micro exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Streptococcus:
- Gram Stain
- Catalase Test
-Hemolysis

A
  • grow on 5% sheep blood agar
  • Gram positive
  • Catalase (-)
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2
Q

What are the three types of hemolysis produced from Streptococcus ?

A
  • Alpha: Partial lysis of RBC: clear zone
  • Beta: Complete Lysis: Green zone
  • Gamma: No lysis: No Zone
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3
Q

Species can be differentiated based on differences in the C carbohydrate in the cell wall, How?

A

Group A, B….

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4
Q

2 potential pathogens

A
  • Streptococcus Pyogenes
  • Streptococcus pneumonia
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5
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes are…?

A
  1. beta hemolytic
  2. Group A strep
  3. > 80 types based on difference in the M
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6
Q

What are the virulence factors of this streptococcus pyogenes?

A

M protein- attachment/ anti-phagocytic

Capsule- hyaluronic acid

Special surface polysaccharides-
protection from host lysozyme

production of many enzymes and toxins

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7
Q

What are the important sequellae for streptococcus pyogenes?

A
  • rheumatic fever
  • glomerulonephritis
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8
Q

Streptococcus pneumonia are…?

A
  • Alpha Hemolytic
  • 100 types based on differences in the capsule
  • vaccine: capsular material of the most prevalent types
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9
Q

What are the virulence factors of streptococcus pneumonia?

A
  1. capsule
  2. secretion of pneumolysin (toxin)
    - impairs immune function
    -cytotoxic to pulmonary endothelial cells
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10
Q

Meningitis

A
  • inflammation of the meninges
  • 3 layers of connective tissues surrounding the brain and spinal column
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11
Q

Disease process of meningitis…?

A
  • penetrates the respiratory mucosa
  • enters blood stream
  • crosses the blood- barrier into meninges
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12
Q

three leading cause of bacterial meningitis?

A
  • Haemophilus Influenze
  • Streptococcus Pneumonia
  • Neisseria Meningitides
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13
Q

Haemophilus influenza ?

A
  • gram (-) coccobacilli
  • humans are the only known reservoir
  • type b most pathogenic
  • Vaccine: capsular material
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14
Q

What are the virulence factors of Haemophilus influenza?

A
  • capsule
  • endotoxins
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15
Q

describe the disease process of Haemophilus influenza

A
  • organism infects nasopharynx
  • small % cases, enter blood
  • cross blood brain barrier into CNS
  • in CNS bacterial endotoxins cause release of IL-1 and TNF-alpha; endotoxins weaken blood brain barrier
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16
Q

Neisseria meningitis

A
  • Causes epidemic meningitis
  • Gram (-) dipplococcic
  • humans are the only known host
  • Spread primarily oral secretion/droplets from asymptomatic carriers
  • vaccine: capsular materia
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17
Q

what is the virulence factors of Neisseria meningitides?

A
  • polysaccharide capsule
  • fimbriae
  • invades host cells and grown intracellularly
  • release of large amounts of endotoxins
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18
Q

What is the diesease process of Neisseria meningitides ?

A
  • infection begins as nasophayngeal infection
  • organism attaches to epithelial cells
  • organism invades and grows intracellularly
  • small % cases organism enters blood
  • infects meninges
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19
Q

Bordetella Pertussis (whooping cough)

A
  1. Gram (-) coccobacilli (highly infectious)
  2. transmission rate of 90%
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20
Q

Virulence factors of Bordetella Pertussis (whooping cough)

A
  • adheres to epithelial cell (trachea)
  • exotoxins
    1. pertussis toxin
    2. tracheal cytotoxin
  • endotoxins
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21
Q

4 stages of the disease process

A
  1. incubation: (7-10 days)
  2. catarrhal: (sneezing, mild irritating 1-2 weeks)
  3. spasmodic: (violent cough 1-6 weeks)
  4. convalescence: (recovery 2 weeks-months)
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22
Q

Vaccine of bordetella pertussis

A
  • DTaP contains “acellular pertussis” fragments of killed bordetella pertussis cells
  • after age of 11
  • booster shot
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23
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheria?
Stain and shape?

A
  • Gram (+) rods ; line up in parallel (picket fence/Chinese letters)
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24
Q

Virulence factors of Corynebacterium diphtheria

A
  • excretes powerful exotoxin
    Results: Kill cells
    organism remains localized
    but toxin can become systematic
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25
Q

how does exotoxin work in corynebacterium diphtheria?

A
  • B: binding to host cells
  • A: Stop proteins synthesis
  • stops movement of ribosomes along mRNA
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26
Q

corynebacterium diphtheria vaccine ?

A

Vaccine: part of the DTaP (‘D’ indicates diphtheria toxoid (inactivated diphtheria toxin)

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27
Q

For treatment anti-toxin can be given. What is an ‘anti-toxin’ ?

A

Before exotoxin enters vital organs

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28
Q

Mycobacterium, what does myco mean?

A

filamentous

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29
Q

Acid-fast organism have mycolic acid (waxy lipid) in the cell wall
- How does mycolic acid influence the properties of Mycobacterium?

A
  1. Acid-fast
  2. increases generation time (15-20 hours)
  3. enables organism to be more resistant to chemicals/drying
  4. enables organism to resist destruction in macrophages
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30
Q

Diseases caused by acid-fast bacteria are slow chronic diseases: true or false?

A

true

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31
Q

what are the 2 pathogens of mycobacterium?

A
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Mycobacterium leprae
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32
Q

Characteristics of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A
  1. Resistant to chemicals and drying; killed by heat
  2. Review the disease process of Tb
  3. Treatment: multiple drugs over an extended period of time because the organism is intracellular
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33
Q

Characteristics of Mycobacterium Leprae?

A
  1. Optimal temperature 30°C
  2. 2 forms of leprosy
    a. Tuberculoid (neural); loss of sensation
    b. Lepromatous (progressive); disfigurement
  3. Treatment: multiple drugs over an extended period of time
  4. ‘atypical’ Mycobacterium species: relatively non-pathogenic species
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34
Q

Characteristics of Legionella pneumophila?

A

a. Gram (-) type cell wall
b. First described in 1976: epidemic in Philadelphia
c. Transmitted by the inhalation of contaminated water
- No evidence of person-person transmission
d. Resistant to normal chlorine levels
e. Review the virulence factors

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35
Q

Mycoplasma Pneumonia

A
  • Smallest organism that can grow and reproduce outside living host cells
  • Transmitted by airborne droplets
  • Disease affects the upper respiratory tract; mild symptoms
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36
Q

unusual factors of Mycoplasma Pneumonia

A
  1. Lack peptidoglycan cell wall
  2. plasma membrane contains
  3. highly pleomophic: size 0.1-0.25 um
  4. Colonies have “fried egg” appearance
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37
Q

The developmental cycle of chlamydia

A
  1. elementary features
  2. reticulate body
  3. elementary body
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38
Q

how is chlamydia cultured?

A
  • cell culture
  • lab animals
  • yolk sacs of chick embryos
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39
Q

Three species of culture

A
  • Chlamydia psittaci: birds (respiratory)
    -Chlamydia pneumonia: person-person (respiratory)
    -Chlamydia trachomatis: (sexually transmitted)
40
Q

Fungi: Blastomyces dermatitidis

A
  • Endemic in the eastern region of the USA
  • Source: moist soil, especially if exposed to animal wastes
41
Q

Fungi: Histoplasma capsulatum

A
  • Endemic in the central/mid-western area of the USA
  • Source: moist soil; bird and bat feces
42
Q

Fungi: Coccidioides immitis

A
  • Endemic in hot, arid regions; southwest USA
  • Source: soil in hot, arid regions
43
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A
  • World-wide distribution
  • Yeast cells have a large capsule
  • Source: pigeons; moist soil
  • In the immunosuppressed, a chronic meningitis can result
44
Q

Fungi: Pneumocystis jirovreci (carinii)

A
  • World-wide distribution
  • Very common
  • In the immunosuppressed, a life-threatening pneumonia can result
45
Q

Common Cold Viruses are DNA or RNA?

46
Q

What are the major types of common cold viruses?

A
  1. rhinovirus
  2. parainfluenza
  3. RSV
  4. Coronavirus
  5. Reovirus
47
Q

rhinovirus

A
  • leading cause of the common cold
  • about 160 types; immunity is “type-specific”
  • remains viable for hours; single virus can induce cold
48
Q

Parainfluenza virus

A
  • 4 types
  • in children: can cause severe pneumonia and croup
49
Q

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

A
  • Can be very serious in infants
  • Vaccine: contains purified viral surface proteins
50
Q

Coronavirus

A
  1. Cause 15-20% common colds
  2. There have been 3 major pandemics of more virulent strains
51
Q

Reovirus: what does reo stand for?

A

respiratory, enteric, orphan

52
Q

(Coronavirus) What are the three major pandemics of more virulent strains ?

A
  • SARS (2003)
    -MERS (2012)
    -COVID 19 (2019)
53
Q

reovirus: viruses be isolated from ___ people and people with disease

A

Asymptomatic

54
Q

Influenza Virus: RNA or DNA?

55
Q

What is the shape of influenza virus?

A

8 helical segments of RNA per capsid

56
Q

What are the three types of influenza?

57
Q

Is epidemics most frequently caused by major changes in influenza A,B, or C ?

58
Q

What does Influenza A infect?

A
  • humans
  • animals
  • birds
59
Q

What are the frequent mutations in Influenza Virus?

A
  • Antigenic Shift
  • Antigenic Drift
60
Q

What is Antigenic Shift?

A

Major change in spike proteins

61
Q

What is Antigenic Drift?

A

Minor change in spike proteins

62
Q

What are the two viral spikes of Influenza Virus?

A
  • Hemagglutinin
  • Neuraminidase
63
Q

What is Hemagglutinin?

A

recognition/attachment to host cells

64
Q

What is Neuraminidase?

A

breaks down mucous lining; aids budding and release of virus form the host cell

65
Q

Adenovirus

A

a. DNA virus
b. First isolated from the adenoids
c. Leading cause of viral conjunctivitis
d. Highly contagious

66
Q

Mumps Virus: DNA or RNA

A

RNA; only 1 type

67
Q

Mumps virus: disease process

A
  • virus becomes systemic and infects the parotid glands
  • spread through saliva/nasal secretions
  • enters respiratory and lymph nodes (neck)
    -virus multiplies
  • may infect brain, pancreas, ovaries
68
Q

What is the immunization for mumps ?

A

MMR vaccine contains live attenuated mumps virus

69
Q

Rubella Virus (german measles): RNA or DNA

A

RNA; only 1 type

70
Q

What is the disease process of rubella?

A
  1. spread to respiratory
  2. enters nasopharynx and inflames throat
  3. virus replicates in lymph nodes
  4. Enters blood causes red skin rash
  5. recovery
71
Q

True or False: Infection is not devastating to a developing fetus
What is this called ?

A

False
Congenital Rubella Syndrome

72
Q

Immunization

A

MMR vaccine contains live attenuated virus

73
Q

7) Varicella-Zoster Virus (Chickenpox/Shingles): DNA or RNA?

A

DNA; in the Herpes family of viruses (HHV-3)

74
Q

Varicella-Zoster Virus (Chickenpox/Shingles)

A
  • Disease process results in fluid-filled blisters
  • Virus remains latent in the host (nerves)
  • Recurrence of the virus is called Shingles (painful)
  • Vaccine: contains live, attenuated virus
75
Q

Variola Virus (smallpox): DNA or RNA? Shape?

A

DNA virus; brick-shaped morphology

76
Q

Variola Virus (smallpox)

A

b. Lesions; often left disfiguring scars
c. Worldwide immunization programs eradicated the disease
i. Vaccine contained live, attenuated virus
1. Highly effective
2. No animal reservoirs
ii. Last case 1977

77
Q

History

A
  • Edward Jenner injected scrapings of cowpox lesions into healthy people in order to build up immune protection to smallpox
  • Louis Pasteur coined the term ‘vaccination’ (‘vacca’ means ‘cow’) in honor of Edward Jenner’s work
78
Q

Oral tract: bacteria

A
  • Alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus
    o Gram (+) cocci
79
Q

what is the disease process of bacteria entering the bloodstream?

A
  • primary portal: mouth
  • bacteria can enter bloodstream
    -people having dental work
    -people having periodontal disease
  • implicated in subacute bacterial endocarditis
80
Q

Oral tract: Dental carries
what are the steps of dental carry formations?

A
  1. glycoproteins in saliva stick to teeth
  2. dietary sucrose split into glucose and fructose
  3. glucose polymerized into dextran
  4. dental plaque
  5. sugars are fermented in plaques producing organic acids
  6. acids dissolve tooth enamel: dental carries
81
Q

most important species in dental caries ?

A

streptococcus mutans

82
Q

What defenses do we have against dental caries?

A
  • flushing action of saliva
  • lysozyme
  • IgA
83
Q

How can dental carries be prevented?

A
  • decrease intake of sucrose
  • Fluoride
  • clean teeth (removal of plaque)
84
Q

what is a periodontal disease?

A

inflammation and degeneration of the structures that support the teeth

85
Q

Define the difference between ‘gingivitis’ and ‘periodontitis’.

A

gingivitis: infection restricted to gums

periodontitis:
- infection in gums, supporting tissues between teeth
- bone destroyed

86
Q

Outline the steps involved in periodontitis which can lead to tooth loss.

A
  1. healthy gingivae
  2. gingivitis (toxins in plaque irritate gums)
  3. periodontal pockets (tooth seperates from gingiva)
  4. periodontitis
87
Q

oral tract: Fungi: candida albicans
List the morphology of this organism.

A
  • attaches to epithelial cells as yeast
  • produces pseudohyphae
88
Q

Define the term ‘opportunistic pathogen’.

A

An opportunistic pathogen is a germ (like bacteria or fungi) that usually doesn’t make healthy people sick, but can cause disease when the body’s defenses are weak, like during illness or injury.

89
Q

Describe the conditions under which fungi can cause oral thrush.

A
  • major change in normal flora
  • disturbance of immune system
  • physiological defects
  • poor oral hygiene
90
Q

oral tract: viruses

A
  • These viruses are ds DNA viruses in the Herpes virus family.
  • They remain latent in the host.
  • These viruses enter the body through the mucous membranes of the mouth
91
Q

what are the oral tract viruses ?

A

Herpes simplex (Type 1), Cytomegalovirus (CMV), Epstein-Barr Virus

92
Q

Herpes Simplex Virus (HHV-1)

A
  • infects
    -disease
  • latency
    -recurrence
    -treatment
93
Q

Cytomegalovirus (HHV-5)

A
  • Virus causes nuclear inclusions and swelling - Virus remains latent in T cells and macrophages (white blood cells)
  • This virus is more dangerous for immunosuppressed patients and pregnant
    women. It can cause congenital defects
94
Q

Epstein-Barr virus

A
  • This virus causes infectious mononucleosis.
  • This virus remains latent in B lymphocytes (white blood cells)
95
Q

Epstein-Barr virus disease process

A
  • infects oropharynx and paratoid glands
  • virus enter blood
  • infects b cells
  • latency
96
Q

Explain how infection with the Epstein-Barr virus can lead to transformation and possibly cancer.

A
  1. EBV enters cell
  2. Increase in protooncogene expression
  3. Uncontrolled proliferation of cells
  4. Increased chance of chromosomal damage
  5. Transformation of infected cells