Microbes Flashcards

Immune evasion, Microbial therapies

1
Q

What is pyogenic s.aureus disease?

A

Pus producing - hydrolytic enzymes and cytotoxins cause tissue destruction

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2
Q

What is systemic s.aureus disease?

A

Mediated by toxins functioning as super antigens

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3
Q

How does s.aureus protect itself from phagocytosis?

A

Polysaccharide capsule and coagulase which causes fibrinogen to convert to insoluble fibrin causing blood clots

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4
Q

How does catalase protect the s.aureus?

A

Breaks down peroxides produced by neutrophils and macrophages

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5
Q

What do cytotoxins produced by s.aureus do?

A

Lyse erythrocytes, neutrophils, macrophages plus other host cells

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6
Q

What do hydrolytic enzymes does s.aureus produce and what are their function?

A

Lipases, nuckeases, hyaluronidase causing tissue destruction

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7
Q

What is a key property of s.aureus linked with food poisoning?

A

Grow aerobically & anaerobically

Over a wide range of temps

In the prescence of high salt concentration

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8
Q

What toxins does s.aureus produce and what are their properties?

A

Enterotoxins - heat stable + acid resistant -> food poisoning

Exfoliative toxins A&B - superficial layers of skin peel off

Toxic shock syndrome - heat & protease resistant mediates multiorgan pathology

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9
Q

List the 7 pyogenic diseases caused by S.Aureus

A
Impetigo
Folliculitis
Furuncles (boils) and carbuncles
Wound infections
Pneumonia
Endocarditis
Osteomyelitis
Septic arthritis
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10
Q

List 3 S aureus toxin mediated diseases

A

Food poisoning
Scalded skin syndrome
Toxic shock syndrome

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11
Q

Describe impetigo and folliculitis

A

Localized skin infection characterized by pus-filled vesicles on reddened/erythematous base

Folliculitis is impetigo involving hair follicles

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12
Q

Describe furuncles (boils) and carbuncles

A

Large, pus filled skin nodules, can progress deeper and spread

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13
Q

Describe wound infections

A

Erythema and pus at site. MRSA common

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14
Q

Describe pneumonia

A

Abscess in lungs

Common in very young and old

Usually follows viral infection of R tract

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15
Q

Describe endocarditis

A

Infection of endothelial lining of heart, progresses rapidly and high mortality

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16
Q

Describe osteomyelitis

A

Destruction of bones, particularly in highly vascularized areas in children

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17
Q

Describe septic arthritis

A

Infection of join spaces (swollen, reddened joint)

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18
Q

How is food poisoning caused and what are the symptoms and progression?

A

Heat stable enterotoxin, 2-4 hours cramps, vomiting, diarrhoea. Resolved in 24 hours

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19
Q

Describe scalded skin syndrome

A

Localized infection causing outermost layer of skin to peel off caused by exfoliative toxins A&B

20
Q

Describe toxic shock syndrome

A

Localized infection but toxins affect multiple organs (fever, hypotension, erythematous rash, high mortality rate unless ABs promptly administered and local infection managed)

21
Q

What is the treatment for localised infection?

A

Incision and drainage

22
Q

What is the treatment for systemic infection?

A

IV - Vancomycin
Oral therapy- trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole, clindamycin, doxycycline

Food poisoning - identify source

23
Q

Prevention methods for s.aureus

A

Proper cleansing of wounds
Use of disinfectant
Hand washing and covering exposed skin
No vaccine currently available

24
Q

What are the main mechanisms bacteria use to evade opsonisation by antibodies?

A
  1. Hide antigens
  2. Disrupt functions
  3. Prevent detection
  4. Degrade antibodies
  5. Modify antigenicity
25
Q

Give 1 ways s.aureus hides from antibodies

A

Capsule hides antigens on surface and less complement is deposited

26
Q

Name and describe 2 proteins s.aureus uses to prevent antibody detection

A

S.aureus surface protein A (SpA) binds IgG Fc region so Fc receptors on immune cells can’t detect

Secreted SSL10 binds IgG to inhibit detection

27
Q

Name 2 antigen evasion strategies not specific to S.aureus

A

Proteases cleave antibodies (group B strep [IdeS])

Antigenic variation ( n.gonorrhoaea [Opa and LOS antigens])

28
Q

What happens when neutrophils are recruited?

A
  1. C5a binds to C5aR and C3a binds to C3aR

Endothelial cells express ICAM

Adhesion occurs and neutrophils roll along endothelial surface of blood vessels

  1. Priming
  2. Chemotaxis - down gradient of complement components and bacterial proteins
  3. Activation
  4. Opsonisation
  5. Phagocytosis, inflammation, degranulation - reactive O2 species, antimicrobial molecules
29
Q

What happens during inflammation and which complement components are proinflammatory agents?

A

C3a and C5a

30
Q

Which pathogen specific receptors (PRRs) do neutrophils express and what do they do?

A

They prime and activate neutrophils

TLR receptors detect conserved microbial structures eg. Lipopolysaccharides (LPS, gram -ve cell wall) and lipoteichoic acid (LTA, gram +ve cell wall), flagella

CLEC detect microbial carbohydrates

FPR detect formulated peptides released by bacteria

31
Q

How do neutrophils detect osonised microorganisms?

A

Fc receptors, complement receptors

32
Q

What is an opsonin?

A

An opsonin is any molecule that enhances phagocytosis by marking an antigen for an immune response or marking dead cells for recycling.

33
Q

Describe two chemotaxis receptors of neutrophils

A

C5aR detects C5a

FPR1 detects fMLP (formulated peptides released by bacteria)

34
Q

How does s. Aureus inhibit chemotaxis and activation?

A

Secretes CHIPs which binds C5aR and FPR1 with a higher affinity than C5a and fMLPs

35
Q

How does a.aureus interact with receptors, thus preventing phagocytosis?

A

FLIPr binds Fcg receptors (IgG) preventing detection of IgG opsonised bacteria

SSL5 binds Fca receptors (IgA) preventing detection of IgA opsonised bacteria

36
Q

How does s. Aureus evade neutrophils?

A

Produces toxins to kill them

Expresses molecules that are receptor antagonists, binding an inhibiting the function of activatory receptors

37
Q

What happens during the classical complement pathway?

A
  • Immunoglobulins bind to pathogen surface
  • C1q binds to Fc region and activates C1r which activates C1s
  • C1s activates a serine protease which cleaves C4 into C4a and b, c4b binds to pathogen surface
  • C1s cleaves C2 to C2a and b
  • C2b binds C4b forming C4b-2b complex (C3 convertase)
  • C3 convertase cleaves C3 to C3a and C3b which binds to C3 convertase forming C4b-2b-3b complex (C5 convertase) OR C3b binds to surface of pathogen
  • C5 binds to C3b part of C5 convertase and is cleaved into C5a and C5b
  • Opsonisation is complete!
38
Q

Which components is the membrane attack complex (MAC) composed of?

A

C5b, C6, C7, C8, C9

39
Q

Which are the proinflammatory fragments of the complement cascade?

A

C3a and C5a

40
Q

What are the two types of C3 convertase?

A

C4b-2b - classical and MBL

C3bBb - alternative

41
Q

Which fragments label the target pathogen for elimination by phagocytosis?

A

C3b and C4b

42
Q

Which protein does s.aureus produce that inhibits MAC formation?

A

SSL7 binds C5

43
Q

What does the Efb protein do and what produces it?

A

S.aureus

Binds C3d part of C3, inducing a conformation change which prevents binding of factor B to C3, and C3dg binding CR2. It essentially prevents C3 being cleaved to C3b

44
Q

Which protein does SCIN bind to?

A

C3bBb - inhibits formation of C3 convertade and C5 convertase, preventing C3b deposition, C3a formation, C5a formation.

45
Q

Describe 2 complement evasion strategies not covered by SCIN, SSL7 or Efb

A

Proteases cleave complement components

Aquired host derived complement regulators eg. fH on bacterial surface inactivates C3b and C4BP is associated with FI and degrades C2a from C4b2a (C3 convertases)