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P1: Ben & Maytee Fisch College of Pharmacy > Micro/Immuno Final > Flashcards

Micro/Immuno Final Flashcards

RATs & Noble Diseases

1
Q

WK8: Which of the following are not considered living?

A. bacteria
B. viruses
C. protozoa
D. prions

A

B. Viruses

D. Prions

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2
Q

WK8: Which group is considered as prokaryotes?

A. viruses
B. protozoa
C. bacteria
D. fungi

A

C. Bacteria

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3
Q 
WK8: The entire protein coat of a virus is called a
A. envelope
B. sheath
C. capsid
D. capsomere
A

C. Capsid

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4
Q

WK8: These eukaryotic parasites have complex life cycles in multiple hosts, but their adult stages are often macroscopic:

A. Helminths
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. Protozoa

A

A. Helminths

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5
Q

WK8: In which group of organisms would you find hyphae?

A. Fungi
B. Viruses
C. Bacteria
D. Helminths

A

A. Fungi

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6
Q

WK8: Which statement below is FALSE about viruses?

A. The cannot metabolize nutrients and make ATP
B. They contain both DNA and RNA
C. They are not composed cells
D. They are all obligate intracellular parasites

A

B. They contain both DNA and RNA

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7
Q

WK8: Which of the following can serve as the nucleic acid core of a virus?

A. dsDNA
B. +ssRNA
C. -ssRNA
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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8
Q

WK8: In the ______ phase, viruses can go dormant, and remain so for long periods of
time.

A. lytic
B. lysogenic
C. plaque
D. eclipse

A

B. Lysogenic

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9
Q

WK8: Which viral structure is involved in attachment to host cell receptors?

A. capsid
B. viral sheath
C. nucleic acid core
D. viral spikes

A

D. Viral spikes

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10
Q

WK8: Which of the following nucleic acids can directly serve as the mRNA?

A. +ssRNA
B. dsDNA
C. -ssRNA
D. None of the above

A

A. +ssRNA

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11
Q

WK8: Bacteria have a cell wall made of __________ while the complementary structure in fungi is composed of strands of _________.

A. Protein; lipopolysaccharide
B. Peptidoglycan; chitin
C. Hyphae; muerin
D. Chitin; peptidoglycan

A

B. Peptidoglycan; chitin

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12
Q

WK8: How are the major groups of protozoa classified?

A. By their shape
B. Whether they are DNA or RNA
C. By their complex life cycles
D. By their mode of motility

A

D. By their mode of motility

explanation:
Bacteria - by shape
Virus- DNA or RNA
Helminths - complex life-cycles

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13
Q

WK9: Which bacterial structure physically determines the shape of a bacterium?

A. Cell membrane
B. Capsule
C. Plasmid
D. Cell wall

A

D. Cell Wall

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14
Q

WK9: Besides the chromosome, what other structure in a bacterial cell has DNA?

A. Cell membrane
B. Ribosome
C. Cell wall
D. Plasmid

A

D. Plasmid

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15
Q

Wk9: This organism is part of the normal flora of the colon, but is the #1 cause of “Traveler’s diarrhea.” Most strains are non-pathogenic, but some strains which have acquired genes for a toxin and an invasion are very lethal for seniors and children.

A. Salmonella typhi
B. Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Shigella dysenteriae

A

B. Escherichia coli

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16
Q

WK9: This substance gives the acid-fast bacterial cell wall its waxy properties and the organism’s’ resistance to many disinfectant and antibiotics.

A. Mycolic acid
B. Teichoic acid
C. Peptidoglycan
D. Calcium dipicolinate

A

A. Mycolic acid

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17
Q

WK9: This organism is the care of “The Black Death.” It is spread by fleas and has been responsible for many plagues in world history killing 25-30% of those infected.

A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Bacteroides fragilis
C. Yersinia pestis
D. Salmonella typhimurium

A

C. Yersinia pestis

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18
Q

WK9: This group of bacteria are all obligate intracellular parasites because they cannot synthesize their own ATP.

A. Mycobacteria
B. Chlamydia
C. Rickettsia
D. Spirochetes

A

B. Chlamydia

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19
Q

WK9: Which bacterial structure is more complicated than those found in some eukaryotes?

A. Cell wall
B. Flagella
C. Cell membrane
D. Chromosome

A

A. Cell Wall

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20
Q

WK9: Besides transport functions, the bacterial plasma membrane serves:

A. As an anchor for ribosomes like the rough ER.
B. As the site of the electron transport system and ATP synthesis
C. In the formation of endospores
D. Location for lipopolysaccharide toxin

A

B. As the site of the electron transport system and ATP synthesis

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21
Q

WK9: This group of pleomorphic bacteria are mostly parasites because they do not have a cell wall.

A. Spirochetes
B. Mycoplasma
C. Chlamydia
D. Mycobacteria

A

B. Mycoplasma

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22
Q

WK9: Which group of bacteria release a lipid toxin as they die?

A. Gram positive
B. Mycobacteria
C. Gram negative
D. Spirochetes

A

C. Gram negative

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23
Q

WK9: Which bacterial structure physically determines the shape of a bacterium?

A. cell membrane
B. capsule
C. plasmids
D. cell wall

A

✓D. cell wall

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24
Q

WK10: Which of these characteristics would be the most pathogenic ?

A. alpha-hemolytic
B. beta-hemolytic
C. gamma-hemolytic
D. all would be equal

A

B. beta-hemolytic

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25
Q

WK10: Which phase of the growth curve are the number of bacteria dividing equal to the number that are
dying?

A. logarithmic death
B. exponential growth
C. lag
D. stationary

A

D. stationary

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26
Q

WK10: Which of these groups does NOT Gram stain?

A. Streptococcus
B. Mycobacteria
C. Salmonella
D. Neisseria

A

B. Mycobacteria

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27
Q

WK10: The Family of Gram negative enteric bacteria are split into 2 large groups based upon:

A. the production of H2S
B. the production of catalase
C. the fermentation of lactose
D. the production of indole

A

C. the fermentation of lactose

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28
Q

WK10: You put some 3% peroxide on a colony on a plate and bubbles are produced. What does this test
show?

A. the organism is coagulase +
B. the organism is beta hemolytic
C. the organism is catalase +
D. the organism is oxidase +

A

C. the organism is catalase +

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29
Q

WK10: IF an organism is oxidase +, it indicates that it must be:

A. a strict aerobe
B. an anaerobe
C. Gram + coccus
D. a facultative anaerobe

A

A. a strict aerobe

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30
Q

WK10: This Gram negative rod is found in the upper respiratory system and can cause ear aches, throat
infections, and meningitis in young children.

A, Neisseria meningitidis
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Hemophilus influenzae
D. Bordetella pertussis

A

C. Hemophilus influenzae

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31
Q

WK10: Most (99%) of bacterial human pathogens are:

A. neutrophiles and thermophiles
B. capnophiles and mesophiles
C. basophiles and halophiles
D. mesophiles and neutrophiles

A

D. mesophiles and neutrophiles

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32
Q

WK10: Which of these bacteria can grow either with or without O2?

A. facultative anaerobes
B. anaerobes
C. aerobes
D. microaerophiles

A

A. facultative anaerobes

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33
Q

This Gram negative, highly motile rod is very problematic for wound and burn patients.

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Fransciella tularensis
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Brucella abortus

A

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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34
Q

WK11: Transduction in bacteria requires:

A. cell to cell contact.
B. a bacteriophage for transfer of genes.
C. a sex pilus.
D. single stranded DNA.

A

B. a bacteriophage for transfer of genes.

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35
Q

WK11: What prevents a bacterial gene from being incorporated into many other
bacterial species. (i.e. Why can’t an E. coli gene be transferred to
a Staphylococcus?)

A. restriction endonucleases
B. It doesn’t have the correct DNA polymerase.
C. The promotor regions are different.
D. The insertion elements are different.

A

A. restriction endonucleases

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36
Q

WK11: This anaerobic, spore-forming, Gram positive rod looks like a tennis racket when it
sporulates. It causes a disease preventable with a DTaP vaccination.

A. Clostridium diphtheriae
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Clostridium tetani

A

D. Clostridium tetani

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37
Q 
WK11: Most bacteria have \_\_\_\_ chromosome(s) and the bacterial chromosome is
\_\_\_\_\_.
A. several, linear
B. one, linear
C. one, circular
D. one, linear
A

C. one, circular

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38
Q 
WK11: Mutations in bacteria can be caused by :
A. insertion of bases
B. deletion of bases
C. substitutions of bases
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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39
Q

WK11: The anticodon is found on which nucleotide?

A. tRNA
B. mRNA
C. DNA
D. rRNA

A

A. tRNA

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40
Q

WK11: The bacterial structure, a sex pilus is used for:

A. transformation
B. transduction
C. enhance islands of pathogenicity.
D. bacterial conjugation

A

D. bacterial conjugation

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41
Q

WK11: A repressor protein for a specific metabolic pathway binds to what structure on
an operon to shut down the transcription of those genes?

A. a promotor
B. a regulatory gene
C. an operator
D. the leader sequence

A

C. an operator

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42
Q

WK11: Small extrachromosomal pieces of DNA found only in bacteria are called:

A. genes
B. plasmids
C. transposons
D. phages

A

B. plasmids

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43
Q

WK11: Spores of this aerobic, beta-hemolytic, Gram positive rod was mailed to several
Congressional offices in 2001. Though usually a disease of livestock, it can also
infect humans, both cutaneously as well as via an aerosol.

A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Norcardia asyeroides
C. Clostridium perfringins
D. Lactobacillus acidophilus

A

A. Bacillus anthracis

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44
Q

WK12: The host range of a virus is directly determined by:

A. the virulence of the virus.
B. the capsid or viral membrane ligands, and the host cell’s receptors.
C. whether it’s a DNA or RNA virus.
D. the route of infection.

A

B. the capsid or viral membrane ligands, and the host cell’s receptors.

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45
Q

WK12: Which of these statements about toxins is FALSE?

A. virulence factors can be regulated by pH, temperature, and the availability of iron.
B. many virulence factors are carried on plasmids or by bacteriophages.
C. LPS is less toxic than most exotoxins.
D. most exotoxins are heat stable.

A

D. most exotoxins are heat stable.

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46
Q

WK12: This acid-fast rod grows very slowly and therefore treatment for a respiratory
infection may require weeks of antibiotic therapy.

A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Mycobacteria tuberculosis
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Mycobacteria leprae

A

B. Mycobacteria tuberculosis

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47
Q

WK12: Which of these is mismatched?

A. leukocidin - kills white blood cells
B. coagulase - stimulates the prothrombin cascade.
C. streptokinase - lyses red blood cells.
D. collagenase - degrades collagen.

A

C. streptokinase - lyses red blood cells.

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48
Q 
WK12: Which of these is involved in a latent viral infection?
A. measles
B. influenza
C. chickenpox
D. mumps
A

C. chickenpox

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49
Q

WK12: This alpha-hemolytic, catalase –, Gram + coccus is involved in endocarditis
and neonatal infections. Cellular morphology includes both chain and pairs.

A. Streptococcus viridans
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Enterococcus faecalis
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

A

A. Streptococcus viridans

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50
Q

Wk12: The 2nd event in a disease process that occurs immediately after a pathogen has
gained entry to the body is:

A. production of exotoxins.
B. release LPS.
C. binding and adherence to specific host cells.
D. production of extracellular enzymes.

A

C. binding and adherence to specific host cells.

51
Q

WK12: Koch’s Postulates are difficult to use to prove etiology if:

A. the organism cannot be grown
B. there is no good animal model.
C. multiple organisms are required to cause the disease.
D. all of the above are true.

A

D. all of the above are true.

52
Q

WK12: Which of these pays a critical role in viral disease recovery?

A. interferon
B. antibiotic therapy.
C. administration of anti-toxin antibodies.
D. activation of complement proteins in the blood.

A

A. interferon

53
Q

WK12: Which of these can cause intravascular coagulation:

A. LPS (endotoxin)
B. streptokinase
C. tetanospasmin
D. cholera toxin

A

A. LPS (endotoxin)

54
Q

WK12: Pathogenicity islands in bacteria refer to

A. clusters of antigens on the bacterial outer membrane.
B. organized clusters of genes that express multiple virulence factors.
C. specialized ribosomes that synthesize bacterial toxins.
D. genes that have undergone mutation to confer multiple drug resistance.

A

B. organized clusters of genes that express multiple virulence factors.

55
Q

WK14: The mode of action (mechanism) of tetracyclines is to:

A. Binds to the mRNA downstream so that the ribosome cannot advance
B. Binds to the 30S ribosomal subunit to prevent incoming tRNA from attaching
C. Prevents the peptide cross-linking event that occurs in the 50S subunit
D. Binds to mRNA to prevent proper codon matching

A

B. Binds to the 30S ribosomal subunit to prevent incoming tRNA from attaching

56
Q

WK14: This family of antibiotics binds to bacteria DNA gyrase and prevents its unwinding; thus preventing DNA replication.

A. Penicillins
B. Sulfonamides
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Quinolones

A

D. Quinolones

57
Q

WK14: This atypical bacteria causes the most prevalent STI (STD) in the US. It can also cause blindness if introduced into the conjunctiva.

A. Mycoplasma genitalium
B. Rickettsia rickettsii
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

C. Chlamydia trachomatis

58
Q

WK14: Many bacteria (Staphylococci sp., and N. gonorrhoeae) are resistant to penicillin because they:

A. Produce extracellular enzymes, beta-lactamases, that destroy the antibiotic
B. Secrete PBPs to absorb the antibiotic
C. Have developed alternate pathways for cell wall cross-linking
D. Altered their target 70S ribosomal proteins

A

A. Produce extracellular enzymes, beta-lactamases, that destroy the antibiotic

59
Q

WK14: This anti-fungal drug prevents DNA synthesis and is commonly give to HIV+ patients to prevent the respiratory disease pneumocystis.

A. Pentamidine
B. Griseofulvin
C. Nystatin
D. Chloramphenicol

A

A. Pentamidine

60
Q

WK14: Beta-lactams, cephalosporins, and vancomycin work by:

A. Inhibiting protein synthesis by 70S ribosomes
B. Inhibiting DNA synthesis by binding to DNA gyrase
C. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis by binding to transpeptidases
D. Disrupt cell membrane function and ATP synthesis

A

C. Inhibiting cell wall synthesis by binding to transpeptidases

61
Q

WK14: This group of antiviral drugs prevents viral nucleic acid from binding to host DNA.

A. Integrase inhibitors
B. Protease inhibitors
C. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
D. Nucleic acid analogs

A

A. Integrase inhibitors

62
Q

WK14: Introduction of drug resistance in bacterial pathogens can occur due to”

A. Genetic mutations
B. DNA acquired via transformation, conjugation, and transduction
C. The development of drug efflux pumps
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

63
Q

WK14: Which of these would NOT be a reason (situation) for chemoprophylaxis?

A. A person exposed to a specific pathogen
B. A newborn infant
C. Patients with medical conditions that increases their susceptibility to certain systemic diseases
D. A patient getting ready to undergo a long, invasive surgical procedure

A

B. A newborn infant

64
Q

WK14: This spirochete causes the #1 arthropod borne disease in the USA. The natural reservoir of the organism is white tailed deer and mice in the forests of New England and Wisconsin.

A. Treponema pallidum
B. Leptospira interrogans
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Helicobacter pylori

A

C. Borrelia burgdorferi

65
Q

Gram Negative Rods (bacillus)/Facultative Anaerobes: Found in colon; sometimes causes enteric infections; “traveler’s diarrhea”

A

Escherichia coli

66
Q

Gram Negative Rods (bacillus)/Facultative Anaerobes: causes typhoid fever - only found in humans

A

Salmonella typhi

67
Q

Gram Negative Rods (bacillus)/Facultative Anaerobes: Found in the mouth, causes pneumonia like disease; opportunistic pathogen

A

Klebsiella pneumonia

68
Q

Gram Negative Rods (bacillus)/Facultative Anaerobes: Causes food-borne gastroenteritis

A

Salmonella enteritidis and S. typhimurium

69
Q

Gram Negative Rods (bacillus)/Facultative Anaerobes: Causes bacillary dysentery

A

Shigella dysenteriae

70
Q

Gram Negative Rods (bacillus)/Facultative Anaerobes: Lactose non-fermenter, opportunistic pathogen. UTIs

A

Proteus micrabilis and P. vulgaris

71
Q

Gram Negative Rods (bacillus)/Facultative Anaerobes: Lactose fermenter, opportunistic pathogen. UTIs, wound infections

A

Enterobacter aerogenes

72
Q

Gram Negative Rods/Facultative Anaerobes: Causes cholera, curved rod, polar flagella

A

Vibrio cholerae

73
Q

Gram Negative Rods/Facultative Anaerobes: Causes bubonic plague (black death)

A

Ysernia pestis

74
Q

Gram Negative Rods/Facultative Anaerobes: Anaerobe in the large intestines. Part of the normal flora. Opportunistic pathogen after trauma or surgery

A

Bacteroides fragilis

75
Q

Gram Negative/ Pseudomonads/Rods (Strict Aerobes): Opportunistic pathogen, motile, problem especially for burn and wound patients

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

76
Q

Gram Negative/ Pseudomonads/Rods (Strict Aerobes): Source of nosicomial infections of immunocompromised patients. Becoming antibiotic resistant.

A

Acinetobacteria baumannii

77
Q

Gram Negative/Coccobacillus: Causes the STI chancroid

A

Hemophilus ducreyi

78
Q

Gram Negative/Coccobacillus: found in upper respiratory tract, can cause influenza like disease and meningitis in children.

A

Hemophilus influenzae

79
Q

Gram Negative/Coccobacillus: Aerobic rod that cause whooping cough; lower respiratory tract infections

A

Bordetella pertussis

80
Q

Gram Negative/Coccobacillus: Causes brucellosis - a zoonotic disease of cattle, sheep, and pigs and fetal abortion

A

Brucella abortus

81
Q

Gram Negative/Coccobacillus: Aerobic rod that causes tuleremia (rabbit fever); also found in squirrels

A

Francisella tularensis

82
Q

Gram Negative Cocci/Strict Aerobes: Causes gonorrhea - a STD which produces an urethritis

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

83
Q

Gram Negative Cocci/Strict Aerobes: Found in the throat; causes bacterial meningitis in adolescent and young adults

A

Neiserria meningitidis

84
Q

Gram Positive Rods/Strict aerobes: A spore formers, causes anthrax, a zoonotic disease of domestic livestock produces hemolysin

A

Bacillus anthracis

85
Q

Gram Positive Rods/Bacillus spore formers: Fungus-like - facultative anaerobes but prefer anaerobic. Opportunistic pathogens in wounds and immunocompromised patients.

A

Actinomyces

86
Q

Gram Positive Rods/Clostridium Spore Formers/Anaerobes: Found in soil and cause tetanus. “Tennis racket cells with spores”

A

Clostridium tetani

87
Q

Gram Positive Rods/Clostridium Spore Formers/Anaerobes: Found in the soil and causes botulism a food borne disease by producing a potent toxin

A

Clostridium botulinum

88
Q

Gram Positive Rods/Clostridium Spore Formers/Anaerobes: Causes gas gangrene sometimes in mixed infections

A

Clostridium perfringins

89
Q

Gram Positive Rods/Clostridium Spore Formers/Anaerobes: Causes a diarrheal disease and colitis

A

Clostridium difficile

90
Q

Miscellaneous Gram Positive Rods/ Non-spore Formers/Facultative anaerobes: Common skin flora and predominant organism in the vagina

A

Lactobacillus

91
Q

Miscellaneous Gram Positive Rods/ Non-spore Formers/Facultative anaerobes: Causes diphtheria (throat infection) in children; pleomorphic rod; toxin

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

92
Q

Miscellaneous Gram Positive Rods/ Non-spore Formers/Facultative anaerobes: Food-borne pathogen that can grow at )*C. Pregnant women and infants most at risk.

A

Listeria monocytogenes

93
Q

Miscellaneous Gram Positive Rods/ Non-spore Formers/Facultative anaerobes: branched rods. Respiratory opportunistic pathogens in young children, seniors, and immunocompromised patients

A

Nocardia asteriodes

94
Q

Gram Positive Cocci/Staphylococcus and Streptococcus/Facultative anaerobes: Causes boils, pimples, and also Scarlet Fever and Puerperal fever. “Beta-hemolytic”

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

95
Q

Gram Positive Cocci/Staphylococcus and Streptococcus/Facultative anaerobes: Diplococcus (pairs); causes bacterial pneumonia “Beta-hemolytic”

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

96
Q

Gram Positive Cocci/Staphylococcus and Streptococcus/Facultative anaerobes: Pairs & chains; Guillan-Barre Syndrome (GBS) in pregnant women and newborns “Beta-hemolytic”

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

97
Q

Gram Positive Cocci/Staphylococcus and Streptococcus/Facultative anaerobes: Present in human feces. GI infections and UTIs

A

Enterococcus faecalis

98
Q

Gram Positive Cocci/Staphylococcus and Streptococcus/Facultative anaerobes: Found on the skin and in nasal passages; causes wound infections and food poisoning

A

Staphylococcus aureus

99
Q

Gram Positive Cocci/Staphylococcus and Streptococcus/Facultative anaerobes: Found on the skin and can cause pimples and boils “Alpha-hemolytic”

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

100
Q

Gram Positive Cocci/Staphylococcus and Streptococcus/Facultative anaerobes: 2nd most common cause of UTIs in women. coagulase; novobiocin resistant

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

101
Q

Acid-Fast Rods/Mycobacteria/Aerobes: Causes the chronic disease leprosy, very slow growing; 30 hours. Long treatment required

A

Mycobacterium leprae

102
Q

Acid-Fast Rods/Mycobacteria/Aerobes: Causes respiratory disease tuberculosis (TB); very slow growing 18 hours. Long treatment required

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

103
Q

Spiral shaped/Spirillum: Microaerophilic spiral shaped (spirillum) that causes peptic ulcers; has a potent urease; can grow in the mucus lining the stomach interior

A

Helicobacter pylori

104
Q

Spirochetes: Causes syphilis, only found in humans, microaerophilic; cant by easily cultivated

A

Treponema pallidum

105
Q

Spirochetes: Causes peridontal disease, anaerobe

A

Treponema denticola

106
Q

Spirochetes: Causes Lyme disease, a zoonotic disease of mice and deer, facultative anaerobe

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

107
Q

Spirochetes: Causes relapsing fever

A

Borreli recurrensis and hermsii

108
Q

Spirochetes: Environmental (water) spirochete causes leptospirosis, a kidney disease, aerobe

A

Leptospira interrogans

109
Q

Atypical Bacteria/No cell wall: Cause an atypical (“walking”) pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

110
Q

Atypical Bacteria/No cell wall: Causes non-gonococcal urethritis, an STI, and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

A

Mycoplasma genitavium and ureaplasma urealyticum

111
Q

Obligate Intracellular Parasites: Causes endemic typhus; spread by body lice

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

112
Q

Obligate Intracellular Parasites: Causes Rocky Mountain Spotted fever; spread by ticks

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

113
Q

Obligate Intracellular Parasites: Most prevalent bacterial STD, causes non-gonococcal urethritis cannot make ATP.

Some strains can also cause blinding conjunctivitis or trachoma - #1 cause of blindness

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

114
Q

Obligate Intracellular Parasites: Pathogens of birds but can infect humans and cause respiratory infection

A

Chlamydia psittaci

115
Q

WK15: Contrasting bacteria and fungi; fungi are _____ and bacteria are _____. Fungi make spores for _____, while bacteria use them for _______.

A) prokaryotes, eukaryotes, survival, reproduction
B) Eukaryotes, prokaryotes, reproduction, survival
C) Prokaryotes, eukaryotes, reproduction, survival
D) Eukaryotes, prokaryotes, survival, reproduction

A

B) Eukaryotes, prokaryotes, reproduction, survival

116
Q

WK15: Many fungi can exist in 2 forms. At higher temperatures (37C), they exist as ______, and at lower temperatures (room) they are ______. This is property called _______ _______.

A) single cells, multicellular, thermal dimorphism
B) single cells, multicellular, fungi imperfecti
C) multicellular, single cells, thermal dismorphism
D) multicellular, single cells, fungi imperfecti

A

A) single cells, multicellular, thermal dismorphism

117
Q

WK15: This fungal infection can present (thrush) in HIV patients, or as a vaginosis.

A) Coccidioides
B) Candida
C) Cryptococcus
D) Tinea

A

B) Candida

118
Q

WK15: Traveling in a foreign country that has substandard health conditions, you might pick up this intestinal flagella from contaminated water, food, or even ice.

A) Giardia lambia
B) Toxoplasma gondii
C) Typanosoma cruzi
D) Ascaris lumbroides

A

A) Giardia lambia

119
Q

WK15: Malaria is one of the WHO’s “Big 3” the etiological agent for this disease is:

A) Plasmodium vivax
B) Giardia lambia
C) Trypanosoma cruzi
D) Toxoplasma gondii

A

A) Plasmodium vivax

120
Q

WK15: Trichnosis can be acquired by:

A) walking barefoot in sandy soil
B) from fecal material from other children caring the intestinal parasite
C) from a contaminated “cat box”
D) eating undercooked pork

A

D) eating undercooked pork

121
Q

WK15: Which family of protozoans use flagella for motility?

A) sarcodina
B) ciliata
C) sporozoa
D) mastigophera

A

D) mastigophera

122
Q

WK15: The American hookworm, Necator, belongs to which of these families?

A) Nemathelmintes
B) Cestodes
C) Platyhelminthes
D) Trematodes

A

A) Nemathelminthes

123
Q

WK15: Which of these disease agents is commonly carried by the domestic house cat?

A) Trichmonas vaginalis
B) Plasmodium vivax
C) Toxoplasma gondii
D) Pneumocystis jirovecii

A

A) Toxoplasma gondii

124
Q

WK15: Protozoans are initially classified by:

A) their modes of asexual reproduction
B) which organ system they infect
C) their means of motility
D) their modes of sexual reproduction

A

C) their means of motility

P1: Ben & Maytee Fisch College of Pharmacy (6 decks)

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