Micro Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

3 major factors leading to the significant decrease of infectious disease during the 20th century.

A
  • greatly improved methods of sanitation/water treatment
  • the discovery and use of vaccines
  • the development and use of antimicrobial drugs and
    antibiotics
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2
Q

antimicrobial drug

A

-Destroy the disease-causing organism without harming
the host cell

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3
Q

antibiotic

A
  • natural product made by 1 microbe that inhibits or kills another microbe
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4
Q

Define what is meant by the term ‘spectrum of activity

A
  • (specifity) specific group of organisms that agent is effective against
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5
Q

Narrow Spectrum:

A

-target very specific group

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6
Q

Broad Spectrum:

A
  • target more than one group
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7
Q

Classify how ethambutol and isoniazid work

A
  • Highly selective for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Inhibit the production and incorporation of mycolic acid
    into the cell wall of Mycobacterium
    Inhibition of the Cell Wall
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8
Q

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

A
  • penicillians
  • cephelosporin
  • bacitracin
  • vancomycin
    -isoniazid/ethambutol
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9
Q

Inhibition of protein synthesis

A

-aminoglycosides
-tetracycline
-erythromycin
-clindamycin
-chloramphenicol

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10
Q

Disruption of nucleic acid

A

-quinolones
-rifampin

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11
Q

Disruption of the plasma membrane

A

-polymyxins
-daptomycin

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12
Q

Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

A

-sulfonamides
-trimethoprim

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13
Q

Inhibition of fungal infections

A
  • polyenes
    -imidazoles
    -echinocandins
    -griseofulvin
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14
Q

Inhibition of protozoan infections

A

-synthesized quinolines
-metronidazole

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15
Q

Antihelminth drugs

A

-helminths: parasitic works
- flukes, tapeworms, roundworms

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16
Q

Antiviral drugs (modes of action)

A
  1. stop the penetration of the virus into the host cell
  2. stop the replication, transcription, and translation of viral genetic information
  3. stop the normal maturation of viral particles
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17
Q

Anti viral drugs that treat the flu

A
  1. Amantadine and rimantidine
  2. relenza and tamiflu
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18
Q

Anti viral drugs that treat herpes

A

-cyclovir drugs

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19
Q

Antiviral drugs that treat HIV a

A

-inhibit the entry of the virus
-inhibit conversion
-inhibit HIV protein processing, assembly, and release

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20
Q

Antibiotic resistance

A

Microbes no longer respond to antimicrobial drugs/antibiotics

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21
Q

Describe the 5 mechanisms by which an organism can become resistant to a drug/antibiotic.

A
  1. drug inactivation
  2. decreased permeability
  3. activation of drug pumps
    4.change in drug binding site
  4. use of alternate metabolic pathway
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22
Q

What are 3 major factors that play a role in the development of resistance?

A
  1. hospitals
  2. drug in animal feeds
  3. global transport
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23
Q

Identify possible interactions between the drug/antibiotic and the host.
Toxicity

A

-Liver/kidney: damage
-intestines: diarrhea
-heart: irregular heartbeat
-decreased blood count
-brain: seizures, dizzy, deaf, motor/sensory
-skin:photodermatitis
-teeth: discoloration

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24
Q

Identify possible interactions between the drug/antibiotic and the host.
Allergic reaction

A

-skin rash
-respitory inflammation
-anaphylaxis (rare)

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25
Q

Identify possible interactions between the drug/antibiotic and the host.
supression of the normal flora

A

-super infection
-diarrhea, fever, abdominal pain

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26
Q

Explain what the Kirby Bauer test is used for

A
  • extremely standardized disk diffusion assay
  • used to test susceptibility of pathogenic bacteria and fungi
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27
Q

how to do the kirby baur test in the lab.

A
  1. bacterial suspension in broth is made
  2. Mueller-Hilton agar swabbed
  3. antibiotic disk pressed onto surface of agar
  4. plat incubated overnight at 37 degrees
  5. Zones of inhibition: measured in mm
  6. sensitivity or resistance (standard table)
  7. results interpreted: sensitive, intermediate, resistant
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28
Q

Explain what the MIC test is used for

A

-tube dilution assay
-which antibiotic is most effective

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29
Q

how to do the MIC test in the lab.

A
  1. serial dilutions of a particular antibiotic are made in microtiter plates: low concentration to high
  2. each well inoculated with bacterial suspension
  3. plate incubated at 37 degrees
  4. MIC determined: lowest concentration of antibiotic that inhibitis growth
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30
Q

Normal Flora

A
  • microorganism normally found in a given habitat on our body consistenly
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31
Q

transient microorgansims

A
  • organisms found on the body only for a brief period of time (hands/arms)
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32
Q

Define pathogen

A

organism capable of causing disease

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33
Q

infection

A

the invasion or colonization of the body by pathogenic organsims

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34
Q

invasiveness

A

the pathogens ability to penetrate a host and establish itself in the tissue

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35
Q

infectious disease

A

altered state of health caused by invasion of a pathogenic microorganism

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36
Q

sign vs symptom

A
  • a sign is changes in the patient you can see and measure as a result (rash, swelling)
  • a symptom is a change felt only by the patient as a result (pain, nausea)
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37
Q

Describe Mutualistic symbionts

A

Microbes and host both benefit

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38
Q

commensals

A

microbes benefit, host not affected

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39
Q

opportunist

A

microbes benefit, host is harmed

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40
Q

3 major interacting factors determining potential pathogen to infectious disease

A
  • virulence of the organism
    -number of organisms
    -strength of the host immune response
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41
Q

6 major virulence factors:

A
  • Body site
  • adherence factors
    -escape from body immune response
    -direct invasion of the host cell
    -siderophores
    -toxin production
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42
Q

6 major virulence factors:
Body site

A
  • All growth requirements must be met
    -examples: nutrient availbility, pH, temp, oxygen requirements
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43
Q

6 major virulence factors:
Adherence Factors

A
  1. cell wall components
  2. fimbriae
  3. extracellular secretion
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44
Q

6 major virulence factors:
Escape from the bodys immune response

A
  1. antiphagocytic structures
  2. genetic changes
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45
Q

6 major virulence factors:
direct invasion

A

invades, multiplies, kill

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46
Q

6 major virulence factors:
Siderophores

A

aid organism to remain in host and be invasive (iron)

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47
Q

6 major virulence factos:
Toxin

A
  1. exotoxins
  2. endotoxins
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48
Q

Exotoxins

A

-secreted proteins
-cause disease-specific sign and symptom
-gene frequently located on a plasmid or a prophage
-antibodies are produced in response to exotoxins
- we immunize against exotoxins by using toxoid
-produced mainly by gram (+) bacteria, algae, fungi

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49
Q

endotoxins

A
  • lipopolysaccharides
    -released when the organism is destroyed
    -produced the same signs and symptoms in the host
    -antibodies are not produced in response to endotoxins
  • we do not immunize against endotoxins
    -produced only by gram (-) bacteria
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50
Q

Pathology

A

the study of disease

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51
Q

3 major concerns of pathology

A
  • etiology (what is causing the disease)
    -pathogenesis (development of disease)
    -the effects of the disease on the whole body
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52
Q

Identify the reservoirs of infectious disease

A

continual source of the infectious agent.

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53
Q

Identify the transmission routes for infectious disease

A

how the pathogen is spread

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54
Q

List the 5 major portals of entry into the body

A
  1. Respiratory tract
  2. Gastrointestinal tract
  3. Genitourinary Test
  4. Skin and Mucous Membranes
  5. Blood
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55
Q

Explain the 4 phases of infectious disease development

A

-incubation
-prodromal
-illness
-convalescence

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56
Q

incubation

A
  • time interval between infection and appearance of first sign and symptoms
  • length: organism, virulence, #s, immune resistance
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57
Q

prodromal period

A

short period of mild signs/symptoms

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58
Q

illness period

A

most acute: full blown disease; overt signs

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59
Q

convalescence period

A

recovery time: signs/symptoms subside

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60
Q

Categorization of infectious disease

A

-acute vs chronic
-local vs systemic
-primary vs secondary vs inapparent

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61
Q

acute vs chronic

A

acute:
disease develops rapidly
short duration
fever involved

chronic:
disease develops slow
long lasting symptoms

62
Q

Local vs systemic infection

A

Local: infection limited to one area of the body

systemic: infection spread throughout the body (spread through blood)

63
Q

Primary vs secondary vs inapparent

A

Primary: long term or permanent damage
secondary: opportunistic only after primary infection
inapparent: signs/symptoms absent

64
Q

Define occurence of infectious disease: endemic

A

disease constantly present within a geographical area

65
Q

Define occurence of infectious disease:
epidemic

A

sharp increase in the # of cases of a disease during a particular period of time

66
Q

Define occurence of infectious disease:
sporadic

A

disease occurs occasionally in a random, unpredictable way

67
Q

Define occurence of infectious disease:
prevalence

A

percentage of the population having a specific disease at any time

68
Q

Define occurence of infectious disease:
incidence

A

percentage of the population that contracts a particular disease during a particular time

69
Q

What is ‘epidemiology’?

A

study of…
-number of cases of a particular disease
-population affected
-when and where diseases occur
-the source and how they are transmitted
-control and prevention methods

70
Q

what is meant by the term ‘emerging infectious disease’.

A

new or changing diseases that are increasing in the near future

71
Q

what/where is CDC

A

center for disease control and prevention in Atlanta, GA

72
Q

Nosocomial infection

A

aquired or developed during a hospital stay

73
Q

Immune system

A

A multi-level network that provides complete protection against infection.

74
Q

1st line of defense

A
  • physical barriers
    -chemical barriers
    -genetic barriers
75
Q

State the major factors which make the skin an unsuitable environment for most microbes.

A
  • dry
    -salty
    -acidic
76
Q

What is the mucous membrane

A

Epithelial layer which secretes mucus

77
Q

where is the mucous membrane lined

A

-respiratory
-urinary
-gastrointestinal
-reproductive

78
Q

Chemical barriers:

A

-sebaceous gland
-meibomian gland
-lysozyme
-sweat
-hydrochloric acid

79
Q

sebaceous gland found in

80
Q

meibomian gland found in

81
Q

lysozyme found in

A

body secretion

82
Q

hydrochloric acid found in

83
Q

what is meant by a ‘genetic barrier’ and how a genetic barrier can protect a host against a specific pathogen.

A

Natural barrier created because a given pathogen is specific for a given host

84
Q

2nd line of defense

A
  • phagocytosis
    -inflammation
    -fever
    -interferons
    -complement system
85
Q

what is the main WBC involved in second line of defense ?

86
Q

what is a phagocyte

A

scavenger WBCs that engulf and destroy particulate matter

87
Q

compare/contrast neutrophils and macrophages

A

Neutrophils respond first then macrophages (phagocytic cell)

88
Q

Four steps of Phagocytosis

A
  1. chemotaxis
  2. adherence
  3. ingestion
  4. digestion
89
Q

what is chemotaxis

A

WBC moves toward microbes

90
Q

what is adherence

A

close contact between WBC and microbe

91
Q

ingestion

A

microbe is internalized by WBC

92
Q

Digestion

A

microbes are digested, lysosomes fuse with phagosome membrane

93
Q

what does PAMP and PRR stand for?

A

PAMP= pathogen associated molecular patterns
PRR= pattern recohnition receptors

94
Q

what do PAMP and PRRs do ?

A

PRRs: are WBC receptors that binds to PAMPS

PAMPS: signal molecules shared by many microbes

95
Q

what are the four hallmarks of inflammation

A

-heat
-redness
-swelling
-pain

96
Q

process of inflammation

A

-tissue damage
-chemicals released
-chemotatic factors
-tissue repair

97
Q

define fever

A

an abnormally elevated body temperature

98
Q

benefit of fever in immune response

A
  • inhibits multiplication of heat sensitive microbes
  • impedes nutrition of bacteria by decreasing the availability of iron
  • speeds up production of blood cells
99
Q

what is an interferon

A

small protein produced naturally by certain white blood cells and tissue cells

100
Q

Describe what the complement cascade is and the end result of this process.

A

complex system of 26 blood protein which work together to destroy bacteria, viruses, and parasites.

End result: forms membrane attack complex, leading to lysis and destruction of pathogen

101
Q

what are the major cell types in the third line of defense?

A
  • Antigen presenting cells: macrophages and dendritic cells
    -Lymphocytes
    -Natural killer cell
102
Q

where do B cells originate and what are the cell surface receptors?

A

originate: bone marrow
cell surface receptors: immunoglobulin molecules

103
Q

where do T cells originate and what are the cell surface receptors?

A

originate: bone marrow
cell surface receptors: thymus gland

104
Q

define MHC-1

A

present on all nucleated cells of the body

105
Q

define MHC-II

A

present on macrophages and B cells

106
Q

What are the two branches of the specific immune response?

A
  • Humoral Response
    -Cell mediated response
107
Q

what is humoral response

A

production of antibodies

108
Q

what are the specific cell types

A
  • macrophages
  • t helper 2 cells
  • B cells
  • plasma cells
109
Q

define antigen

A

Any foreign molecule which can trigger a specific immune response

110
Q

antibody

A

Glycoprotein produced and secreted by activated WBCs in response to a specific antigen in the body

111
Q

epitope

A

the tips of the Y, 3d pockets which binds to a very specific site on the antigen

112
Q

hapten

A

if too small to elicit an immune response

113
Q

what are the five classes of antibodies

A

-IgM
-IgG
-IgA
-IgD
-IgE

114
Q

IgM

A

-5 to 10 percent antibodies
-largest Ig
-first Ig to increase in antigen response
-lysis of gram - bacteria
-M: macroglobulin

115
Q

IgG

A

-primary secondary response
-only class that crosses placental barrier
-eliminates gram - and gram +
-80 percent of total Igs
-neutralization of viruses and toxins

116
Q

IgE

A

-0.002 %
-responsible for allergic reactions
-Fc portion bound tightly to basophils and mast cells
-desensitization programs

117
Q

IgA

A

-1st line of defense
-monomer form: serum
-diner form: mucus secretions
-respiratory, genitoruinary, intestinal, and breast milk
-1-15%

118
Q

steps in T cell dependent pathway

A

-protein based
-APC-TH2 Cells- B cells- plasma cells - antibodies

119
Q

steps in T cell independent pathway

A

-simple carbs
-B cells-plasma cells-antibodies

120
Q

what is amnestic response

A

rapid production of antibody following second contact with antigen

121
Q

what cells are responsible for amnesties response

A

memory cells

122
Q

primary response to antigen

A

primary response to antigen

a
occurs directly after exposure
IgM responds first then IgG

123
Q

secondary response to antigen

A
  • antigen exposed to body for the second time
  • me rory cells produced that allow body to respond quickly and effectively
  • IgG primary response and increases significantly
124
Q

6 roles of antibodies

A

-activation of compliment
-inflammation
-cytotoxicity
-neutralization
-opsonization
-agglutination

125
Q

benefits of live vaccines

A
  • grow in host
    -stimulate antibody production for longer period of time
    -stimulate numeral and cell mediated response
    -induce production of IgA
126
Q

clonal selection theory

A

when foreign antigen enters body, only lymphocytes having receptors specific for that antigen will be activated to proliferate

127
Q

cell mediated response

A
  • cell-cell contact leading to destruction of infected/abnormal cells
  • defends against bacteria, viruses, protozoa, worms, cancer cells
128
Q

Specific cells involved in cell mediated

A
  • Macrophages
    -T helper 1 cells
  • cyto t cells
    -natural killer cells
129
Q

process of cell mediated response

A
  • APC engulf, process, and display antigen fragments in MHC-2
  • TH1 cells recognize MHC2/Ag and bind
  • in response to cytokines: TH1 cells activated
  • Activated TH1 cells produce additional cytokines which activate macrophages and T cytotoxic cells
130
Q

define cytokine

A

secreted proteins of the immune system that have an affect on other cells

131
Q

process of T cytotoxic cell lysis

A
  • T cells recognize specific antigen in context on MHC1
  • granules within cell move to point of contact between 2 cells and fuse with membrane
  • potent cytolytic enzymes cause lysis of target cells
  • Tc cells released unharmed to seek out another target cell
132
Q

T cytotoxic cells and natural killer cells

A
  • both derived from bone marrow and target and lyse cells
  • NKC do not recognize Ag/MHC-1
  • important in killing malignant cells and antibody released cells
133
Q

active immunity

A
  • person exposed to antigen, antibody created, memory forms
  • long term protection
134
Q

passive immunity

A
  • preformed antibodies
  • immediate protection
    short term
135
Q

Natural active

A

immune response produced antibodies

136
Q

artificial active

A

antigen exposure through vaccine
immune response produces antibodies

137
Q

natural passive

A

antibodies pass from mother to fetus

138
Q

artificial passive

A

anti-serum containing preformed antibodies

139
Q

define vaccine

A

provides active acquired immunity to infectious disease

140
Q

Name the categories of vaccines

A
  • Killed bacteria or viruses
  • Living, attenuated bacteria or viruses
  • Toxoids/capsular material of bacteria
  • Recombinant DNA technology (genetic engineering)
  • Conjugated vaccines
141
Q

benefits of live vaccines

A
  • grow in host
  • stimulate antibody production for longer period of time
  • stimulate numeral and cell mediated response
  • induce production of IgA
142
Q

why do some vaccine require boosters

A

to ensure an effective secondary response

143
Q

What is an ‘adjuvant’, and why do some vaccines require an adjuvant?

A

compound that enhances the immune response and it retains antigen at the injection site

144
Q

normal flora and role

A
  • organism found on consistent basis in specific body areas
  • compete with and control pathogens
145
Q

body parts with normal flora

A
  • skin
  • eyes
  • nasal cavity, middle ear, auditory tube, pharynx (highly colonized)
  • mouth, esophagus (highly colonized)
  • large intestines(extreme numbers)
  • external urethra
  • reproductive tracts
146
Q

sterile body parts

A
  • larynx, trachea, lungs, bronchus
  • stomach
  • small intestines
  • kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder
  • blood and tissues
147
Q

things to know about normal flora

A
  • what is normal flora for one person may not be normal flora for another
  • what is normal flora on one body part may not be normal flora on another
  • gram (+) bacteria
148
Q

What is ‘conjunctivitis’?

A

inflammation of the conjuctiva “pink eye”

149
Q

what is the ciliary escalator and how does it work

A
  • mucus traps organisms and particles
    -the cilia moves them up and out