C. botulinum have

A

Ovoid subterminal (OST) spores

106
Q

What are the two forms of Rabies symptoms? Which one is more common?

A

Furious 80%

Paralytic 20%

107
Q

Define

Rabies

A

a contagious and fatal viral disease of dogs and other mammals, transmissible through the saliva to humans and causing madness and convulsions

108
Q

Define

IFN stimulated genes (ISGs)

A

a gene whose expression is stimulated by interferon

109
Q

How does Rabies P-protein block IFN induction and signalling?

A

Induction:

  • P-protein inhibits phosphorylation of IRF3, therefore IRF3 cannot be activated
  • Mechanism not clear

Signalling:

  • P-protein binds phosphorylated STAT1/2, prevents nuclear import
  • Blocks activation of ISGs likely using several ways
110
Q

Definition

the taxonomic home of numerous related viruses. Members of the order that are commonly known are, for instance, Ebola virus, human respiratory syncytial virus, measles virus, mumps virus, Nipah virus, and rabies virus

A

Mononegavirus infections

111
Q

True or False:

P-protein inhibition of STATs is critical to pathogenesis

A

True

112
Q

What is the virulence of C. perfringens assocaited with?

A

Production of a unique cocktails of 22 toxins

113
Q

Define

Australian Bat Lyssavirus (ABLV)

A

a virus that can be transmitted from bats to humans, causing serious illness

114
Q

Definition

atmosphere control units designed to be used when working with oxygen sensitive materials, product containment needs, and/or general isolation control

A

Anaerobic chamber

115
Q

Definition

Lyssavirus protein found on the outside or particle, immunogenic; required for viral entry into host cell

A

Glycoprotein (G)

116
Q

Define

α-toxin

A

a toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium perfringens (C. perfringens) and is responsible for gas gangrene and myonecrosis in infected tissues

117
Q

Describe the oxygen requirements of C. difficile

A

Strict anaerobe

118
Q

Definition

an anaerobic bacterium of a large genus that includes many pathogenic species, e.g. those causing tetanus, gas gangrene, botulism, and other forms of food poisoning

A

Clostridium

119
Q

C. difficile only colonises the gut when?

A

The normal microbiota has been disrupted

120
Q

Definition

an instrument used in the production of an anaerobic environment. This method of anaerobiosis as others is used to culture bacteria which die or fail to grow in presence of oxygen (anaerobes)

A

Anaerobic jars

121
Q

Definition

directed or moving backwards

A

Retrograde

122
Q

List the steps to Rabies infection of the host

A
  1. Animal bite or scratch (virus in saliva)
  2. Infects muscle (replicates), transmitted to peripheral nerves, then central nervous system (CNS)
  3. Virus particles transport in along neuronal axons (i.e. retrograde = towards cell body) in vesicles using microtubules.
  4. When at neuronal cell body, released from vesicle, replicate, assemble new virus particles, then infect next neuron.
  5. Travels up spinal cord, leading to brain, causes encephalitis.
  6. Spreads to other organs (e.g. salivary glands)
123
Q

Define

Kozak sequence

A

a nucleic acid motif that functions as the translation initiation site in most mRNA (link) transcripts

124
Q

Definition

a bacterium that can cause symptoms ranging from diarrhea to life-threatening inflammation of the colon

A

Clostridium difficile

125
Q

Which Clostridia often causes ‘leaky gut’? Why?

A

C. difficile infection damages junctions between cells leading to ‘leaky gut’

126
Q

How do Rabies viruses leave the cell?

A

Budding

Gain membrane envelope from host cell

127
Q

What are the common clinical symptoms of Rabies?

A

Fever, mouth salivation, convulsions

Hydrophobia

Hallucinations

Hypersexual behaviour

Moments of clarity

Coma, death

128
Q

Definition

a host from which infectious agents are not transmitted to other susceptible hosts

A

Dead-end host

129
Q

Definition

eosinophilic, sharply outlined, pathognomonic inclusion bodies (2–10 μm in diameter) found in the cytoplasm of certain nerve cells containing the virus of rabies, especially in pyramidal cells within Ammon’s horn of the hippocampus

A

Negri bodies

130
Q

After how long does the symptoms of Rabies appear?

A

20-90 days

131
Q

Definition

The inhibition of one bacterial organism by another

A

Bacterial antagonism

132
Q

How is a transciption gradient created for Rabies proteins?

A

Transcription gradient generated due to start-stop mechanism - polymerase complex doesn’t always re-engage with genome (N > P > M > G > L)

133
Q

Define

Bacterial antagonism

A

The inhibition of one bacterial organism by another

134
Q

Definition

poisonous to tissue.

A

Histotoxic

135
Q

Define

Round terminal (RT) spores

A

The round shaped spores that C. tetani have

136
Q

Order the Rabies proteins in terms of the quantity produced through transciption

A

N > P > M > G > L

137
Q

What does the integrity of the intestinal epithelium rely on?

A

Cellular polarity

Formation and maintenance of tight junctions

Renewal of the stem cell population and maintenance of the stem cell niche

138
Q

Does Australia have Rabies virus?

A

Not technically

It does have Australian Bat Lyssavirus Virus which is very similar to Rabies

139
Q

Define

Paracrine

A

relating to or denoting a hormone which has effect only in the vicinity of the gland secreting it

140
Q

Definition

the formation of nearly dormant forms of bacteria

A

Sporulation

141
Q

Define

Phosphoprotein (P)

A

Lyssavirus protein that acts as a cofactor of polymerase L, links L to N-RNA; required for transcription and replication; binds N, immune evasion

142
Q

What does C. difficile infection do to stem cells?

A

Alters their function

Can be seen in organoid growth

143
Q

Definition

inflammation of the brain, caused by infection or an allergic reaction

A

Encephalitis

144
Q

True or False:

The mRNA synthesised from the Rabies genome has a cap and poly-A-tail

A

True

Generated by L

145
Q

Where is β-toxin produced?

A

In the gut

146
Q

Which toxin is found in all C. perfringens?

A

α-toxin

147
Q

What are the functions of the rabies P protein?

A

Co-factor for RNA polymerase (L)

Links L and N-RNA

IFN antagonism

148
Q

Define

Matrix (M)

A

Lyssavirus protein required for viral assembly and budding

149
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of tetanus

A

Results in uncontrolled stimulation of muscles

  • Tension, cramping twisting of muscles
  • Spasms and convusions
  • Rigid paralysis
  • Death from spasms of the diaphragm and respiratory muscles
150
Q

Define

Nucleoprotein (N)

A

Lyssavirus protein that encapsidates the genome; required for transcription and replication

151
Q

Definition

a genus of RNA viruses in the family Rhabdoviridae, order Mononegavirales

A

Lyssavirus

152
Q

What two techniques are used to culture anaerobic bacteria?

A

Anaerobic Jars

Anaerobic Chambers

153
Q

Define

Enterotoxic

A

a toxin produced in or affecting the intestines, such as those causing food poisoning or cholera

154
Q

Definition

the bacteria responsible for the often fatal disease tetanus

A

Clostridium tetani

155
Q

Definition

a neurotoxic protein produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum and related species

A

botulinum neurotoxin (BoNT)

156
Q

Definition

a gene whose expression is stimulated by interferon

A

IFN stimulated genes (ISGs)

157
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of botulism

A

Results in an uncontrolled relaxation of muscles

  • Symptoms within 18 to 24 hours of ingesting toxin
  • Blurred vision, difficulty swallowing and speaking, muscle weakness, nausea, vomiting
  • Flaccid paralysis
  • Death due to cardiac or respiratory failure
158
Q

Definition

a term for a microbial imbalance or maladaptation on or inside the body, such as an impaired microbiota

A

Dysbiosis

159
Q

Define

Clostridium difficile

A

a bacterium that can cause symptoms ranging from diarrhea to life-threatening inflammation of the colon

160
Q

How does the normal microbiota provide non-specific immunity?

A
  1. Producing metabolic products that inhibit the growth of many pathogens
  2. Adhering to target host cells to prevent pathogens from colonising
  3. Depleting nutrients essential for the growth of pathogens
  4. Stimulating the immune system
161
Q

Define

E-cadherin

A

A transmembrane protein that links plasma membranes of adjacent cells together in a Ca2+-dependent manner; aids in maintaining the rigidity of the cell layer

162
Q

Describe the synthesis of the Rabies genome

A
163
Q

Define

Lyssavirus

A

a genus of RNA viruses in the family Rhabdoviridae, order Mononegavirales

164
Q

What happens during Type C C. perfringens infections when trypsin levels are low? What can cause low trypsin?

A

Low trypsin (sweet potatos contain trypsin inhibitors) means β-toxin remains active

=

Intestinal necrosis

=

Toxins to be absorbed

=

Damage to distant organs

165
Q

Describe the oxygen requirements of C. perfringens

A

Aerotolerant anaerobe

166
Q

Define

Exosporium

A

the outer surface layer of mature spores

167
Q

What can degrade β-toxin?

A

Gut trypsin

168
Q

What type of toxin is assocaited with C. perfringens?

A

Enterotoxin

169
Q

Where is pro-ε-toxin produced? What activates it?

A

Pro-ε-toxin is produced in the intestine and is activated by trypsin/other proteases

170
Q

What type of virus is Rabies caused by?

A

Lyssaviruses

BMS2052 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions