MICRO FINAL EXAM Flashcards

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1
Q

Microbiology is the study of ____ organisms and ___biological entities too small to be seen without the aid of a microscope

A

Living, acellular

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2
Q

you have a single bacterial cell in fresh nutrient broth. This species has a genetration time of 20 minutes. After 100 minutes, how many cells will be present?

A

32

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3
Q

which genus of bacteria lacks a cell wall and has a pleomorphic shape?

A

mycoplasma

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4
Q

who was credited for disproving the “Theory of spontaneous generation” and demonstrated fermentation by microorganisms?

A

Louis Pasteur

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5
Q

all are differential stains except for the
a. gram stain
b. acid fast stain
c. endospore stain
d. capsile stain
e. simple stain

A

simple stain

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6
Q

which of the following is not a function of the cell membrane?
a. selectively allows passage of molecules into and out of the cell
b. protects against changes in osmotic pressure
c. contains enzymes for cell wall synthesis
d. is the location for enzymes used in energy production
e.serves as the DNA anchor during binary fission

A

protects against changes in osmotic pressure

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7
Q

In a hypertonic solution, cells with a cell wall will lose water causing shrinkage. This condition is called ____. Although the whole cell does not collapse, this event can still damage and even kill many kinds of cells.

A

plasmolysis

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8
Q

which statement is false as it pertains to microorganisms in our world and their impact?
a.majority of microbes are pathogenic
b. they are medically important in the production of antibitotics and drugs
c.microbes provide oxygen and are the foundation of several food webs
d.they are used to produce bread, wine, and cheese
e. all statements are true

A

majority of microbes are pathogenic

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9
Q

this statistical procedure utilizes lactose broth to estimate the number of viable microorganisms in a sample of water which may be contaiminated with feces.

A

most probable number

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10
Q

the study of organizing, classifying, and naming living organisms is

A

taxonomy

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11
Q

intracellular storage bodies that vary in size, number, content, and used when environmental nutrient sources are depleted are called

A

inclusions

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12
Q

who used a handheld microscope to view the first microorganism which he referred to as “animalcules”?

A

Antione van Leeuwenhoek

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13
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes is the causitive agent of strep throat. What is the arrangement of this bacterial species?

A

round cells in chains

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14
Q

the 5 kingdoms (animalia, plantae, protista, monera, and fungi) were introduced by

A

robert whittaker

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15
Q

most human pathogens are ___ based on their temperatue needs

A

mesophiles

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16
Q

_____ media contain one or more agents that inhibit the growth of some microbes and encourage the growth of desired microbes

A

selective

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17
Q

the domain bacteria
a. are unicellular prokaryotes with smaller rRNA
B. have peptidoglycan in their cell walls
c. are true bacteria, and some are human pathogens
d. only A and B are correct
e. A, B, and C, are correct

A

A, B, and C are correct

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18
Q

_____ is the movement of water through a semipermeable membrane from low to high solute concentration.

A

osmosis

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19
Q

_____ determined the causative agents for tuberculosis and anthrax

A

Robert Koch

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20
Q

all living things are made up of one or multiple cells that share common characteristics except for:
a. basic shape
b. cytoplasm surrounded by a membrane
c. chromosome (s)
d. ribosomes
e. membrane-bound organelles

A

membrane-bound organelles

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21
Q

living microbes consist of ____

A

bacteria, archaea, protoza, fungi and helminths

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22
Q

the ability to enlarge the image of an object when compared to the real object size is called

A

magnification

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23
Q

the site of protein synthesis

A

ribosomes

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24
Q

which microbiological field of study is incorrectly paired
a. bacteriology; bacteria
b. mycology; fungi
c. protozoology; protozoa
d. phycology; algae
e.none of the above

A

none of the above

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25
Q

you have 4 bacterial cells in a fresh medium. This species generation time is 15 minutes. after 90 minutes how many cells will be present?

A

256

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26
Q

when using a microscope, the ability to tell two points or objects are separate is referred to as the

A

resolving power

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27
Q

which of the 6 “I’s” involves macroscopically evaluating bacterial growth and microscopically obtaining results from staining?

A

inspection

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28
Q

a cell lacking a wall in a solution with a lower solute concentration will ___ water and this solution is referred to as ___.

A

gain; hypotonic

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29
Q

during this phase of growth, bacterial cells adjust to their new environment and synthesize new molecules without an increase in the number of living cells.

A

lag

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30
Q

the testing of microbial cultures for biochemical and enzymatic characteristics along with drug sensitivity, immunologic reactions, and genetic makeup is referred to as

A

information gathering

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31
Q

____ performed the first environment to refute sponatneous generation demonstrating maggots could only form when flies were allowed to lay eggs on meat.

A

Francesco Redi

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32
Q

___ is the lowest temperatue that permits a microbe’s growth and metabolism.

A

minimum temperature

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33
Q

free small circular extrachromosomal pieces of DNA that are not essential to bacterial growth and metabolism.

A

plasmid

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34
Q

the ___ states that mitochondria and chloroplasts found in eukaryotic cells each derived from an ancestral cell engulfing bacteria.

A

endosymbiotic theory

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35
Q

the ____ determines cell shape and prevents lysis due to changes in osmotic pressure

A

cell wall

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36
Q

are found only in gram-negative bacteria and are used for attachment to other bacteria to exchange DNA during conjugation.

A

Pili

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37
Q

counting the number of bacterial cells in a specific volume of liquid culture using a Petroff-Hausser chamber is referred to as

A

direct microscope cell count

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38
Q

____ is a process by which chemical substances are acquired from the environment and used in cellular activities such as metabolism and growth

A

nutrition

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39
Q

____ are produced when some bacteria are exposed to adverse environmental conditions. They are highly resistance and have long-term survival.

A

endospores

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40
Q

based on their oxygen requirement, these microbes will grow throughout a tube of thioglycolate media with more growth in the tube correlating to where the oxygen concentration is the greatest.

A

faculative anaerobes

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41
Q

___ is the coating of molecules external to the cell wall made of sugars and/or protein. They aid in cell attachment and protect the cell against phagocytosis by white blood cells.

A

capsule

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42
Q

these organisms use organic molecules for energy and as a carbon source.

A

chemoheterotrophs

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43
Q

__ are threadlike locomotor appendages extending outward from the plasma membrane and cell wall.

A

flagella

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44
Q

plants and bacteria that use sunlight from their energy source and carbon dioxide for their carbon source are

A

photoautotrophs

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45
Q

the ___ is a dense gelatinous solution which serves as a solvent for materials used in cell functions and most chemical reactions occur here.

A

cytoplasm

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46
Q

an unknown bacterial species is placed in a tube of thioglycolate medium. After incubating for 24 hours, the growth forms a single ring a few millimeters below the surface. This unknown is likely a (an)

A

microaerophile

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47
Q

____ is a complex polysaccharide isolated from red algae used to solidify media first used in Robert Koch’s lab

A

Agar

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48
Q

this type of media allows the growth of several types of microbes and displays visible differences among those microbes

A

differential

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49
Q

microorganisms communicate and cooperate in the formation and function of biofilms by

A

quorum sensing

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50
Q

which of the following have internal flagella called endoflagella?
a. Spirilli
b. Spirochetes
c. Vibrios
d. Cocci
e. Bacilli

A

spirochetes

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51
Q

for a straight run the flagella spins clockwise and counterclockwise for a tumble. true or false

A

false

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52
Q

wet mounts and hanging drop mounts allow the examination of living cells. true or false

A

true

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53
Q

halophiles live in a high salt concentration. T or F

A

true

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54
Q

the suffix “phile” means nourishment.
True or False

A

false

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55
Q

true or false
placing immersion oil directly on the slide before using the oil immersion lens reduces the resolving power

A

false

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56
Q

true or false
the prefix “hetero” means other

A

true

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57
Q

true or false
the 8 taxa for classifying organisms arranged from teh broadest to the most specific rank is represented as : species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom, and domain

A

false

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58
Q

true or false
Dr. Ignaz Semmelweis correlated infections with physicians coming directly from the autopsy room to the maternity ward.

A

true

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59
Q

true or false
commensalism is a symbiotic relationship in which both members benefit

A

false

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60
Q

true or false
the flagellar arrangement that consists of 2 flagella on opposite ends of the cell is called amphitrichous

A

true

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61
Q

true or false
to maintain a viable culture, bacteria should be transferred to new media during the log and stationary phases of growth

A

true

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62
Q

true or false
a slime layer is a glycocalyx that is firmly attached to the cell

A

false

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63
Q

true or false
a protein is an example of a macronutrient

A

false

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64
Q

true or false
nomenclature is assigning names to living organisms

A

true

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65
Q

true or false
viruses are acellular biological entities composed of protein and nucleic acid

A

true

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66
Q

true or false
viroids are infectious proteins

A

false

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67
Q

true or false
Diplococci are a pair of rod shaped bacterial cells

A

false

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68
Q

true or false
catalase is an example of an enzyme produced by microbes to neutralize a reactive oxygen species

A

true

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69
Q

true or false
during binary fission, septation begins when proteins constrict the cell in the center to promote cytokinesis

A

true

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70
Q

true or false
microbial antagonism is when some microbes are inhibited or destroyed by other microbes by competition.

A

true

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71
Q

identify the temperature classifications in order from lowest temp to highest temp

A

psychotrophs, mesophiles, thermophiles, hyperthermophiles

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72
Q

what is the temperature range for mesophiles

A

15c - 45c

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73
Q

____ nutrients contain carbon and hydrogen atoms and are usually the products of living things

A

organic

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74
Q

_____ proposed postulates to show specific disease is contributed to a specific microbe, “one microbe, one disease”

A

Robert Koch

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75
Q

_____ like a pH range from 5.5 to 8.5

A

neutrophils

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76
Q

____ cultures have more than one microbe growing in sample or culture media

A

mixed

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77
Q

when staining in the laboratory, you need to use a _____ charged dye to color the bacterial cells which are normally transperant or colorless.

A

positive

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78
Q

the ____ is the time from initial contact with an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptoms.

A

incubation period

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79
Q

what toxin is responsible for scalded skin syndrome?

A

exfoliative toxin

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80
Q

____ is the type of horizontal gene transfer that happens when a bacterial cell takes up naked DNA from the environment released from a lysed cell.

A

transformation

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81
Q

which term best describes the chemical reactions that release energy while the bonds of larger molecules are broken to form smaller molecules?

A

catabolism

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82
Q

according to the central dogma in biology, which of the following represents the flow of genetic information in cells?

A

DNA to RNA to protein

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83
Q

the degree of pathogenicity of an infectious agent is referred to as

A

virulence

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84
Q

a localized Staphylococcal infection most common in newborns and is characterized by bubble-like swellings that can break and peel away.

A

impetigo

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85
Q

which inhibitor reduces enzyme activity by binding to an allosteric site located outside of the active site?
a. competitive inhibitor
b. noncompetitive inhibitor
c. allosteric inhibitor
d. allosteric activator
e. two of the above

A

two of the above
noncompetitive inhibitor
allosteric inhibitor

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86
Q

all the following organs should remain sterile except for the
a. brain
b. heart
c. skin
d. lungs
e. bladder

A

skin

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87
Q

ATP is formed by all except
a. substrate level phosphorylation
b. oxidative phosphorylation
c. photophosphorylation
d. dephosphorylation
e. all the above are mechanisms used to form ATP

A

dephosphorylation

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88
Q

the full collection of genes a cell contains within its genome is called the

A

genotype

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89
Q

which of the following is likely the cause of endocarditis after an intensive dental procedure?
a. staphylococcus agalactiae
b. streptococcus pneumoniae
c. streptococcus pyogenes
d. streptococcus mutans
e. all the above

A

streptococcus mutans

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90
Q

___ are virulence factors that chemically break down or dissolve host’s barriers and promote the spread of microbes to deeper tissues.

A

exoenzymes

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91
Q

which enzyme adds nucleotides to make the new complementary strand of DNA alongside the parental strand?

A

DNA polymerase III

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92
Q

A large deep lesion created by the aggregation and interconnection of furuncles is a

A

carbuncle

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93
Q

what is the most common organic molecule utilized by human pathogens to produce cellular energy?

A

glucose

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94
Q

__ are subjective and are felt or experienced by the patient and cannot be objectively measured.

A

symptoms

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95
Q

which of the following pathogens produces the most virulence factors and antibiotic resistance?
a. streptococcus pyogenes
b.enterococcus faecalis
c. neisseria menigitidis
d.staphylococcus aureus
e. streptococcus pneumoniae

A

staphylococcus aureus

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96
Q

the science of genetics explores:
a. the transmission of biological properties (traits) from parent to offspring
b. the expression and variation of those traits
c. the structure and function of genetic material
d. evolution
e. all of the above

A

all of the above

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97
Q

ATP is the energy currency of the cell and is a three-part molecule. which is not a part of this molecule?
a.adenine
b. ribose
c. phosphate groups
d. deoxyribose
e. two of the above

A

deoxyribose

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98
Q

when an infectious agent is passed along by water, air, or food, this type of transmission is referred to as

A

vehicle transmission

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99
Q

which of the following refers to the mechanism of horizontal gene transfer naturally responsible for the spread of antibiotic resistance genes of a R plasmid through a pilus?

A

conjugation

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100
Q

___ can infect an infant when passing though the birth canal and can cause pneumonia, sepsis, meningitis?

A

streptococcus agalactiae

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101
Q

The physical, chemical, and mechanical methods to destroy reduce undesirable microbes in a given area

A

Decontamination

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102
Q

Antibiotics are common metabolic products of aerobic bacteria such as

A

Streptomyces

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103
Q

A cystic fibrosis patient was admitted to the hospital due to a respiratory infection. The suspected pathogen was a Gram-negative bacillus that produced a greenish-blue pigment on Mueller Hinton agar. the likely suspect is

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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104
Q

Gas gangrene is caused by

A

Clostridium perfringens

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105
Q

Identify a mechanism by which microbes acquire drug resistance by the acquisition of new genes or sets of genes via transfer from another species (horizontal gene transfer)
a.spontanueous mutation
b. transformation
c. induced mutation
d. transduction
e. two of the above

A

two of the above

transduction/transformation

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106
Q

Which term best describes an agent that will kill microbes

A

Microbicidal

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107
Q

Major side effects in 5% of all persons taking antimicrobials will include (name 4 things)

A

Tissue damage, allergic reactions, superinfections, tissue toxicity

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108
Q

Which of the following microbes would you expect to be at the most difficult to kill with routine methods of disinfection?
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Escherichia coli
d. Vibrio cholera
e. Proteus vulgaris

A

Clostridium tetani

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109
Q

Which antiviral drug inhibits the enzyme reverse transcriptase?

A

AZT

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110
Q

A non-coliform member of the large group of enteric bacteria referred to as Enterobacteriaceae

A

Proteus

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111
Q

This method for controlling microbial growth on fomites will eliminate all vegetative cells, endospores, and viruses

A

Sterilization

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112
Q

A 4-year-old boy from Central America recently arrived in the US with his parents. After a few week, he experiences a sore throat, fever, swollen glands and weakness. Upon physical examination, the doctor notices a gray layer covering the back of his throat resembling a pseudomembrane. What pathogen is the likely culprit of this boy’s illness?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

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113
Q

The amount of medication given during a certain time interval

A

Dosage

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114
Q

Which toxin causes inflammation and loss of the ciliary mechanism in the respiratory tract leading to mucus buildup and blockage of the airways resulting in a distinctive whooping cough?

A

Pertussis

115
Q

What is the action of tetanospasmin

A

causes a rigid paralysis by blocking a neurotransmitter for muscular contraction inhibition

116
Q

Antimicrobial drugs target (name 4 things)

A

cell wall, protein synthesis, metabolic pathways, nucleic acid synthesis

117
Q

A fastidious Gram-negative bacillus species that causes acute meningitis, pneumonia, and conjunctivitis

A

Haemophilus influenzae

118
Q

Pathogenic types of this enteric bacillus can cause infantile, traveler’s and bloody diarrheal diseases

A

Escherichia

119
Q

Hand washing is an example of ___ decontamination

A

mechanical

120
Q

What are 3 facts of Leprosy

A

-it likes to grow at 30 degrees C
-the major forms are tuberculoid and lepromatous leprosy
-it is a chronic progressive disease of skin and nerves

121
Q

All are factors that influence the effectiveness of an antimicrobial agent

A

-Exposure time
-concentration the agent
-number of organisms
-pH of the environment

122
Q

Which clinical stage of tuberculosis is characterized by the dissemination of bacilli to regional lymph nodes, kidneys, long bones, genital tract, brain, and meninges?

A

Extrapulmonary

123
Q

Microbes use several different strategies to develop drug resistance. The possession of genes which code for enzymes that chemically modify an antimicrobial agent is called

A

drug modification or inactivation

124
Q

The genera of human pathogens that produce endospores include

A

Bacillus and Clostridium

125
Q

Which term best describes the application of an antimicrobial chemical to reduce the microbes on skin or tissue

A

Antiseptic

126
Q

What bacteria’s are classified as an unevenly staining non-spore forming Gram-positive bacilli

A

Coynebacterium, Propionibacterium, Mycobacterium, Nocardia

127
Q

This pathogen lives inside of amoebas in natural waters and inside of white blood cells in the human body. It is acquired when susceptible individuals inhales contaminated moist droplets from natural water reservoirs

A

Legionella pneumophila

128
Q

A non-coliform cause of dysentery and HUS which is acquired by ingesting contaminated food or water

A

Shigella

129
Q

____ discovered the first antibiotic, penicillin, in 1948

A

Alexander Fleming

130
Q

The gradual removal of water from cells which leads to metabolic inhibition is referred to as

A

desiccation

131
Q

Pregnant women are 10X more likely to be infected with this pathogen when consuming contaminated dairy products, poultry, and meat which can have detrimental effects on a fetus

A

Listeria monocytogenes

132
Q

The antibacterial drug is used to treat active Salmonella typhi infections and asymptomatic carriers

A

Fluoroquinolones

133
Q

This antibiotic can be used to treat UTIs and is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim

A

Bactrim

134
Q

Detergents are

A

Surfactants

135
Q

The standard temperature-pressure combination for an autoclave is

A

121 degrees C and 15 psi

136
Q

All members of the penicillin family consist of the following

A

Thiazolidine ring
beta-lactam ring
variable side chain

137
Q

The antibiotic targets the bacterial cell membrane and is historically used for bowel decontamination before a gastric procedure

A

Colistin

138
Q

This pathogen is usually responsible for foodborne illness associated with consumption of home canned vegetables contaminated with endospores

A

Clostridium botulinum

139
Q

Examples of moist heat methods of decontamination

A

boiling, autoclaving, pasteurization, UHT

140
Q

Asymptomatic carriers of Salmonella typhi shed the bacilli from their

A

gall bladder

141
Q

This pathogen is often the culprit of antibiotic-associated colitis

A

Clostridium difficile

142
Q

This physical method of decontamination is used to sterilize materials sensitive to heat and chemicals and is often referred to as cold sterilization

A

Ionizing radiation

143
Q

This product is used for a “lunch hour face lift”

A

Botox

144
Q

The causative agent of the bubonic, pneumonic, and septicemic plague

A

Yersinia pestis

145
Q

Which antibiotics target the 30S ribosomal subunit except for
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Streptomycin
c. Tobramycin
d. Doxycycline
e. Tetracycline

A

Chloramphenicol

146
Q

At a high concentration, this chemical agent is an effective sterilant

A

hydrogen peroxide

147
Q

Most antifungal drugs target this cellular structure to prevent toxicity to human cells

A

cell membrane

148
Q

This gas is an approved chemical sterilizing agent

A

Ethylene oxide

149
Q

What is the action of the botulin toxin

A

causes a flaccid paralysis by inhibiting acetylcholine release in the neuromuscular junction

150
Q

This Gram-negative bacillus causes a sexually transmitted infection (STI) characterized by a chance in hot tropical climates such as African and Asian countries and is recognized as a major cause of non-sexually transmitted cutaneous ulcers among children in these regions

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

151
Q

Penicillins and cephalosporins interfere with

A

cell wall synthesis

152
Q

Cutaneous anthrax is characterized by a small papule called

A

black eschar

153
Q

Pigs are often vaccinated to prevent the spread of this pathogen which causes a specific type of cellulitis

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

154
Q

This vector-borne pathogen causes rabbit fever and is endemic to the northern hemisphere

A

Francisella tularensis

155
Q

True of False

The major virulence factor for Corynebacterium diphtheriae is an exotoxin that destroys healthy respiratory tissue (epithelial cells)

A

True

156
Q

True of False

Heavy metals dissolved in alcohol and used as antiseptics are referred to as tinctures

A

True

157
Q

True of False

The paroxysmal stage of whooping cough is characterized by the recurrent coughing fits of 10-20 coughs that produces the characteristic “whoop” sound

A

True

158
Q

True of False

The E-test diffusion test determines both susceptibility and minimum inhibitory concentration

A

True

159
Q

True of False

All members of the Enterobacteriaceae family ferment both glucose and lactose

A

False

160
Q

True of False

All chemotherapeutic agents that kill or inhibit the growth of microorganism are antibiotics

A

False

161
Q

True of False

During primary tuberculosis, it is common for patients to experience violent coughing episodes accompanied with bloody sputum

A

False

162
Q

True of False

Leprosy is a communicable disease, however approximately 95% of the human population have natural immunity

A

True

163
Q

True of False

The use of broad-spectrum antibiotics has contributed to the increased number of drug resistant pathogens

A

True

164
Q

True of False

There are 4 generations of cephalosporin type drugs with each group being more effective against Gram-negative bacteria and has an improved dosing schedule with fever side effects

A

True

165
Q

The therapeutic index for a chemotherapeutic drug with a toxic dose of 30ug/mL and a minimum inhibitory concentration of 2ug/mL is ____

A

15ug/mL

166
Q

_____ is the “new” vaccine recommended by the CDC, contains Pertussis toxoid instead of the attenuated whole cell, and children are required to have 5 doses

A

DTaP

167
Q

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli acquired the Shiga toxin by

A

Transduction

168
Q

Halogens such as iodine and _____ are the active ingredients in nearly 1/3 of all antimicrobial chemicals currently being marketed

A

Chlorine

169
Q

List 2 of the 4 drugs commonly used in the treatment and management of Tuberculosis

A

Rifampin & Isoniazid

170
Q

The innate immune system is considered the 1st and 2nd lines of defense against pathogenic organism. What is part of the 2nd line of defense?

A

Phagocytosis, Complement, Inflammation, Neutrophils

171
Q

What are the secondary lymphoid organ or tissue

A

lymph nodes, tonsil, peyer’s patches, spleen

172
Q

What is the correct order of steps for the viral lytic replication cycle (phase) are:

A

Attachment, penetration, synthesis, assembly, and release

173
Q

T lymphocyte maturation occurs by 3 steps in the following order?

A

T cells receive a T cell receptor that will recognize antigen,
Test whether the T cell receptor will react appropriately with MHC molecules,
Removal of T cells that react to self-molecules

174
Q

What is used to classify viruses

A

Naked or Enveloped
DNA or RNA
Double/Single stranded genomes
Segmented/non-segmented genomes

175
Q

This signaling molecule is secreted to reduce protein synthesis in neighboring cells during a viral infection (the most specific answer)

A

Interferons

176
Q

Theses vaccines expose an individual to a weakened strain of the pathogen with the goal of establishing a subclinical infection that will activate the adaptive immune response

A

Live attenuated

177
Q

Mast cells and basophils release this molecule to promote vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, contraction of smooth muscles, and to increase mucus secretion

A

Histamine

178
Q

When influenza pandemic occur, it is most likely to involve which combination below

A

Flu A; antigenic shift

179
Q

This cancer in children is of B-cell original and is associated with a prior infection with the virus that causes infectious mononucleosis

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

180
Q

This leukocyte is the most numerous in the blood and is highly important in the response against bacterial pathogens

A

Neutrophils

181
Q

Harvoni, 1 pill a days for 12-24 weeks, is a treatment for

A

Hepatitis C

182
Q

The causative agent of chickenpox

A

Varicella

183
Q

Which is referred to as infectious hepatitis and is acquired through contaminated food and water?

A

Hepatitis A

184
Q

This antibody is the most prevalent in body fluids, the second antibody produced by plasma cells, and is produced by memory B cells providing long term immunity

A

IgG

185
Q

What are all the mechanical defenses designed to remove pathogens from the body to prevent them from taking up residence?

A

Phagocytosis

186
Q

What are the benefits associated with fever during inflammation?

A

Prevents the nutrition of bacteria by reducing the availability of iron
Enhances the innate immune defenses by stimulating leukocytes to kill pathogens
Inhibits multiplication of heat sensitive microbes

187
Q

The adaptive line of defense can quickly respond to pathogens previously encountered because of __

A

memory

188
Q

Ocular herpes causes inflammation of eye which results in a gritty feeling in the eye, conjunctivitis, sharp pain, and sensitivity to light. This infection is called __?

A

herpetic keratitis

189
Q

Which of the following is a single stranded DNA virus family?

A

Parvoviruses

190
Q

These cells kill by secreting perforins to create pores in infected cells and granzymes which enter these pores and cause the cells to die by apoptosis

A

T cytotoxic & Natural killer cells

191
Q

What are true statements concerning viruses

A

The capsid together with the nucleic acid is the nucleocapsid
Not all viruses posses an envelope
Most viruses have a limited host range
The viral envelope is derived for the host cell membrane

192
Q

The antigen presenting cells include?

A

B lymphocyte, Macrophage, Dendritic cell

193
Q

This vaccine only exposes the individual to key antigens of a pathogen produced either by chemically degrading a pathogen and isolating key antigens or producing antigens via genetic engineering

A

subunit

194
Q

A severely immunocompromised patient is no longer able to produce an appropriate cell-mediated or humoral immune response. Being both branches of adaptive immunity are impacted, which cell type is likely dysfunctional?

A

T helper cells

195
Q

If an individual had an autoimmune disease that destroyed or blocked several complement proteins, which protective mechanism of the immune response would not likely change?

A

Iron restriction

196
Q

The viral agent associated with Kaposi sarcoma is

A

herpesvirus 8

197
Q

Leukocytes in the blood or tissues are formed elements classified as granulocytes or agranulocytes. Which are granulocytes?

A

Neutrophils, Basophils, Eosinophils, Mast cells

198
Q

The poxvirus responsible for smallpox is

A

variola

199
Q

During her annual pap smear, Sarah’s physician noticed a large cauliflower like growth on the genitalia. Sarah is most likely infected with __?

A

HPV

200
Q

What are the 5 common red rashes in children

A

roseola

201
Q

electrons are lost in ___ reactions and gained in ___ reactions.

A

oxidation; reduction

202
Q

bacterial DNA is transferred to a recipient cell by a bacteriophage during

A

transduction

203
Q

which of the following is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia?

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

204
Q

____ contact trainsmission occurs when an infectious agent passes to a new host from an inanimate object called a fomite.

A

indirect

205
Q

which of the following is incorrect concerning enzyme structure and function?
a. is a biological catalyst
b. is permenantly altered in a chemical reaction
c. binds to specific substrates
d. is sensitive to changes in temperature
e. all the above are incorrect

A

is permanently altered in a chemical reaction

206
Q

which part of the lipopolysaccharide endotoxin is responsible for its toxic properties?

A

lipid A

207
Q

which of the following is not a stage of pathogenesis?
a. systemic
b. exposure
c. adhesion
d. invasion
e. infection

A

systemic

208
Q

in the elderly, this microorganism is a major cause of nosocomial infections such as blood, wound, endocarditis, and UTIs

A

Enterococcus faecalis

209
Q

which of the following is not a characteristic of a coenzyme?
a. large and organic
b.usually part of a vitamin
c. participates directly in the chemical reaction
d. removes functional groups from a substrate and acts as a carrier
e. all are characteristics of a coenzyme

A

participates directly in the chemical reaction

210
Q

an exotoxin that lyses red blood cells is a

A

hemotoxin

211
Q

these organisms use organic molecules for energy and as a carbon source

A

chemoheterotrophs

212
Q

there are many circumstances under which aerobic respiration is not possible, including any one or more the following
a. the cell lacks genes encoding an appropriate cytochrome oxidase for transferring electrons to oxygen at the end of the electron transport system
b. the cell lacks genes encoding enzymes to minimize the severely damaging effects of dangerous oxygen radicals produced during aerobic respiration
c. the cell acks enough oxygen to carry out aerobic respiration
d. A and C
e. A, B, and C

A

A, B, and C

213
Q

the __ of a disease is the accumulated total of existing cases with respect to the entire population.

A

prevalence

214
Q

which one of the following does not aid in bacterial adhesion during phagogenesis?
a. flagella
b. fimbriae
c. glycocalyx
d. cilia
e. two of the above

A

cilia

215
Q

which of the following statements about complementary base pairing in DNA is incorrect?
a.purines pair with pyrimidines
b.adenine binds to guanine
c.base pairs are stabalized by hydrogen bonds
d. base pairing occurs at the interior of the double helix
e. cytosine binds to guanine

A

adenine binds to guanine

216
Q

when a disease occasionally occurs and is reported at irregular intervals, it is described as a

A

sporadic occurrence

217
Q

impetigo can be caused by

A

staphylococcus aureus and streptococcus pyogenes

218
Q

the replicon model of bacterial chromosome replicatoin consists of the following in correct order
a. initiation, termination, and elongation
b. initiation, replication, and termination
c. replication, initation, and elongation
d. initiation, elongation, and termination
e. none of the above

A

initation, elongation, and termination

219
Q

all are true concerning Staphylococcus aureus except
a. carriage rate for healthy adults is 20-60%
b.withstands high salt, extreme pH, and high temperatures
c. can produce enterotoxins
d. have small and non-pigmented colonies
e.is a faculative anaerobe

A

have small and nonpigmented colonies

220
Q

A (n)___ pathogen is one that invades the tissues when the body defenses are supressed.

A

opportunistic

221
Q

whoch stage (period) of an infectious disease is described by the patient’s immune system overcoming a microbe, the fading of symptoms, and the returing of normal body fucntions?

A

convalescent

222
Q

which of the following is not a common cause of bacterial meningitis?
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Neisseria influenzae
d. Haemophilus influenzae
e. Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

223
Q

a small punture wound on a woman’s arm has become swollen, hot to the touch, and intenely painful. there is tissue necrosis, but it is not gassy. Under the microscope Gram-positive cocci in chains are observed. which of the following microbes is likey to be responsible?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Clostridium perfringens
e. Staphylococcus epidermidis

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

224
Q

which of the following is not a virulence factor for Neiserria meningitidis?
a. capsule
b. adhesive fimbriae
c. IgA protease
d. endotoxin
e. Exotoxin B

A

Exotixin B

225
Q

a localized infection of the skin caused by Streptococcus pyogenes that is more common in the elderly:

A

erysipelas

226
Q

all are true concering glycolysis except for:
a. occurs in the cytoplasm for both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
b. begins with a single glucose molecule and ends with two molecules pyruvate
c.involves an energy investment phase and an energy payoff pahse
d. requires oxygen
e.all the above are true

A

requires oxygen

227
Q

Sequelae such as rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis which occur after a strep throat infection are due to

A

autoimmune response

228
Q

when a new complementary strand of DNA is constructed alongside the parental strand of DNA, this is refered to as __ replication

A

semiconservative

229
Q

all are tue concerning the Krebs cycle excpet for
a. occurs in the cytoplasma of the prokaryotic cell
b. a bridge reaction muct occur first to convert the pyrivuc acid from glycolysis into Acetyl CoA
c. two Acetyl CoA enter the krebs cycle
d. one acetyl CoA is needed for each turn of the wheel
e. all are true

A

all are true

230
Q

which of the following is not an example of a microorganism that commonly makes up the normal flora of the large intestine
a. Bacteroids
b. Bifidobacterium
c.Clostridium
d. Haemophilus
e. Escherichia coli

A

haemophilus

231
Q

which enzyme separates the two parental strands in the double helix at the origin of replication?

A

helicase

232
Q

true or false
Uracil is a nitrogen base in DNA

A

False

233
Q

true or false
A chromosome is subdivided into genes which are the fundamental units of heredity

A

true

234
Q

true or false
Group A Streptococcus or (GAS) refers to Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

flase

235
Q

true or false
a disease is a condition in which pathogenic microorganisms penetrate the host defenses, enters tissues and multiply

A

false

236
Q

true or false
carbohydrates carry out most cellular functions and are built using the information in DNA and RNA

A

false

237
Q

true or false
constitutive genes are expressed due to environmental signals

A

false

238
Q

Serum hepatitis is acquired through blood transfusions, sex, and contaminated needles. Which virus causes this type of hepatitis?

A

Hepatitis B

239
Q

During the acute inflammatory response, these cells clean up dead cells and tissue debris

A

Macrophages

239
Q

This leukocyte is effective against protozoa and helminth infections

A

Eosinophils

240
Q

This leukocyte matures in the bone marrow and is responsible for the production of antibodies that destroy extracellular pathogens and toxins.

A

B lymphocytes

241
Q

Cells that have a CD8 molecule on their surface and are the primary effector cells of cellular immunity are called

A

T cytotoxic

242
Q

All the following are true concerning B cell receptors (BCR)

A

BCR are antibodies of class IgD or IgM
The variable region binds to a specific antigen on a pathogen
BCR are involved in the first step of B-cell activation

243
Q

This antibody is uncommon in blood unless one has an allergic reaction or parasitic worm infection stimulating the release of histamine.

A

IgE

244
Q

A type of viral infection which is persistent, generally undetectable during its dormant phase, and reactivates to cause recurrent infections throughout the host’s lifetime

A

Latent infection

245
Q

Antibodies agglutinate bacteria by binding to epitopes on two or more bacteria simultaneously to prevent host cell binding. Which antibody class is typically responsible for this type of antibody antigen interaction?

A

IgM

246
Q

The most prevalent cause of respiratory infections in children 6 months or younger and symptoms include croup, fever, rhinitis, pharyngitis, and otitis media.

A

Respiratory syncytial virus

247
Q

The MMR vaccine is effective in protecting against this viruses

A

Mumps
Measles
Rubella

248
Q

Epidemic parotitis is inflammation of one or both parotid salivary glands resulting in severally swollen face and/or neck. The causative agent is the __ virus.

A

Mumps

249
Q

Oral lesions called Koplik spots are associated with

A

Measles

250
Q

The __ virus is a progressive zoonotic disease characterized by a fatal meningoencephalitis.

A

Rabies

251
Q

True of False

The immune system exists and functions as a single, well-defined site.

A

False

252
Q

True of False

Lysozyme breaks down on peptidoglycan

A

True

253
Q

True of False

Resident microbiota serve as an important first-line defense against invading pathogens

A

True

254
Q

True of False

If a congenital rubella infection occurs during the first trimester of pregnancy, infants can be born with multiple defects such as cardiac abnormalities, ocular lesions, deafness, and retardation

A

True

255
Q

True of False

T lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow

A

False

256
Q

True of False

Oncogenic viruses can cause cancer

A

True

257
Q

True of False

Lipids and nucleic acids are the most effective antigens

A

False

258
Q

True of False

T cytotoxic cells only recognize antigen presented within the MHC I of antigen presenting cells

A

False

259
Q

True of False

T helper 2 cells are important for B cell activation toward protein antigens

A

True

260
Q

True of False

Opsonization is an antigen-antibody interaction that involves the binding of antibodies to the surface of pathogens or toxins thereby preventing their attachment to cells

A

False

261
Q

True of False

Breastfeeding is an example of natural passive immunity by IgA in breast milk

A

True

262
Q

True of False

Natural active immunity involves deliberately exposing a person to material that is antigenic but not pathogenic and is the foundation for vaccination

A

False

263
Q

True of False

All viruses have capsids which are composed of capsomers

A

True

264
Q

True of False

HHV-6 causes cervical and penile cancer

A

False

265
Q

True of False

All cells in the blood are formed in the bone marrow

A

True

266
Q

Phagocytes recognize pathogen molecular structures that are called

A

Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns

267
Q

Natural killer cells are a type of ___ lymphocyte

A

T-cell

268
Q

An __ that can stimulate a response by T and B cells is an immunogen

A

antigen

269
Q

true or false
a pathogen can be transmitted during any of the periods or stages of an infectious disease

A

true

270
Q

true or false
resident microbes only occupy the body for a short period of time

A

false

271
Q

true or false
the more virulent a pathogen is the higher its infectous dose

A

false

272
Q

true or false
Noscomial diseases or healthcare-associated infections are those acquired or developed during a hospital stay

A

true

273
Q

true or false
vertical gene transmission is the transfer of genetic information from parent to daughter cells

A

true

274
Q

true or false
The electron carrier nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) is identified as NADH in its oxidized form and NAD+ in its reduced form

A

false

275
Q

true or false
A mechanical vector actively participates in a pathogen’s life cycle when infected with the pathogen

A

false

276
Q

true or false
Bacteremia is when a small number of bacteria is found in the blood

A

true

277
Q

true or false
removal of the terminal phospate from ATP releases energy

A

true

278
Q

name two of the most important molecules in genetics or gene expression

A

DNA, protein

279
Q

fill in the blank
1. Glycolysis___ ATP
2. Krebs _______ATP
Electron Transport Chain
3. 2NADH (from gylosysis)=______ ATP
4. 8NADH (from krebs)=__________ATP
5. 2FADH2 (from krebs)=__________ATP
TOTAL ENERGY=________ATP

A
  1. Glycolysis 2 ATP
  2. Krebs 2 ATP
    Electron Transport Chain
  3. 2NADH (from gylosysis)=6 ATP
  4. 8NADH (from krebs)=24 ATP
  5. 2FADH2 (from krebs)=4 ATP
    TOTAL ENERGY=38 ATP
280
Q

what Streptococcal species is referred to as a Group B Streptococcus

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

281
Q

name one bacterial genus or species that commnly causes bacteremia and septicemis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

282
Q

Self-reacting lymphocytes that escape primary lymphoid organs are eliminated by __ T cells

A

regulatory

283
Q

The influenza __ glycoprotein is the most important virulence factor permits host cell binding

A

hemagglutinin