Micro Exam 2 old Tests Flashcards

1
Q

_____ is the cause of bacillary white diarrhea in chickens

A

salmonella pullorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

is the cause of skin ulcers, feurnculosis and septicemia in salmonoid fish

A

Aeromonas salmonicidia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

is a common cause of respiratory infections, septicemia, pericarditis, peritonitis and granulomatous lesions in the intestines of commercial poultry

A

Escherichia coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

is an organism that made headlines recently because several humans in a single hospital were infected with an Extreme Drug Resistant (XDR) strain that resulted in the deaths of several people

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

is the most common cause of actinomycosis in dogs

A

Actinomyces viscosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

is the cause of bacillary dysentery in primates

A

Shigella dysenteriae, sonnei, boydii, or flexneri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

is the organism almost always recovered from pyometra in dogs

A

Escherichia coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

is the cause of swimming pool granuloma in humans and granulomatous lesions in cold-blooded animals

A

Mycobacterium marinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

is the serotype of Salmonella that is adapted to mice

A

Typhimurium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

is the Salmonella serotype found in pet turtles.

A

Arizonae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

is/are the species of livestock in which Salmonella typhimurium DT104 is most virulent.

A

Cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

is the leukocyte that can be killed by host-adapted Salmonella

A

Macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

is the nutrient inhibited by the SRP vaccine against salmonellosis

A

Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

is the target antigen (epitope) of most Salmonella bacterins that fail to provide good immunity

A

O-Antigen (Somatic antigen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

is a foreign animal disease primarily found in solipeds that is characterized by encapsulated nodules in the respiratory tract and infection of cutaneous lymph vessels

A

Glanders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

is a disease of warm water fish that can result in the breakdown of the cartilagenous structure of the gills and formation of lesions on the fins and ulceration of skin

A

columnaris disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

is the antigenic formula for Escherichia coli isolates that were first implicated in hemolytic uremic syndrome in humans

A

O157:H7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

is the mechanism of action of the STa toxin of Escherichia coli

A

Increases intracellular cGMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

____ and ____ are the two fimbrial subtypes (variants) of E. coli involved in edema disease of swine.

A

F18ab and F18ac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mastitis, pneumonia, otitis, polyarthritis; cattle

A

Mycoplasma bovis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Mastitis and septicemia; goats and sheep

A

Mycoplasma agalactiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Enzootic pneumonia; swine

A

Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Contagious pleuropneumonia; Cattle, buffalo, bison

A

Mycoplasma mycoides subspecies mycoides Small Colony (SC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Contagious pleuropneumonia; Goats

A

Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Infectious keratoconjunctivitis; Sheep and goats

A

Mycoplasma conjunctivae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Airsacculitis in newly-hatched poults; turkeys

A

Mycoplasma meleagridis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Eperythrozoonosis/ anemia; swine

A

Mycoplasma suis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

pneumonia; rats and mice

A

Mycoplasma pulmonis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Explain how plants can serve as a unique source of food-borne Salmonella infections.

A

Salmonella can enter into and survive within plant cells which are then ingested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the molecular basis of Nocardia species being only partially acid fast while Mycobacterium species are strongly acid fast?

A

The nocardic acids in Nocardia are only about 50 or so carbon atoms in length compared to the 90 or so carbon atom length of the mycolic acids found in mycobacteria. The shorter fatty acids do not retain the carbol fuchsin very well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why are PPD tuberculins preferred over other types of tuberculins for use in DTH testing of most domestic animals and humans?

A

They are standardized for potentency and are more purified to help eliminate non-specific reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Why are swine reared in confinement buildings less likely to be infected with Mycobacterium avium?

A

Because there is less exposure to carrier birds and soil-borne mycobacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

T/F Melioidosis is caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T/F Salmonella typhimurium causes overt disease in poultry

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

T/F Burkholderia mallei is most often transmitted between horses via nasal exudate contaminating feed and water or though direct contact.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

T/F Burkholderia mallei is most often transmitted to large cats and canidae via nasal exudates contaminating feed and water or through direct contact.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

T/F All Enterobacteriaceae express enterotoxins but only about half of them express endotoxin

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

T/F Routine immunization of cows and sows with killed bacterins expressing the correct fimbrial antigens has led to a marked decrease in coliform enteritis in neonatal calves and pigs.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

T/F E. coli STb is most often associated with severe enteritis in newborn calves

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

T/F Klebsiella pneumoniae causes mastitis in dairy cattle and urinary tract infections in a variety of animals but is not usually an enteric pathogen except in psittacine birds

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T/F Enterobacter species cause mastitis in dairy cattle and urinary tract infections in a variety of animals but are not usually enteric pathogens except in psittacine birds.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

T/F If correctly performed, formic acid treatment of milk and colostrum can kill Mycoplasma species.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

T/F Nocardia asteroides is less common than Nocardia braziliensis as a cause of infections in the U.S

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T/F Treatment of infections with Nocardia species, usually requires relatively aggressive intervention that may include surgical debridement of lesions

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

T/F Oddly, Actinomyces suis is a more common cause of infections in cattle than it is in pigs.

A

Flase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

T/F Dermatophilus congolensis is commonly found in soil but is in highest concentrations in the soils in the desert Southwest

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

T/F Dermatophilus congolensis infections are more common in the desert Southwest because of a higher population of Culicoides (gnats or midges) found in this environment that bite the skin and create small lesions for the organism to colonize.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

T/F Most of the bacteria covered on this exam are sensitive to penicillin.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

T/F A tubercle is the same thing as an abscess.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

T/F In the treatment of tuberculosis, it is the fast-growing population of organisms that is first killed off by the antibiotic(s).

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

T/F The incidence of Extensive Drug Resistant tuberculosis (XDR-TB) is surging due to problems with treatment of bovine tuberculosis.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

T/F Most cattle in the U.S. are required to be vaccinated against Mycobacterium bovis.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

T/F Calves in Johne’s disease positive herds in the U.S. are required to be vaccinated against Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

It is thought that repeat infections with Mycoplasma pneumoniae often cause more severe clinical disease than earlier infections because

A

The organism stimulates a hypersensitivity response that becomes more pronounced with repeat infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

For diagnosis of which of the following would a hand-held, rapid (a few minutes) PCR system be most valuable to a practicing veterinarian?

A

Johne’s disease in cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

is an obligate parasite of the oropharynx and digestive tract of cattle.

A

Actinomyces bovis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

is the cause of severe anemia in young pigs.

A

Mycoplasma suis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

causes enterocolitis and mesenteric lymphadenitis in humans.

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

is the cause of skin ulceration, furunculosis and septicemia in a variety of coldwater fish.

A

Aeromonas salmonicida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

is the cause of necrotic lesions (cold water disease) of freshwater salmon and trout.

A

Flavobacterium psychrophilum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

is the cause of a serious infection in warmwater fish where the cartilaginous structure of the gills is broken down

A

Flavobacterium columnare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

is an organism that is more common in tropical areas of the world, is carried in rodents and causes the formation of multiple, small, caseous nodules in almost any tissue.

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

is an organism that is very common in soil that occasionally causes suppurative and granulomatous infections usually only in immunocompromised hosts.

A

Nocardia asteroides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

is the cause of feline infectious anemia.

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

is a verotoxin-producing organism that was involved in multiple cases of human disease in Europe this past summer that was linked to eating sprouts.

A

Escherichia coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

is the major infectious agent that causes cranio-ventral consolidation in the lungs of pigs.

A

Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

is the main cause of a dry, hacking cough in lambs that usually starts around 5 to 10 weeks of age.

A

Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

is the cause of Aswimming pool granulomas in humans.

A

Mycobacterium marinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

is the serotype of Salmonella that children contract by handling pet turtles.

A

Arizonae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

is the main route by which glanders is transmitted to carnivores.

A

Ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

is a collective term used to group the Mycoplasma species that specifically attack red blood cells.

A

Hemoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

is the host to which Salmonella dublin is adapted.

A

Cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

is the phenotypic characteristic conferred by integrons in Salmonella DT104.

A

Antibiotic resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

is the intestinal cell type preferred by Salmonella.

A

M-cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

is the serotype of Salmonella most often associated with raw chicken.

A

Typhimurium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

is the major type of cell that responds to a Mycobacterium bovis infection.

A

Macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

is the major type of cell that responds to a Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae infection.

A

Lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

List two common diseases caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae and the host(s) in which those diseases occur.

A

Mastitis ->Dairy cows

Enteritis and septicemia -> Psittacine birds

Urinary tract infections -> Dogs, humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

List three major diseases caused by Escherichia coli in swine.

A

Mastitis
Edema Disease
Enteritis
Joint infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Why are pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma species usually chronic infections?

A

Because they often destroy the tracheal cilia and it takes a relatively long time for the cilia to regenerate. (A number of students thought it was because the organisms grow slowly; however, they may be slower growing than an E. coli for instance, but most of them grow sufficiently rapid that this would not account for chronicity.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

List two organisms that cause part of the mycoplasmal pneumonia complex in goats.

A

a. _Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumoniae, M. mycoides subsp. mycoides LC
b. M. mycoides subsp. capri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

List two common methods for killing mycoplasma in ruminant colostrum and milk

A

formic acid treatment

pasteurization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

If the U.S. had an outbreak of disease caused by Mycoplasma mycoides subspecies mycoides SC, why would we not vaccinate to prevent the spread of the disease?

A

Because the vaccine does not prevent infection. It can mask infection, result in chronic carriers and shedders and lead to spread of the organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Explain how the toxin in scombroid poisoning is formed.

A

Morganella morganii produces histidine decarboxylase that breaks down histidine in the tissues of some fish to form histamine. Histamine is the toxin

85
Q

Why are clinical samples contaminated with members of the genus Proteus often difficult to work with?

A

The Proteus species swarm all over the surface of the agar media and contaminate any other colonies that grow

86
Q

T/F Development of the delayed-type hypersensitivity response to Mycobacterium bovis occurs within a few days of infection and this rapid response is why the DTH reaction is the basis of the major diagnostic test.

87
Q

T/F Transmission of Burkholderia mallei in equidae is usually by a respiratory route.

88
Q

T/F Enteric septicemia of catfish and columnaris disease are thought to be the two most important diseases of pond-reared catfish.

89
Q

T/F An organism that retains the staining of carbol-fuchsin when washed with acid-alcohol is referred to as acid-fast.

90
Q

T/F Acid-fast organisms are more likely to be phagocytosed but are often resistant to many of the killing mechanisms of phagocytic cells.

91
Q

T/F Nocardia asteroides is a short, fat, gram-negative rod.

92
Q

T/F The expression of exotoxin A and elastase in Pseudomonas aeruginosa is controlled by the concentration of calcium and the temperature in which the organism grows.

93
Q

T/F Pseudomonas aeruginosa can cause necrotic stomatitis, pneumonia and septicemia in snakes and turtles

94
Q

T/F Pseudomonas aeruginosa is always resistant to penicillin-class antimicrobials.

95
Q

T/F Pyocyanin is bactericidal (kills other bacteria).

96
Q

T/F Dipping a cool egg in a warm solution of an antibiotic is used to eliminate salmonella from the egg

97
Q

T/F Mycoplasma conjunctivae is the main organism causing conjunctivitis in sheep and goats in the U.S

98
Q

T/F The bubonic and pneumonic forms of plague are transmitted by different routes.

99
Q

T/F Human Salmonella infections associated with raw chicken are the result of eating the raw chicken

100
Q

T/F Shigella sonnei is the most virulent of the Shigella species

101
Q

T/F Shigella species usually require a high infectious dose and that is why disease caused by these organisms is usually seen where heavy fecal-oral contamination occurs such as in daycares and on cruise ships

102
Q

T/F The main focus of the Voluntary Johne=s Disease Control Program is to vaccinate as many calves as possible to decrease the herd incidence.

103
Q

T/F Cattle that become infected with Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis after one to two years of age are more prone to develop severe disease.

104
Q

T/F Organisms in the MAIS Complex are usually transmitted by a respiratory route

105
Q

T/F Klebsiella pneumoniae commonly causes respiratory infections in domestic animals

106
Q

T/F Klebsiella pneumoniae commonly causes respiratory infections in domestic animals

107
Q

T/F Klebsiella pneumoniae commonly causes respiratory infections in domestic animals

108
Q

Which of the following is a host-restricted serotype of Salmonella?

a. Typhimurium
b. Choleraesuis variety Kunzendorf
c. Enteritidis
d. Only a and b
e. Only b and c

A

Choleraesuis variety Kunzendorf

109
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Salmonella immunizing products?

a. The SRP vaccine works by blocking iron release by Salmonella.
b. The Agood@ Salmonella vaccines stimulate primarily humoral immunity.
c. Salmonella O-antigens are immunodominant but yet not protective.
d. No vaccines are available

A

Salmonella O-antigens are immunodominant but yet not protective.

110
Q

is the cause of glanders in solipeds, humans and others.

A

Burkholderia mallei

111
Q

is an organism present in the oral cavity of piglets and which causes draining granulomas in the mammary glands of sows

A

Actinomyces suis

112
Q

is a partially acid-fast organism that is common in soil.

A

Nocardia asteroides

113
Q

is the cause of columnaris disease of pond-reared catfish and other warm water fish.

A

Flavobacterium columnare

114
Q

is the cause of chronic proliferative interstitial or atypical pneumonia in sheep and goats.

A

Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae

115
Q

is an important predisposing bacterial agent for the development of pinkeye in cattle.

A

Mycoplasma bovoculi

116
Q

is the bacterial organism that is almost always found in pyometra in dogs

A

Escherichia coli

117
Q

is the area of the digestive tract attacked by Shigella species.

A

large intestine

118
Q

List the species (and subspecies, etc., where appropriate) of Mycoplasma that cause each of the following:

______ Tracheobronchitis and pneumonia in humans

______ Respiratory infections in rats

______ Chronic respiratory disease of chickens

______ Contagious agalactia and arthritis of sheep and goats

______ Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia

______ Mastitis, respiratory disease, otitis in calves

A

M.pneumoniae

M. pulmonis

M. gallisepticum

M. agalactiae

M. mycoides subspecies mycoides SC

M. bovis

119
Q

List a relatively common disease or infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa in each of the following:

___________ Snakes and turtles

____________Cattle

___________ Dogs

A

Necrotic stomatitis, pneumonia,

Mastitis

Urinary tract infection, Otitis externa, wound infection

120
Q

List one relatively common disease or infection caused by Escherichia coli in each of the following:

_________ Chickens and turkeys

________ Psittacine birds

_________Dogs

A

Respiratory disease, septicemia

Septicemia, enteritis

Urinary tract infection, pyometra

121
Q

Successful vaccines against diseases caused by E. coli have targeted what two bacterial components as antigens?

A

Fimbriae

Core antigens (J5)

122
Q

Stable toxins a and b of Escherichia coli are important in the production of enteric disease. Why do we not have immunizing products aimed at inducing antibody production to Sta and Stb?

A

The toxin molecules are too small to stimulate an immune response

123
Q

List two toxins or virulence factors other than endotoxin that are produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa and briefly describe their mechanism of action

A

a. Exotoxin A: Inhibits protein synthesis by NAD-dependent ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2. Phospholipase C, Exoenzyme S: Inhibits protein function, Elastase A and B: Breaks down elastin, immunoglobulins, complement and other factors
b. Extracellular slime: Antiphagocytic, facilitates microcolony formation, Pyocyanin: acquisition of inorganic phosphate.

124
Q

_______ is the serotype of Salmonella causing almost all the clinical disease in swine

A

Choleraesuis

125
Q

Why is Salmonella typhimurium DT 104 infection so difficult to treat?

A

Because it is resistant to multiple antimicrobials

126
Q

One of your friends asks you to culture the water in her fish tank. She has been having fish die recently and want to know if there is a problem with the water. You spread 0.1 ml of the water on a blood agar plate. After incubation you observe about 5 colonies that look like Aeromonas hydrophila. Are 5 colonies of A. hydrophila (50 colonies per ml) a significant finding that you can relate to the cause of the fish mortality? Explain your answer. pick one

Significant Not significant

A

Not significant

Aeromonas hydrophila is found in normal fish tank water and other open water sources. This is a relatively low concentration

127
Q

is the cause of typhoid fever in humans.

A

Salmonella typhi

128
Q

What is the main advantage of a siderophore receptor protein vaccine over any other killed immunizing product for prevention of salmonellosis?

A

The vaccine stimulates antibody production against the siderophore receptor of essentially all salmonella serotypes

129
Q

Host adaptation in Salmonella is determined by what two factors?

A

Specific attachment to host intestinal epithelial cells

Ability to survive in macrophages

130
Q

Describe or diagram and label the cycle of infection of Yersinia pestis in both animal and human populations.

A

Sylvatic plague: Yersinia pestis is transmitted to a rodent usually from the bite of a flea. The rodent develops septicemia and other fleas feed on it and ingest the Yersinia. The rodent dies and the fleas jump onto another host, bite that host and transmit the organism. Yersinia pestis cycles through rodent populations and is maintained in nature by this method.

Bubonic plague: Infected fleas feed on humans and transmit Yersinia pestis. The organism multiplies in the draining lymph nodes causing them to markedly enlarge (buboes). A septicemia ensues. Alternatively a septicemic form by-passes the bubo stage. Ordinarily, bubonic plague does not transmit readily between individuals.

Pneumonic plague: Transmitted among humans by a respiratory route. Not commonly seen

131
Q

In order to isolate Actinomyces bovis from cases of lumpy jaw in cattle, material from the lesions must be washed in sterile saline because:

a. The organism is found in microcolonies (granules) that need to be isolated and cultured.
b. The lesions are usually highly contaminated with other, faster-growing bacteria that are removed by washing in saline.
c. The living organism is only present inside of neutrophils and can only be isolated from large aggregations of pus.
d. Sterile saline stimulates the growth of the organism.

e. Only a and b above
f. Only a and c above

A

e. Only a and b above

132
Q

Infections with Dermatophilus congolensis are often associated with:

a. Tick and other insect bites
b. Excessively dry environmental conditions
c. Excessively cold environmental conditions
d. All the above
e. Only a and b above

A

Tick and other insect bites

133
Q

Flavobacterium psychrophilum

a. Is the cause of Acold water disease@ in freshwater salmon and trout
b. Is the cause of rainbow trout fry syndrome.
c. Is the cause of enteric septicemia of catfish
d. All the above
e. Only a and b above
f. Only b and c above

A

e. Only a and b above

134
Q

Burkholderia pseudomallei

a. Has a natural habitat in soil and water in S.E. Asia and other tropical and subtropical areas.
b. Commonly infects rodents.
c. Infection is manifested as small caseous nodules in almost any tissue.
d. All the above
e. None of the above

A

d. All the above

135
Q

T/F Glanders in humans is most commonly the cutaneous form.

136
Q

T/F Edema disease of swine is manifested primarily as a CNS disease.

137
Q

T/F Edema disease of swine is caused by F18 ab and F18ac fimbrial types

138
Q

T/F Klebsiella pneumoniae is a common cause of respiratory infections in domestic animals.

139
Q

T/F Extended spectrum beta lactamase resistance is primarily a problem in Serratia species

140
Q

T/F Mycolic acids and nocardic acids are similar in composition but the latter are larger and therefore better retain the carbol fuchsin of the acid-fast stain.

141
Q

T/F Phenolic disinfectants are more active against mycobacteria because they are better able to penetrate the cell wall lipids of the organisms.

142
Q

T/F Replacement dairy heifers that are infected with Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis around the time they have their first calf are more likely to develop severe disease compared to animals infected before 1 month of age.

143
Q

T/F There is a national Johne=s disease eradication program in the U.S.

144
Q

T/F Infections with Nocardia asteroides are uncommon because the organism has a relatively restricted natural habitat.

145
Q

T/F Mycobacterium bovis infections have been decreased to the point that most states are considering abandoning the state-federal cooperative eradication program.

146
Q

T/F Cattle are routinely vaccinated against Mycobacterium bovis in many other countries.

147
Q

T/F The Bacille Calmette Guerin (BCG) is used to vaccinate infants in the U.S

148
Q

T/F Swine reared in confinement buildings are less likely to be infected with Mycobacterium avium

149
Q

T/F Mycobacteria utilize fimbriae to attach to target cells.

150
Q

T/F Mycoplasa species routinely use fimbriae to attach to target cells

151
Q

T/F Yersinia enterocolitica and Yersinia pseudotuberculosis are commonly found in the intestinal tracts of normal humans

152
Q

T/F ELISA and bacteriologic culture are the two most common methods used for diagnosis of Johne=s disease

153
Q

T/F Johne=s disease does not occur in sheep and goats.

154
Q

T/F Although usually thought of as a non-pathogen, Citrobacter species has been isolated routinely from a variety of infections in domestic animals.

155
Q

T/F Scromboid poisoning is mostly a problem in cats.

156
Q

T/F Scromboid poisoning is caused when cats become colonized with Morganella morganii.

157
Q

T/F F4 fimbriae are important for adherence of enterotoxigenic E. coli to mucosa of the anterior small intestine of neonatal pigs.

158
Q

T/ F18 fimbriae are responsible for adherence of E.coli to the anterior small intestine of neonatal calves and lambs.

159
Q

T/F Some species of mycoplasma are known to induce immediate hypersensitivity responses.

160
Q

T/F the “sulfur granules” found in lesions of actinomyces bovis are composed primarily of sulfur

161
Q

T/F The real-time quantitative PCR test for Mycobacteruum subspecies paratuberculosis is thought to be highly sensitive, especially for animals that are high shedders

162
Q

T/F Escherichia coli must have F18 fimbrae and produce vasotoxin in order to cause edema disease in swine

163
Q

T/F Escherichia coli Stb toxin triggers a cascade of events inside target cells resulting in the opening of ion channels through which ions and water are lost

164
Q

T/F Stx-1 and Stx-2 are Shiga toxins produced by hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) isolates of E. coli

165
Q

T/F The USDA zero tolerance policy for certain E. coli in meat/poultry is based only on the O-antigens of those organisms

166
Q

T/F Species of Shigella only cause disease in humans

167
Q

T/F Proteus species are the most heavily encapsulated members of the family Enterobacteriae

168
Q

T/F Klebsiella pneumonia has several toxins that are essential for production of disease

169
Q

T/F Non host adapted serotypes of Salmonella are also considered to be non pathogenic

170
Q

T/F Bubonic plague does not occur in the US

171
Q

T/F Mycoplasma species are common cause of enteritis in domestic animals

172
Q

T/F Mycoplasma species require cholesterol (serum) in their culture media

173
Q

T/F Immunization against contagious bovine pleuropneumonia is required for farm raised bison in the US

174
Q

T/F Contagious caprine plueropneumonia tends to be a relative mild disease with low morbidity and case fatality rates

175
Q

T/F Mycoplasma pneumoniae us the major cause of chronic respiratory disease in rates

A

False- pulmonis

176
Q

T/F Feline infectios anemia can be transmitted by any method that transfers blood from one cat to another

177
Q

T/F Pseudomonas aeruginosa is common skin contaminant that has little to no ability to invade tissues

178
Q

T/F Psuedomonas aeruginosa pdx a number of proteases that are thought to be important to the destruction of host tissues

179
Q

____ is the cause of glanders in horses

A

Burkholderia mallei

180
Q

____ is a Mycoplasma species that causes airsacculitis in turkeys only

A

B. meleagridis

181
Q

____ is the complete name of the mist important organism causing contagious caprine pleuropneumonia

A

Mycoplasma capricolum sub species capripneumoniae

182
Q

____ is the major cause of tuberculosis in captive primates

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

183
Q

____ is the major cause of tuberculosis in birds

A

Mycobacterium avium

184
Q

____ is the major cause of tuberculosis in swine

A

Mycobacterium avium

185
Q

____ is an important cause of mesenteric lymphanditis and enteritis in humans

A

Yersinia entercolitica

186
Q

____ is the cause of pullorum disease

A

Salmonella pullorum

187
Q

____ is the cause of feline infectious anemia

A

Mycobacterium haemofelis

188
Q

____ us the only member of the family Enterobacteriaceae that casues respiratory disease and septicemia in commercial poultry

A

Escherchia coli

189
Q

____ and ____ are the two most common serovars of salmonella causing disease in calves

A

dublin and typhimurium

190
Q

____ and ____ are the two Salmonella serovars most commonly associated with food poisoning in the US

A

typhimurium and enteridis

191
Q

____ is the cause of a granulomatous osteomyelitis most often seen in cattle

A

Actinomyces bovis

192
Q

____ is the cause of actinomycotic mammary gland lesions in sows

A

Actinomyces suis

193
Q

____ is the full name of the organism that causes contagious bovine pleuropneumonia

A

Mycoplasma mycoides subspecies mycoides SC

194
Q

____ produces large thick scabs on the skin of domestic animals, scabs are composed of the organism, serum, and cellular debris.

A

Dermatophilus congolensis

195
Q

____ is the cause of contagious agalactiae arthritis and septicemia in sheep/goats

A

Mycoplasma algalactiae

196
Q

____ is an organsim that has been a problem recently in white tailed deer w/ subsequent transmission to cattle

A

Mycobacterium bovis

197
Q

____ is the cause of “enteric septicemia” in catfish

A

Edwardsiella ictaluri

198
Q

____ and ____ are two diseases of dogs that are most often caused by Escherichia coli

A

pyometria and UTI

199
Q

____ and ____ are the two animals most commonly infected with Salmonella arizonae

A

reptiles/turtles and Turkeys

200
Q

Explain breifly the molecular basis for Nocardia asteroides being partially acid fast and Mycobacterium species being completely acid fast

A

Mycobacterium-> mycolic acid 50-90 Carbon acids hold stain much better that the smaller nocardic acid of N. asteroides

201
Q

How does acid fast stain relate to the ability of macrophages to ingest mycobacteria

A

Those that acid fast stain are more hydrophobic and and are more cabable of being phagocytized and living w/in macrophage? (double check this one)

202
Q
List the main natural habitat for the following organisms:
Dermatophilus congolensis
Slmonella enteritidis
Yersinia enterocolitica
Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
BUrkholderia pseudomallei
A

Dermatophilus congolensis; mosit soil

Slmonella enteritidis: intestinal tract of chickens

Yersinia enterocolitica: intsetinal tract of some animals

Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae: upper respiratory tract of pigs

Burkholderia pseudomallei: in soil, water, and rodents in SE asia

203
Q

LIst 3 gram negative organsims that have recently developed extreme drug resistance (XDR)

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae
Psuedomonas aeruginosa
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

204
Q

Explain breifly the mechanism of action of the heat stable toxin STa of E. coli… how does it cause diarrhea in neonatal animals

A

Increases cyclic GMP, results in inability to retain sodium, increases chloride retention, net result is increased fluid loss- diarrhea

205
Q

Why is the DT104 salmonella typhimurium considered to be such a problem

A

it has the genes for extensive drug resistance and has been replacing susceptible strains

206
Q

Briefly describe the genesis of scromboid poisoning

A

Morgnalla morgano- produces histidine decarboxylase, which reacts with histidine in the fish muscle creating histmine, human eats fish result is anaphylactic response

207
Q

Describe the transmission of the bubonic plague in 25 words or less

A

flea feeds on infected rodent, flea feeds on human, transmits Yersinia pestus, organism replicates in lymph nodes forming nodules that can disseminate

208
Q

Explain how cell fusion can benefit mycoplasma species

A

Mycoplasma can trade cellular material and shield itself from the host immune system