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micro test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a protozoan infection in the urogenital system?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Candidiasis
c. Trichamonas
d. Chlamydia

A

Trichamonas

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2
Q

What bacteria is the most likely causative agent of vaginal candidiasis (yeast infection)?

A

E. coli

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3
Q

Which structure is NOT found in both male and female reproductive systems?
a. Adrenal gland
b. Ureter
c. Renal vein
d. Vas deferens

A

Vas deferens

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4
Q

Urine is released from the _____ to the ______.
a. Bladder; urethra
b. Ureters; urethra
c. Kidneys; urethra
d. Urethra; ureters

A

Bladder; urethra

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5
Q

What is the major difference between the urethra and the ureter?

A

The ureter does not open up to the outside of the body. The urethra is what opens up to the outside of the body.

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6
Q

Which of the following is NOT a test for Nongonococcal Urethritis (NGU)?
a. Radio imaging of the kidneys
b. Urethral swabs and urine culture
c. PCR test
d. NAAT test

A

Radio imaging of kidneys

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7
Q

Which of the following is non-transmissible in the urogenital system?
a. Syphilis
b. Cystitis
c. Leptospirosis
d. Chancroid

A

Cystitis

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8
Q

Which of the following diseases DO NOT leave the body once it enters?
a. Pyelonephritis
b. Glomerulonephritis
c. Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)
d. Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

A

Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

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9
Q

If an expectant mother is known or suspected to have syphilis, what is the recommended course of action?

A

A Cesarean-Section (C-Section)

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10
Q

A 40 year old female enters a clinic and test positive for HPV. What is the number one concern to warn the patient about for the future?
a. Explain why the vaccine is necessary
b. Explain how the patient caught the disease
c. Tell the patient that they can never leave their house again
d. Explain the risks for developing cervical cancer and to watch for symptoms

A

Explain the risks for developing cervical cancer and to watch for symptoms

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11
Q

What are the protection layers of the brain in sequential order from exterior to interior?
a. Skin, aponeurosis, periosteum, bone, meninges, subarachnoid space, CSF
b. CSF, subarachnoid space, meninges, bone, periosteum, aponeurosis, skin
c. Skin, bone, subarachnoid space, periosteum, meninges, aponeurosis, CSF
d. Bone, skin, periosteum, meninges, subarachnoid space, aponeurosis, CSF

A

Skin, aponeurosis, periosteum, bone, meninges, subarachnoid space, CSF

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12
Q

What disease is caused by Listeria monocytogenes?
a. Meningitis
b. Listeriosis
c. Creuzfeldt Jacob Disease
d. Polimyelitis

A

Listeriosis

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13
Q

True or False:
Is Tetanus a fatal disease in the nervous system?

A

True

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14
Q

What makes up the Peripheral nervous system?
a. Brain
b. Spinal cord
c. Neurons
d. Nerves

A

Nerves

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15
Q

What is the function of the Blood-Brain-Barrier?
a. Allows lipid soluble to the brain to help with better brain function
b. Prohibits harmful chemicals from entering the brain and causing damage to brain functions
c. Allows blood to go in and out of the brain with no regulations
d. This is not apart of the nervous system

A

Prohibits harmful chemicals from entering the brain and causing damage to brain functions

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16
Q

Which of the following disease does Amphotericin B NOT affect?
a. Cryptococcosis
b. Rabies
c. Histoplasmosis
d. Mucormycosis

A

Rabies

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17
Q

True or false:
Lipid soluble can’t make it through the blood brain barrier.

A

False

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18
Q

What can the Zika virus cause in pregnant women?
a. Microcephaly
b. Poliomyelitis
c. Rabies
d. Tetarus

A

Microcephaly

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19
Q

Which point of entry for pathogens in the nervous system is defined as a Trojan horse?
a. Intracellular
b. Transcellular
c. Leukocyte-Facilitate entry
d. Non-Hematogenous entry

A

Leukocyte-Facilitate entry

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20
Q

Which disease is transmitted by fecally contaminated food with Tapeworm eggs?
a. Neurotoxoplasmosis
b. Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis
c. Neurocysticercosis
d. Human African Trypansomiasis

A

Neurocysticercosis

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21
Q

Which bacterial skin infection can be based on hormonal fluctuations?
a. Trachoma
b. Anthrax
c. Acne
d. Impetigo

A

Acne

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22
Q

What common bacterial eye infection is most commonly known as Pink Eye?
a. Bacterial Keratitis
b. Acute Bacterial Conjunctivitis
c. Trachoma
d. Anthrax

A

Acute Bacterial Conjunctivitis

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23
Q

Which gland produces a lipid and nutrient rich substance used to moisturize and protect the skin?
a. Sebaceous
b. Mammary
c. Lacrimal
d. Thyroid

A

Sebaceous

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24
Q

Which area of the body does not contain normal microbiota and is considered sterile?
a. Conjunctiva
b. Lacrimal gland
c. Vitreous humor
d. Epidermis
e. Dermis

A

Vitreous humor

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25
Q

Which area of the body would Tinea pedis be found?
a. Scalp
b. Feet
c. Groin
d. Beard

A

Feet

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26
Q

Which of the following pathogens causes Sporotrichosis?
a. Candida albicans
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Bacillus anthracis
d. Sporothrix schenckii

A

Sporothrix schenckii

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27
Q

How is Loiasis transmitted?
a. Through the larvae transmitted by the bite of a deer fly
b. By eating raw beef
c. Airborne/droplet transmission
d. Swimming in contaminated water

A

Through the larvae transmitted by the bite of a deer fly

28
Q

In extreme cases, what type of transplant may be needed in Ancanthamoeba keratitis?
a. Lung
b. Heart
c. Kidney
d. Corneal

A

Corneal

29
Q

Who is at an increased risk for getting Ancanthamoeba keratitis?
a. Farmers
b. People who wear contacts
c. People visiting West and Central Africa
d. Zoologists

A

People who wear contacts

30
Q

What pathogen causes warts?
a. roseola
b. Human papillomavirus
c. Herpes simplex virus
d. Circoviruses

A

Human papillomavirus

31
Q

Regarding Rotavirus, what is a possible clinical manifestation if the initial symptoms are not treated?
a. Ulcerative colitis
b. Malnutrition
c. Crohn’s Disease
d. Peptic Ulcer Disease

A

Malnutrition

32
Q

If an individual is infected with Norovirus, when can they expect to display symptoms and when will they go away?
a. 8-10 hours; symptoms will never go away
b. 24-72 hours; symptoms will disappear after 2 weeks
c. 12-24 hours; symptoms will resolve after a couple of days
d. 5-7 days; symptoms will resolve after 24 hours of first sign of infection

A

12-24 hours; symptoms will resolve after a couple of days.

33
Q

Which protozoan is associated with the ability to cause severe dysentery?
a. Giardia lamblia
b. Cryptosporidium hominis
c. Cyclospora cayetanesis
d. Entamoeba histolytica

A

Entamoeba histolytica

34
Q

What is a way in which the Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV-1) is transmitted through Herpetic Gingivostomatitis?
a. Vector transmission
b. Mouth to mouth through saliva transmission
c. Droplet transmission
d. Fomite transmission

A

Mouth to mouth through saliva transmission

35
Q

What is one of the best ways to prevent Dental Caries (Cavities)?
a. Brushing and flossing your teeth
b. Taking an antibiotic
c. Prevent modes of transmission from happening
d. None of the above

A

Brushing and flossing your teeth

36
Q

What is the treatment for Staphylococcal Food Poisoning?
a. amoxicillin
b. steroid pack
c. supportive treatment (resolving on its own after 24 hours)
d. none of these

A

Supportive treatment (resolving on its own after 24 hrs)

37
Q

What species of bacteria cause salmonellosis?
a. Helicobacter pylori
b. Clostridium perfringens
c. Staphylococcal Aureus
d. Salmonella

A

Salmonella

38
Q

What strain of E. coli is considered the most dangerous?
a. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
b. Enteropathogenic E. coli
c. Enteroinvasive E. coli
d. Enterotoxigenic E. coli

A

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

39
Q

Which of the following is not recommended for treating hookworm?
a. Mebendazole
b. Iodoquinol
c. Albendazole
d. Pyrantel pamoate

A

Iodoquinol

40
Q

Which of the following are ways campylobacter jejuni gastroenteritis is transmitted?
a.Under-cooked chicken and contaminated water
b.Skin to skin contact
c.Contact with animals
d.None of these
e.Two of these

A

Two of these

41
Q

What prevents microbes from adhering to the underlying cells of the inner respiratory system?

A

Mucus

42
Q

What type of pathogen is most common in the respiratory system?

A

Opportunistic Pathogens

43
Q

What sequence does air flow from the larynx?
a. trachea, bronchi, bronchiole, alveoli
b. trachea, pharynx, bronchiole, alveoli
c. pharynx, bronchi, trachea, alveoli
d. trachea, bronchiole, bronchi, alveoli

A

trachea, bronchi, bronchiole, alveoli

44
Q

What occurs when the alveoli became infected, inflamed, and filled with fluid?
a. pneumonia
b. bronchitis
c. pharyngitis

A

pneumonia

45
Q

What non-verbal action by an infant suggests acute otitis media, an infection of the middle ear?

A

pulling or tugging on the ear

46
Q

1/3 of the world’s population are infected by which bacteria that cause chronic inflammation and the formation of tubercules in the lung?

A

M. tuberculosis or Mycobacteria tuberculosis

47
Q

What type of pneumonia is caused by Mycoplasma and is commonly known as “walking pneumonia” because the symptoms are usually mild?

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

48
Q

Which vaccine confers immunity to both Diphtheria and Whooping Cough?

A

TDAP pr DTaP

49
Q

What major symptom distinguishes the common cold from the flu?

A

Flu includes high fever; cold does not

50
Q

What is the causative agent of measles?

A

Varicella-zoster virus

51
Q

What is a treatment option for histoplasmosis?
a. Itraconazole
b. Fluconazole
c. Amphotericin B
d. Two of these are correct

A

Two of these are correct (a & c)

52
Q

How does shingles spread across the body?

A

When the virus is activated, it creeps up the sensory nerves, leaving a rash in its wake

53
Q

SARS and MERS and both forms of coronavirus that are zoonotic. Which animals are reservoirs for SARS and MERS, respectively?

A

Civet cats and camels

54
Q

What protects fungal cells from phagocytes from macrophages?

A

Capsules

55
Q

What causes the change in C. immitis from mold to yeast?

A

Temperature

56
Q

Pulmonary Mucormycosis is common in young children? True or false?

A

False, common in cancer and organ transplant patients

57
Q

A patient enters the clinic complaining of extremely swollen lymph nodes causing pain, along with fever and fatigue. Upon assessment the physician discovers a scratch on her hand. She states, “I was scratched by a stray cat in an attempt to take it home with me”. What pathogen is most likely the cause of her symptoms?

A. Anaplasma phagocytophilum
B. Rickettsia prowazekii
C. Rickettsia typhi
D. Bartonella henselae

A

Bartonella henselae

58
Q

A patient is admitted after returning from a hiking trip, and the physician notices a bulls-eye rash on the patient’s arm. The patient states his headache, and muscle stiffness occurred along with the rash. What can the physician assume the patient was bitten by to cause transmission of Lyme disease?
A. Mosquito
B. Fly
C. Tick
D. Flea

A

Tick

59
Q

A patient is brought into the hospital with symptoms including a high fever, petechial rash, as well as vomiting. What causative agent is most likely the reason for these symptoms?
A. Borrelia recurrentis
B. Rickettsia rickettsii
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Rickettsia prowazekii

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

60
Q

Which plague virus is known to be transmitted through inhalation of aerosolized droplets from infected individuals that then goes to cause an infection of the lungs?
A. Septicemic
B. Bubonic
C. Puerperal
D. Pnuemonic

A

Pnuemonic

61
Q

A patient visits their doctor and tells them they have fever, chills,and myalgia. When their doctor asks them what they have been doing they say they went camping and frequently swim in the river or other bodies of freshwater. What would be the probable diagnosis for this patient?
A. Schistosomiasis
B. Yellow Fever
C. Malaria
D. Cat-Scratch disease

A

Schistosomiasis

62
Q

Mosquitos are known to carry pathogens for many diseases. After receiving a mosquito bite what are the possible diseases someone could contract?
A. Malaria
B. Yellow Fever
C. Trench Fever
D. Brucellosis
E. Two of these are correct

A

Two of these are correct

63
Q

A patient comes into the Hospital with an unknown infection. After a series of tests, you lean that the causative agent of the disease is Clostridium perfringens. What disease is associated with this pathogen?

A. Hantavirus
B. Gas gangrene
C. Chagas Disease
D. Malaria

A

Gas gangrene

64
Q

Which of the following pathogens is the known causative agent of malaria?

A. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Bartonella quintana

A

Plasmodium falciparum

65
Q

A patient is brought to the hospital with high fever, fatigue, nausea, diarrhea and other flu-like symptoms. Upon assessment, the patient explains to her doctor that she had forgotten to remove her tampon after 10 hours of use prior to her symptoms. Her doctor concludes she is experiencing the effects of toxic shock syndrome. What is the causative agent responsible for this disease?

A. Francisella tularensis
B. Borrelia recurrentis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Staphylococcus aureus

66
Q

A 68 year old male has begun experiencing tightness and inflammation in the joints of his fingers and legs, and his range of motion has significantly decreased within the past few months. His doctor explains he is experiencing infectious (septic) arthritis. How was this disease most likely transmitted?
A. Infection from a surgery or wound spread to joints
B. Pre-existing infections surrounding the joint site
C. Infection originating in the blood and spreading through the circulatory system
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

micro (2 decks)

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