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Feeds 2018 > Micro/Para > Flashcards

Micro/Para Flashcards

1
Q

Bacterial classification except:

A

Bacterial Size

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2
Q

Affects the effectiveness of microbial growth?

A

Species microbes

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3
Q

Aerobes are agents that:

A

Thrive in an oxygenated environment

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4
Q

Unique type of bacteria that lives within a living cell:

A

Chlamydia

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5
Q

Mycobacterium identification except:

A

Gram stain

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6
Q

Rod shaped bacteria

A

Bacilli

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7
Q

Considerations on collecting type specimen for diagnostic purposes, except:

A. Suspected agent
B. Location of infection
C. Specificity of the test
D. None of the above

A

C. Specificity of the test

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8
Q

Agents used in direct examination

A. NaCl solution
B. KOH stain
C. Both
D. None of the above

A

C. Both

A. NaCl solution
B. KOH stain

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9
Q

It is not considered as MOA of antimicrobial agent

A. Destruction of cell wall
B. Inhibition of protein synthesis
C. Damage of DNA
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

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10
Q

It is a form of heat under pressure sterilization

A. Pasteurization
B. Autoclaving
C. Soaking
D. Boiling

A

B. Autoclaving

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11
Q

Physical form of microbial control

A. Use of extreme temp
B. Use of glutareldehyde
C. Application of germicidal soap
D. Aota

A

D. Aota

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12
Q

It is form of biguanide

A. Phenol
B. Chlorhexidine
C. Alcohol
D. Triclosan

A

B. Chlorhexidine

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13
Q

It is an oxidizing halogen?

A. Iodine
B. Triclosan
C. Copper solution
D. Chlorine

A

D. Chlorine

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14
Q

Removal of Microbes thru mechanical means?

A. Sanitation
B. Disinfection
C. Degerming
D. All of the above

A

C. Degerming

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15
Q

Use of heat in reducing spoilage of food:

A

Pasteurization

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16
Q

Chemical agent that has no activity against endospores:

A

Quats

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17
Q

Factors affecting microbial resistance, except:

A. Indiscriminate use of antibiotic
B. Use in viral infections
C. Route of administration
D. All of the above

A

C. Route of administration

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18
Q

It is an inhibitor of 30s protein synthesis

A. Lincomycin
B. Tetracycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. All of the above

A

B. Tetracycline

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19
Q

Factors to consider in the selection of antibiotic:

A. Length of infection
B. Nature infection
C. Cost of the anti-infective agent
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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20
Q

Leeuwenhoek’s microorganisms include the following except:

A. Protozoan
B. Algae
C. Arthropod
D. Virus

A

C. Arthropod

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21
Q

Beneficial uses of microbes:

A. Food
B. Medicine
C. Beverage
D. Aota

A

D. Aota

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22
Q

Smallest form of infectious agent

A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Virus
D. Aota

A

C. Virus

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23
Q

Affects pathogenecity of

A. Release of toxins by host
B. Production of antibodies
C. Damaging the host cells
D. Aota

A

C. Damaging the host cells

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24
Q

Known as systemic constitutional signs/symptoms during viral infection except:

A. Fever
B. Knee Pain
C. Myalgia
D. NOTA

A

B. Knee Pain

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25
Q

Classification of viruses based on genetic components

A

Subcellular classification

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26
Q

Known as categorical classification of bacteria

A. Species
B. Family
C. Class
D. Genus

A

A. Species

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27
Q

It is the inhibition of microbial growth

A. Bactericidal
B. Bacteriostatic
C. Sterilization
D. Aota

A

B. Bacteriostatic

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28
Q

Host that harbors the infection but does not show sign and symptoms:

A

Reservoir host

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29
Q

Type of symbiotic relationship of E. coli in the GIT:

A

Mutualism

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30
Q 
Fungi
A. Food
B. Medicine 
C. Beverage 
D. Aota
A

D. Aota

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31
Q

Father of Taxonomy

A. Koch
B. Pasteur
C. Linnaeus
D. Red

A

C. Linnaeus

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32
Q

Field of Microbiology that deals on identification of disease using antibody testing

A

Serology

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33
Q

Lives on dead or decomposing matter:

A. Autotrophic
B. Heterotrophic
C. Serotrophic
D. Saprophytic

A

D. Saprophytic

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34
Q

Woese-Fox Classification except:

A

Protista

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35
Q

It is a study on the degree of relatedness between groups of living things:

A

Phylogeny

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36
Q

The ff. are present in prokaryotic cell

A

Nucleoid with genetic material

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37
Q

The least sensitive agent among the three

A. Staph
B. Escheriachia
C. Pseudomonas
D. None of the above

A

C. Pseudomonas

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38
Q

The least effective among the agents:

A. Quat
B. Chlorine
C. Phenylphenol
D. Hexacholrophene

A

D. Hexacholrophene

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39
Q

Which is the broad spectrum agent:

A

Chlorine

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40
Q

Which is the most diff to control among 3 agents based on above results:

A

Pseudomonas

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41
Q

Infectious agents can activate the complement system by triggering the cellular substance/s?

A. All of the above
B. Factor B
C. Factor D
D. Properdin

A

A. All of the above

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42
Q

The end result of all the complement pathways is the production of?

A

Membrane Attack Complex

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43
Q

Dominic, a 9 yo boy is playing with his new pet cat when he started having repeated bouts of sneezing and colds. He was brought to his pediatrician and was diagnosed to have an allergic reaction. What immune response is mediated by what type of immunoglobulin?

A

IgE

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44
Q

Microbial component which primarily prevents it from being phagocytized?

A

Capsule

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45
Q

Microbial component which primarily prevents it from being phagocytized?

A

Capsule

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46
Q

Staphylococcus epidermis found in skin scraping

A

They are commensals that are found naturally on human skin

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47
Q

Immunity that is present at birth

A

Innate immunity

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48
Q

Organism benefits from the other while one is unaffected

A

Commensalism

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49
Q

Theses cells ingest microbes

A

Macrophages

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50
Q

A congressman is undergoing a chemotherapy which downregulates his immune system. Which is true of his situation?

A. He is immunocompromised state and all his defenses don’t function fully
B. He should be vigilant of infection
C. Opportunistic infections could set in the
body
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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51
Q

Sebastian was assigned by your professor to perform stool examination of a children in a community who have been reported to have multiple cases of malnutrition. You found out that majority of the children has intestinal worms causing malnutrition. What is true if the child?

A

The child is considered the host and is harmed by the intestinal worms

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52
Q

One organism benefits by deriving nutrients at the expense of others

A

Parasitism

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53
Q

You were assigned as a medicolegal officer investigating a crime scene you saw some blood stains on the floor and decided to take a sample to determine if it is a human blood you did an ouchterlogy assay after processing you saw definite white line between the human and the anti-sera and the sample this indicates that there is?

A. Human antibody antigen interaction
B. No interaction between human anti sera
and antigen
C. A need to repeat the test
D. Nota
A

A. Human antibody antigen interaction

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54
Q

Having E. coli in the gastrointestinal tract of humans under normal conditions is an example of which type of symbiotic relationship?

A. Commensalism
B. Parasitism
C. Normal flora
D. Mutualism

A

D. Mutualism

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55
Q

Every Wednesday, children flock with their mothers to their nearest health center to receive vaccination. Vaccines given at the health center are usually composed of weakened antigens of microorganisms designed to elicit an immune response from the patient producing antibodies which is a form of:

A. Live attenuated vaccine
B. Active immunization
C. Innate immunity
D. Passive immunization

A

B. Active immunization

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56
Q

You were instructed to perform a complement fixation test. You noted that there is sedimentation at the bottom of the test tube. This means that:

A. There should be precipitation instead of sedimentation
B. There are not enough unbound complement proteins to cause hemolysis
C. A white precipitation line will indicate antibody-antigen reaction
D. There are enough amounts of free complement proteins causing clumping of the sample cells at the bottom of the test tube

A

B. There are not enough unbound complement proteins to cause hemolysis

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57
Q

You were assigned by your professor to perform stool examination of children in a community who have been reported to have multiple causes of malnutrition. You found out that majority of the children have worms causing malnutrition. In this relationship, what is true of the intestinal worm?

A. The child is harmed by the relationship
B. The intestinal worm does not harm the child.
C. The intestinal worm draws its nutrition from the child and in turn causing…
D. The intestinal worm is in a mutualistic relationship with the child

A

C. The intestinal worm draws its nutrition from the child and in turn causing…

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58
Q

Rob, a medical clerk rotating at the emergency room, was called in to attend to a trauma case. Upon approaching the patient to assist, he accidentally pricked his finger with an unused needle. He was afterwards, given anti-tetanus immunoglobulin which is a form of:

A

Passive immunity

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59
Q

Globulins produced in response to antigens:

A

Immunoglobulins

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60
Q

The ability of an organism to vary expressions in their antigenic property.

A

Antigenic Variation

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61
Q

Phagocytosis is efficient in which complement protein?

A

C3b

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62
Q

The ability of an organism to cause disease by overcoming the defense of a host:

A

Pathogenicity

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63
Q

These toxins are liberated when the bacteria die and the cell walls break apart which can cause illness:

A

Endotoxins

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64
Q

A microorganism w/c does not ordinarily cause disease but become pathogenic under certain conditions:

A

Opportunistic

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65
Q

Sansa, a 13 yr old child was brought to the clinic due to 2 days of fever w/ associated maculopapular to petechial rashes on her skin. She was dx to have dengue w/c is spread by getting bitten by an infected Aedes aegypti mosquito. In this case, transmission of dengue via the mosquito is considered as:

A

Biological transmission

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66
Q

Disease that occurs primarily in wild and domestic animals and can be transmitted to humans.

A

Zoonoses

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67
Q

Passive transport of pathogens.

A

Mechanical transmission

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68
Q

You blew your nose on a piece of tissue and decided to place it to the desk beside you. The piece of used tissue can harbor infectious microorganisms and pass it on to your classmates via:

a. Indirect transmission
b. Direct transmission
c. Vehicular transmission
d. Airborne transmission

A

a. Indirect transmission

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69
Q

Location where adaptive response develops

A. Spleen
B. Thymus
C. Bone marrow
D. Aota

A

D. Aota

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70
Q

NK cells are prevented from attacking host cellsdue to the inhibition by:

A

MHC Class

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71
Q

Location where adaptive response develops

A. Spleen
B. Thymus
C. Bone marrow
D. Aota

A

D. Aota

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72
Q

The boy was playing with his new pet cat when he had repeated bouts of sneezing. He was diagnosed to have allergic reaction. What type of immune response:

A

IgE

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73
Q

A relationship between two organisms in which at least one is dependent on the other:

A

Symbiosis

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74
Q

This is system includes serum and membrane bound protein that both function in an innate and adaptive immune response.

A

Complement system

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75
Q

Immunoglobilin that crosses the placenta:

A

IgG

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76
Q

Response of complement:

A

chemotaxis, opsonization, anaphylactic, inflammation

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77
Q

Positive reaction of ouchterlony test

A

White precipitates of antibody- antigen complexes between positive samples.

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78
Q

A host who harbours the pathogen but does not exhibit signs and symptoms.

A

Reservoir.

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79
Q

Determine number of microorganism in serulotion test of 1/10. Culture on 5th sample has 30 bacteria colony.if test 1 is 1/10, # of microorgansim
150,1.5million, 1500,

A

3 million

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80
Q

True of blood typing test?

A. Agglutination of anti sera AB, patients blood type is O

B. Agglutination of anti sera A, patient blood type is A

C. Agglutination of anti sera A, patientd blood type is B

D. Lack of Agglutination of both anti sera A and anti sera b, patients blood type is AB

A

B. Agglutination of anti sera A, patient blood type is A

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81
Q

The vulnerability of an organism to disease caused by microbes or their products:

A

Susceptibility

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82
Q

Control of healthcare related infections is achieved through:

A

Educating staff members about basic infection control measures

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83
Q

Geneticmaterial

A

Conjugation

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84
Q

Answer

A

Cytoplasmic membrane

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85
Q

Substance found in bacterial cell wall that renders it resistant to chemicals and acid fastness

A

Mycolic acid

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86
Q

Threadlike appendages of bacteria used as organ of locomotion

A

Flagella

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87
Q

Which of the following match its function:

A

Topoisomerase-relaxes DNA

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88
Q

Which media allow certain types of organisms to grow and inhibit the growth of other organisms:

A

Selective

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89
Q

Bacterial cell wall owes its strength to the murein layer of:

A

Peptidoglycan

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90
Q

Biocides acts by:

A

All of the above (damage to DNA, protein denaturation, disruption of the cell membrane or wall)

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91
Q

Property of Biocide that kills bacteria:

A

Bactericidal

92
Q

Center of protein synthesis in prokaryotic cells:

A

Ribosomes

93
Q

Sterilization:

A

Process use to render a surface or product free from viable organisms, including bacterial spores

94
Q

Characteristic of lag phase:

A

Immediately following inoculation there is no appreciable increase in number, though there may be increase in size

95
Q

A single endospore can germinate into___ vegetative cells.

A

Two

96
Q

The DNA of prokaryotes are found in:

A

Nucleoid

97
Q

This media is particularly useful if mixed population of organism is present in a specimen.

A

Enrichment Media

98
Q

Which if the ff. Is true of induction:

A

(nakalimutan yung choices sorry)

99
Q

Characterized by the presence of pathogenic microbes in living tissues or associated fluids

A

Septic

100
Q

A chemical or physical agent, usually broad spectrum, that inactivates microorganisms

A

Biocide

101
Q

Steps in DNA Replication

A

Initiation, elongation, termination

102
Q

Increases antigenicity and endotoxicity of the bacteria:

A

Lipopolysaccharide

103
Q

Increases antigenicity and endotoxicity of the bacteria:

A

Lipopolysaccharide

104
Q

Gram negative cell wall component consisting og antigen specific glycolipid and polysaccharide:

A

Lipopolysaccharide

105
Q

Eukaryotic DNA bind to this basic protein that interact with DNA through ionic bond:

A

Histone

106
Q

Complex and precisely regulated inducible defense mechanism that allows the specific discrimination between self and non-self.

A

Immune Response

107
Q

True of innate and adaptive immunity:

A

They interact and augment the effect each other.

108
Q

Which is involved in humoral immunity?

A

Natural killer cells

109
Q

Toxin induced reaction?

A

Humoral immunity

110
Q

Whar type of lymphocytes are involved in cell mediated immunity?

A

CD4 and CD8

111
Q

The prevention of immune response to an antigen

A

Immune tolerance

112
Q

AIDS suppresses immune responses producing overwhelming infections.

A

Cell mediated immune response

113
Q

Immune responses induced as a result of treatment with large doses of antigen.

A

Immune paralysis

114
Q

Fever, cachexia, anti-tumor and cell activation:

A

TNF Alpha

115
Q

Not an antibody mediated immunity:

A

Contact Hypersensitivity

116
Q

Which interleukin has antiviral property?

A

Interferon alpha

117
Q

Which hypersensitivity reaction involves the antihistamine prostaglandin and thromboxane?

A

Type1

118
Q

Atopy is an example of?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A

A. Type I

119
Q

Type of hypersensitivity that involves transfusion or RH reactions, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, rheumatic fever, penicillin- induced hemolysis and Graves disease.

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A

B. Type II

120
Q

Glomerulonephritis

A

Type 3-Hypersensitivity

121
Q

Infection of group A beta hemolytic streptococcus

A

Type 1-Hypersensitivity

122
Q

Factors of immunologic failure except:

A. Unknown
B. Malnutrition
C. Interference
D. Allergic reactions

A

D. Allergic reactions

123
Q

Antigen bindings to antibody causing cell mediated lysis

A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4

A

B. Type 2

124
Q

Which is not a complication of vaccine?

A

Malnutrition

125
Q

What vaccine should be given at birth?

A

HepB

126
Q

Most commons serious primary immune deficiency in adults:

A

Common variable immune

127
Q

Most common Immunodeficiency:

A

AIDS

128
Q

Screening test for HIV:

A

ELISA

129
Q

Most common immuno deficiency in adults:

A

Selective IgA Def.

130
Q

Example of live vaccine except

A. Hep A
B. Rubella
C. Measles
D. Mumps

A

A. Hep A

131
Q

True of live vaccines except

A. Protection often not optimal, vaccination has to be repeated several times
B. Living pathogens with reduced virulence
C. The microorganisms reproduce in the vaccinated person, providing very good
stimulation of the immune system
D. Do not use in immunocompromised persons because it can cause significant
pathology, and during pregnancy

A

A. Protection often not optimal, vaccination has to be repeated several times

132
Q

Example of killed viral vaccine except:

A

Varicella zoster

133
Q

Example of natural passive immunity:

A

Placental igG, colostrum

134
Q

Rapid analysis of cell types present in blood sample:

A

Flow cytometry

135
Q

Confirmatory of HIV

A

Western blot

136
Q

Screening for HI

A

ELISA

137
Q

Immunological test that detects the hemolytic antibodies and Rh incompatibility

A

Coombs test

138
Q

The most common serious primary immunodeficiency in adults.

A

Common Variable Immunodeficiency

139
Q

The most common primary

immunodeficiency in adults:

A

Selective IgA deficiency

140
Q

The most common immunodeficiency worldwide:

A

AIDS

141
Q

Two non motile member of Enterobacteriaceae..?

A. Escherichia coli
B. Klebsiella
C. Shigella
D. B and C

A

D. B and C

142
Q

Important cause of diarrhea with infant and nursery; identified as H and O antigen?

A. Enteropathogenic E. coli
B. Enterotoxigenic E. coli
C. Shiga toxin producing E. coli D. Enteroinvasive E. coli
E. Enteroaggregative E. coli

A

A. Enteropathogenic E. coli

143
Q

14 days Travelers diarrhae:

A

Enteroaggregative

144
Q

Like shigallosis:

A

Enteroinvasive

145
Q

Pinkish spots on abdomen and chest. Positive in typhidot IgM?

A. Shigella
B. Salmonella
C. Proteus
D. E. Coli

A

B. Salmonella

146
Q

True of causative organism (salmonella)

A. Ferment glucose and mannose without
B. Do not ferment lactose or sucrose
C. Both are correct
D. None are correct

A

C. Both are correct

147
Q

NT, a 47 year old woman who was diagnosed with nephrolithiasis had UTI. Culture was done and revealed urease positive organism. Colonies exhibited swarming motility.

A

Proteus

148
Q

Clinical findings include straining and tenesmus. Stool is positive for blood and mucus.

A

Shigella

149
Q

O157:H7 is the most common serotype; it is also negative for Sorbitol and MUG test (beta-glucuronide)

A

Shiga Toxin Producing E. Coli (STEC)

150
Q

Flagellar Antigen:

A

H

151
Q

Lipopolysaccharide antigen:

A

O

152
Q

Capsular Antigen :

A

C

153
Q

True regarding prevention and control of salmonella:

A

Aota

154
Q

Rapid lactose fermenters:

A

Escherichia, Enterobacter, Klebsiella

155
Q

Streak

A

Simmon citrate agar

156
Q

Stab

A

Sulfide indole motility

157
Q

Stab streak:

A

TSI

158
Q

Greenish metallic sheen:

A

ENB

159
Q

Mucoid esp. on MacConkey:

A

Klebsiella

160
Q

Not so mucoid:

A

Enterobacter

161
Q

Red with black halo

A

Salmonella

162
Q

Green fruity scent

A

Pseudomonas

163
Q

Swarming motility, urease (+)

A

Proteus

164
Q

Nonmotile, colorless on SSA

A

Shigella

165
Q

Drug of choice of Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Penicillin G

166
Q

Dose of erythro and penicillin tissue effect dose

A. 8 days
B. 10 days
C. 14 days
D. 21 days

A

B. 10 days

167
Q

Ultimate source of S. pyogenes:

A

Subclinical infected people

168
Q

Nonlipophilic bacteria:

A

Ulcerans

169
Q

Group D non gonococcal

A

S. bovis

170
Q

Vogues Proskauer

A

S. anginosus

171
Q

Upper respiratory tract and normal in mucus

A

S. milleri

172
Q

Dextrans levans

A

S. mutans

173
Q

Requires pyridoxal and cysteine for growth in blood agar

A

Nutritional deficient strep

174
Q

Forms dome-shaped colonies later forming a central plateau with an elevated rim

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

175
Q

Capsule swelling with polyvalent antiserum

A

Quellung reaction

176
Q

DOC for S. pneumoniae

A

Penicillin

177
Q

Virulence of C. diphtheria is mainly due to

A

Absorption of toxin produced

178
Q

Diagnostic laboratory test for
C. Diphtheriae

A. Dacron swab
B. Blood agar
C. Thayer martin

A

A. Dacron swab

179
Q

Effect of diphtheria toxin:

A. Fatty infiltrates
B. Parenchyma degeneration C. Nerve damage
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

180
Q

This process involves the use of a filter paper disk containing antitoxin and inoculum 7 to 9mm away from the disk

A

Modified Elek Method

181
Q

Anaerobic corynebacteria normally residing in skin causes infections of prosthetic heart valve and CSF shunts.

A

Propionobacterium acnes

182
Q

Treatment for S. Pneumoniae:

A

Penicillin G

183
Q

Basis of lancefield classification:

A

Carbohydrate group specific substance

184
Q

Antigenic structure of streptococcus:

M protein
T substance
Nucleic proteins
AOTA

A

AOTA

M protein
T substance
Nucleic proteins

185
Q

Responsible for differences of certain strep types by agglutination with anti-serum

A

T substance

186
Q

Characteristics of matte colony form of S. pyogenes

A

More virulent

187
Q

Major virulence factor with hair-like projections

A

M Protein

188
Q

Enzyme associated with streptokinase used in enzymatic debridement and liquefy exudates-

A

Streptodornase

189
Q

They act are considered superantigens thay stimulates production of T cells and release of cytokines that mediates shock and injury

A. Erythogenic
B. Pyrogenic
C. A and B
D. None of the above

A

C. A and B

190
Q

This disease usually preceeds an acute infection after a skin infection:

A

Glomeronephritis

191
Q

Lethal dose of diphtheria toxin

A

0.1ug/kg

192
Q

Arrest protein synthesis producing the necritizing and neurotoxic effects

A

Fragment a

193
Q

Drug of choice for C. Diptheria

A

Penicillin

194
Q

Lipophilic Corynebacteria that can be isolated from acutely ill or immunocompromised patients

A

Jeikeium

195
Q

Gram positive rod that forms branches with abscess and endocarditis:

A

Rothia dentacariosa

196
Q

(Non-verbatim): Px consults the clinic and presented with dysuria with episode of painful urination confessed of having unprotected sex

A

G(-)cocci in pair

197
Q

How would you collect this organism for culture

A. Pus smear from penis directly to slide
B. Use dacron swab
C. Have the pt collect pus and place on sterile container
D. Collect stool on pt

A

B. Use dacron swab

198
Q

Inoculated media of this organism requires the presence of?

A. Water
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Sulfuric acid

A

C. Carbon dioxide

199
Q

This agar contains vancomycin, colistin, nystatin and trimethoprim:

A. MTM
B. Potato blood agar
C. Chocolate agar
D. Mueller-Hinton agar

A

A. MTM

200
Q

Colonies of the organism growing on the previous number:

A. Are golden yellow and opaque
B. Fresh green colonies with gray halo
C. Large and slightly tinged with blue
D. Translucent and beige gray

  3. Chronic gonorrhea in female can lead to
     (Pelvic Inflammatory Disease) PID
  4. Antibiotic resistant strain in N. gonorrhea produce:
     Penicillinase
  5. True of family niceriae:
     gram negative, occurs in pairs 75. Causes genital infections:
     N. gonnorhea
  6. Typical of Neisseriae?
     When in pairs, concave sides are adjacent
  7. Preferred culture media for Neisseriae EXCEPT?
    A. Mueller-Hinton
    B. Modified Thayer Martin C. Martin Lewis
    D. Blood agar
A

D. Translucent and beige gray

201
Q

Waterhouse friderichsen syndrome causing hemorrhagic destruction of what organ:

A

Adrenal Glands

202
Q

Colonies of the organism growing on the previous number:

A. Are golden yellow and opaque
B. Fresh green colonies with gray halo
C. Large and slightly tinged with blue
D. Translucent and beige gray

A

D. Translucent and beige gray

203
Q

Waterhouse friderichsen syndrome causing hemorrhagic destruction of what organ:

A

Adrenal Glands

204
Q

Chronic gonorrhea in female can lead to

A

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease) PID

205
Q

Antibiotic resistant strain in N. gonorrhea produce:

A

Penicillinase

206
Q

True of family niceriae:

A

gram negative, occurs in pairs

207
Q

Causes genital infections:

A

N. gonnorhea

208
Q

Typical of Neisseriae?

A

When in pairs, concave sides are adjacent

209
Q

Preferred culture media for Neisseriae EXCEPT?

A. Mueller-Hinton
B. Modified Thayer Martin C. Martin Lewis
D. Blood agar

A

D. Blood agar

210
Q

Meninggococi and gonococci grows best:

A

Rich in organic complex substance

211
Q

Rapid killing of neiserriae:

A

Salt

212
Q

Endotoxic effects and main cause of toxicity in neisseriae-

A

LOS

213
Q

Protein that extend to cell membrane-

A

POR

214
Q

Flagellated structure

A

Pilli

215
Q

Function in the adhesion of gonococci within colonies and host.

A

Opa

216
Q

Makes the gonococci resistant to human antibody-complement system

A

Sialylation

217
Q

Responsible for many meningococci

A. LPS
B. Opa
C. Pili
D. Por

A

A. LPS

218
Q

Portal entry point of meningococci

A

Nasopharynx

219
Q

Specimen useful in diagnosing meningococcemia except

A. Blood
B. Spinal Fluid
C. Sputum
D. Puncture material from petichiae

A

C. Sputum

220
Q

Presumptive colony of neisseria on solid media can be identified by

A. Catalase
B. Coagulase
C. Acid
D. Oxidase

A

D. Oxidase

221
Q

N. meningitidis: eradicate carrier state and act as chemoprophylaxis

A. Penicillin G
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Rifampin
D. 3rd Gen Cephalosporin

A

C. Rifampin

222
Q

Associated with implanted appliances and devices:

A. S. aureus
B. S. epidermidis
C. S. saprophyticus
D. S. haemolyticus

A

B. S. epidermidis

223
Q

Coagulase negative-

Characteristic of antimicrobial activity

A

S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus

224
Q

Usually forms gray to white colonies in primary isolation

A

S. epidermidis

225
Q

Lactamase in staph is regulated by

A

Plasmid

226
Q

Lactamase in staph is regulated by

A

Plasmid

227
Q

Staphylococcus forms pigment best at temperature.

A. 20-23C
B. 23-25C
C. 20-25C
D. 23-27C

A

C. 20-25C

Feeds 2018 (5 decks)

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