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micro lab 3 7-9 > micro lab 3 7-9 > Flashcards

micro lab 3 7-9 Flashcards

1
Q

Ehrlich

A

Developed a drug called salvarsan to treat

syphilis. Salvarsan was the first successful

antimicrobial drug.

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2
Q

Fleming

A

Accidentally discovered penicillin.

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3
Q

Florey

A

Led a team that completely separated

penicillin from the mold that makes it.

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4
Q

The first year they ever used antibiotics widespread:

A

1941

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5
Q

Four classes of antibiotics:

1) Cell wall synthesis

    -how these drugs kill

    - 4 examples
A

These drugs kill bacteria by preventing or blocking

cell wall synthesis.

Examples: A P A V

 Ampicillin, Penicillin, Amoxicillin, Vancomycin
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6
Q

Four classes of antibiotics:

2) Protein synthesis

   -how these drugs kill bacteria

   -  3 examples
A

These drugs kill bacteria by preventing or blocking

 protein synthesis.

Examples: T E A

  Tetracycline,  Erythromycin, Azithromycin (Z pak)
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7
Q

Four classes of antibiotics:

3) Plasma membrane

       -how these drugs kill bacteria

       -  3 examples
A

These drugs kill bacteria by disrupting their

  plasma membrane.

Examples: P N Z

Polymyxin,  Nystatin,   Zyvox
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8
Q

Four classes of antibiotics:

4) Nucleic acid synthesis

     -how these drugs kill bacteria

     -  2 examples
A

These drugs kill bacteria by preventing or blocking

 nucleic acid synthesis.

Examples: DNA/ RNA

  Actinomycin     Rifampin
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9
Q

Kirby-Bauer results chart: conclusion for

categories Resistant, Indeterminate,

Moderately Susceptible, Susceptible
A

Resistant: do not use that drug; it does not work

Indeterminate: we need more testing

Moderately Susceptible: the drug will work for the

patient if we can either: 1) use higher doses than

normal of the antibiotic safely, or 2) concentrate

the antibiotic in the body region of the infection.

Susceptible: use that drug; it works great

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10
Q

MIC: purpose of tubes 1-7

A

Test one antibiotic at seven different concentrations.

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11
Q

MIC test: contents of tubes 1-7

A

nutrient broth, patient bacteria,

 antibiotic solution
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12
Q

MIC test: purpose of test tube 8

A

Make sure the patient bacteria were alive

to begin with.

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13
Q

MIC test: contents of test tube 8:

A

nutrient broth, patient bacteria

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14
Q

MIC test: purpose of test tube 9

A

Make sure the antibiotic solution was

sterile and not contaminated.

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15
Q

MIC test: contents of test tube 9

A

nutrient broth, antibiotic solution

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16
Q

MIC test: dose vs. MIC

A

Dose = MIC X 3

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17
Q

What is your conclusion for this MIC test? 1-9 tube number label 4 2 1 gc filed up

A

The results are valid and the MIC is 8 ug/mL.

The dose to give the patient would be 24 ug/mL.

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18
Q

What is your conclusion for this MIC test? 1-9 tube number 4 2 1 label filled

A

Start over, the patient bacteria were dead to begin with.

(Test tube 8 is clear)

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19
Q

What is your conclusion for this MIC test? tube 1-9 64, 32,16,8,4,2,1,gc label filled

A

The results are valid but the bacterium

must be resistant.

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20
Q

What is your conclusion for this MIC test? tube 1-9 label ALL filled up

A

Start over, the antibiotic solution was contaminated.

(Test tube 9 is cloudy)

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21
Q

What percentage of our blood is plasma?

A

55%

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22
Q

What percentage of our blood is

formed elements (RBC, WBC, platelets)?

A

45%

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23
Q

What percentage of our plasma is water?

A

90%

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24
Q

What percentage of our plasma is dissolved substances?

A

10%

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25
Q

What is the main function of platelets?

A

blood clotting

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26
Q

Erythrocytes vs. Leukocytes: size

A

In most cases, a WBC (leukocyte) is

2 to 3 times larger than a RBC (erythrocyte).

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27
Q

RBC: primary function, relates to

A

The primary function of a RBC is to

transport oxygen from our lungs out

to our cells. This relates to the

Electron transport step, which

requires oxygen.

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28
Q

RBC: secondary function, relates to

A

The secondary function of a RBC is to transport

carbon dioxide from our cells to our lungs to get

rid of it. This relates to a step called the Krebs cycle,

which produces a lot of carbon dioxide

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29
Q

WBC: general function

A

The general function of WBCs is to fight infection.

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30
Q

Does a RBC have a nucleus and DNA?

A

No

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31
Q

Does a WBC have a nucleus and DNA?

A

Yes

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32
Q

Hemoglobin: function

A

Hemoglobin is what oxygen molecules bind to

in order to stay in a RBC and be transported

around the body.

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33
Q

Arteries

A

Arteries always take blood away from the heart.

The blood in arteries is almost always oxygen rich

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34
Q

Veins

A

Veins always take blood towards the heart.

The blood in veins is almost always oxygen poor.

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35
Q

How many molecules of oxygen can

each hemoglobin molecule carry?

A

4

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36
Q

How many molecules of hemoglobin

does each RBC have?

A

about 200,000,000

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37
Q

How many molecules of oxygen can each

RBC carry at the same time?

A

about 800,000,000

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38
Q

Total white count: 6,700/mm3

Conclusion?

A

within normal range

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39
Q

Total white count: 20,200/mm3

Conclusion?

A

best guess: infection

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40
Q

Total white count: 101,400/mm3

A

best guess: leukemia

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41
Q

Total white count: 2,300/mm3

Conclusion?

A

best guesses:

1) medications, 2) the patient needs blood thinners,

 3) the patient has full-blown AIDS
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42
Q

WBC chart: Neutrophils

%,  function,  if elevated
A

Neutrophils:

%:   60-70

function: engulf bacteria only

if elevated: best guess-bacterial infection

43
Q

WBC chart: Lymphocytes

%,  function,   if elevated
A

Lymphocytes:

%: 20-30

function: take part in the immune system

if elevated: best guess-viral infection

44
Q

WBC chart: Monocytes

%, function, if elevated

A

%: 4-10

function: become a macrophage and engulf

bacteria and viruses

if elevated: best guess- listeriosis

45
Q

WBC chart: Eosinophils

%, function, if elevated

A

%: 1-5

function: attack parasites; engulf

antigen/antibody complexes

if elevated: best guesses- allergic reaction

or a parasite infection

46
Q

WBC chart: Basophils

%, function, if elevated

A

%: .5 - 1

function: release histamine

if elevated: best guess- leukemia

47
Q

Diagram: differential white count

WBC %

Neutrophils 51

Lymphocytes 18

Monocytes 5

Eosinophils 2

Basophils 24

A

Basophils are elevated (24%)

Best guess: leukemia

48
Q

Diagram: differential white count

WBC %

Neutrophils 86

Lymphocytes 6

Monocytes 4

Eosinophils 3

Basophils 1

A

Neutrophils are elevated (86%)

Best guess: bacterial infection

49
Q

Diagram: differential white count

WBC %

Neutrophils 62

Lymphocytes 25

Monocytes 8

Eosinophils 4

Basophils 1

A

They are all within normal range.

50
Q

Diagram: differential white count

WBC %

Neutrophils 44

Lymphocytes 46

Monocytes 5

Eosinophils 4

Basophils 1

A

Lymphocytes are elevated (46%)

Best guess: viral infection

51
Q

Diagram: differential white count

WBC %

Neutrophils 38

Lymphocytes 20

Monocytes 37

Eosinophils 4

Basophils 1

A

Monocytes are elevated (37%)

Best guess: listeriosis

52
Q

Diagram: differential white count

WBC %

Neutrophils 41

Lymphocytes 17

Monocytes 5

Eosinophils 36

Basophils 1

A

Eosinophils are elevated (36%)

Best guesses: allergic reaction or a parasite infection

53
Q

Identify: Neutrophil (smiley face)

Normal %: 60-70

Function: engulf bacteria only

If elevated: best guess- bacterial infection

A

Identify, Normal %, function, if elevated

54
Q

Identify: Lymphocyte (all blue dot)

Normal %: 20-30

Function: take part in the immune system

If elevated: best guess- viral infection

A

Identify, Normal %, function, if elevated

55
Q

Identify: Monocyte (pac man)

Normal % 4-10

Function: become a macrophage and engulf bacteria and viruses

If elevated: best guess- listeriosis

A

Identify, Normal %, function, if elevated

56
Q

Identify: Eosinophil (2 dots)

Normal %: 1-5

Function: attack parasites; engulf antigen/antibody complexes

If elevated: best guesses: allergic reaction, parasite infection

A

Identify, Normal %, function, if elevated

57
Q

Identify, Normal %, function, if elevated

A

Identify: Basophil (big blue dot)

Normal %: .5 - 1

Function: release histamine

If elevated: best guess: leukemia

58
Q

What percentage of our blood is plasma?

A

55%

59
Q

What percentage of our blood is

formed elements (RBC, WBC, platelets)?

A

45%

60
Q

What percentage of our plasma is water?

A

90%

61
Q

What percentage of our plasma is dissolved substances?

A

10%

62
Q

What is the main function of platelets?

A

blood clotting

63
Q

Erythrocytes vs. Leukocytes: size

A

In most cases, a WBC (leukocyte) is

2 to 3 times larger than a RBC (erythrocyte).

64
Q

Blood type O: alloantigens

A

none

65
Q

Blood type O: alloantibodies

A

A and B

66
Q

Blood type A: alloantigens

A

A only

67
Q

Blood type A: alloantibodies

A

B only

68
Q

Blood type B: alloantigens

A

B only

69
Q

Blood type B: alloantibodies

A

A only

70
Q

Blood type AB: alloantigens

A

A and B

71
Q

Blood type AB: alloantibodies

A

none

72
Q

Recipient: O

A

Donor: O

73
Q

Recipient: A

A

Donor: O, A

74
Q

Recipient: B

A

Donor: O, B

75
Q

Recipient: AB

A

Donor: O, A, B, AB

76
Q

Universal donor, why

A

Type O because on the donor side you worry

about the antigens (alloantigens), but type O

has no antigens.

77
Q

Universal recipient, why

A

Type AB because on the recipient side you worry

about the antibodies (alloantibodies), but type AB

has no antibodies.

78
Q

Rh factor: dominant

A

It is dominant to be Rh+.

79
Q

Rh factor: percentages of Rh+ vs. Rh-

A

85% of people: Rh+

15% of people: Rh-

80
Q

Rh antibodies: who can form

A

Only Rh- people can form or make Rh antibodies.

81
Q

Rh antibodies: when are they formed

A

Rh- people make Rh antibodies when:

1) a blood transfusion mistake occurs (they gave

    an Rh- patient Rh+ blood).

2) having a baby   (an Rh- mother gives birth

     to an Rh+ baby and the blood cells mix).
82
Q

Recipient: Rh+

A

Donor: Rh+ or Rh-

83
Q

Recipient: Rh-

A

Donor: Rh- only

84
Q

Recipient: O+

A

Donor: O+, O-

85
Q

Recipient: O-

A

Donor: O-

86
Q

Recipient: A+

A

Donor: O+, O-, A+, A-

87
Q

Recipient: A-

A

Donor: O-, A-

88
Q

Recipient: B+

A

Donor: O+, O-, B+, B-

89
Q

Recipient: B-

A

Donor: O-, B-

90
Q

Recipient: AB+

A

Donor: O+, O-, A+, A-, B+, B-, AB+, AB-

91
Q

Recipient: AB-

A

Donor: O-, A-, B-, AB-

92
Q

AB mistake

A

Match up in the same patient:

 - A antigen and A antibody

         -OR-

 -  B antigen and B antibody
93
Q

Rh mistake

A

Give an Rh- patient Rh+ blood

94
Q

True universal donor, why

A

Type O- because on the donor side you worry about the

antigens, but type O- has no antigens.

95
Q

True universal recipient, why

A

Type AB+ because on the recipient side you

worry about the antibodies, but type AB+

has no antibodies. Because they are type

AB, they have no A and B antibodies. Because

they are Rh+, they cannot make Rh antibodies.

96
Q

Problem with Rh factor and babies: the mother

A

To have a problem with Rh factor and having babies,

the mother must be Rh- so she can make Rh antibodies.

97
Q

Problem with Rh factor and babies: the father

A

To have a problem with Rh factor and babies,

the father must be Rh+ so the couple can

have Rh+ babies.

98
Q

Problem with Rh factor and babies: the children

A

To have a problem with Rh factor and having babies,

that couple (mother: Rh-, father: Rh+) must have

two babies that are both Rh+.

99
Q

Rh antibodies: which class

A

Rh antibodies are always in a class called IgG,

which means they can cross the placenta.

100
Q

RhoGAM

A

RhoGAM is a medication that prevents the

mother from making Rh antibodies.

101
Q

Blood typing: Agglutination

A

Agglutination means cell clumping and appears

on a blood typing test as grainy/clumpy

(positive result).

102
Q

Front type

A

This is a direct test for blood typing antigens

(A, B, Rh).

103
Q

Back type

A

This is an indirect test for blood typing

antibodies (A and B).

micro lab 3 7-9 (2 decks)

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