Errything we need to know... which is everything Flashcards
_______ cause of lumpy jaw in cattle
actinomyces bovis
______ cause of fistulous withers and poll evil in horses
actinomyces bovis
actinomyces bovis is a ______ anaerobe
obligate
_____ appear in tissues because the organisms produce _____ that cements them together
sulfur granules; glycocalyx
_______ natural habitat is the propharynx and digestive tract
actinomyces bovis
_____ is the common name for granulomatous osteomuyelitis
Lumpy jaw
Lumpy jaw is associated with the entry of A, bovis through____
dental aveoli or trauma to gums/mucosa
_____ and ____ are two commonly isolated organisms from fistuolus withers and poll evil in horses
Actionmyces bovis
Brucella abortus
_____ is not found in most of the US except for bison in yellowstone
Brucella abortus
A. bovis infections are _____ primarily, but once lesion forms it is difficult for immune system to clear the lesion and associated organisms
cell mediated
Antibiotics combined with _____ intravenously or ______ locally are frequently used to treat A. bovis
sodium iodide; potassium iodide
Lumpy jaw is particularly hard to tx because______
of the osteomyelitis
____ is the most common cause of actinomycosis in dogs
Actinomyces viscous
____ invades wounds in dogs frequently in the head/neck areas, thorax lesions can result in pyothorax
Actinomyces viscous
____ infection is easier to tx than _____ because it does not metastasize
Actinomyces viscous; Norcardia asteroides
____ is the cause of mammary gland lesions in sows and possibly other ; at least one report of abortion
Actinomyces suis
____ natural habitat is the oropharynx of pigs
Actinomyces suis
____ associated with superficial wounds of the mammar
Actinomyces suis
___ associated with suppurative thoracic and subcutaneous lesions in dogs and cats
Norcardia asteroides
____ sometimes occurs secondary to primary viral infection such as distemper
Norcardia asteroides
____ isolated with increasing frequency from bovine mastitis cases and is observed clinically in other animals
Norcardia asteroides
_____ colonies are yellow to orange and often appear dry and rough
Norcardia asteroides
Norcardia asteroides produce _____ which are similar to _______ of mycobacteria
nocardic acids; myolic acids
____ is a soil saphrophyte widely distibuted in nature, estimates to be 10^3 per gram
Norcardia asteroides
Norcardia asteroides is transmitted via
wounds, soilm inhalation
_____ infection of respiratory tract in cats and dogs resulting in pyothorax
Norcardia asteroides
Draining tracts are observed in subcutaneous infections, whcih tend to matastasize
Norcardia asteroides
Commonly associated with unhygenic antomicrobial therapy
Norcardia asteroides
____ is occasionally isolated form dogs and humans
Norcardia braziliensis
is the cause of dermatophilosis, exudative dermatitis seen in variety of animals and humas
Dermatophilus congolensis
Dermatophilus congolensis relases ____ from its filamest
Motile zoospores
infections are seen especially in tropical areas during the rainy season
Dermatophilus congolensis
most commonly a problem in horses stabled inside in the winter or in wet environments
Dermatophilus congolensis
trauma.tick bites often associated with disease
Dermatophilus congolensis
Key biological stain for Dermatophilus congolensis?
Geimsa
tx of Dermatophilus congolensis
penecillin
____ species cause pulmonary and extrapulmonary infections in many animals and humans
Mycobacterium
disease caused by these are referred to as tuberculosis
Mycobacterium
is the ability of bacilli to retain carbol fuchsin dye when washed with weak acid solution
Acid fastness
_____ is what allows mycobacteria to be acid fast
high mycolic acid (lipid) content
______ have longer carbon chain length (50 to 90 carbons) than Nocardia species
mycolic acids
mycobacteria are very resistant to _____ and ______ disinfectants
halogen; quaternary ammonium
mycobacteria are killed by ____
phenol and substitued cresylic compounds
Mycobacteria are _______ parasites
facultative intracellular
_____ mycobacteria are usually killed by phagocytic cells
Saprophytic
_____ mycobacteria multpily and eventually lyse the phagosome
pathogenic
_____ are formed from the granulomatous tissue that results form mycobacterium infection
tubercles
_____ lesions are often localized to lungs, spleen or liver
Mycobacteria
What are the 5 mechanisms of bacterial resistance mycobacteria employ
Cord factor Phospholipids Glycolipids Fatty Acids Sulfur-containing glycolipids/sulfolipids
What is cord factor?
trehalose 6-6’ dimycolate is present in alls trains of pathogenic mycobacteria and also in some saphrophytes
How do sulfur containing glycolipids alter killing of host macrophages?
Interfere w/attachemnt of lysosome to phagosome
Prevent release of lysosomal ez into phagosome
Inactivate lysosomal ez
pathogen use lysosomal ez for energy
Pathogen seems to be able to resist ROS metabolites because they pdx superoxide dismutase
Immune response to mycobacteria is primarily_____
cellular, almost entirely macrophages
_____ play an important role in killing mycobacteria in combination with ______
Reactive nitrogen intermediates; ROS
______ immune response is not considered to important in mycobacteria infections
humoral
Mycobacteria can be potent _____
adjuvants
What is Freunds complete adjuvant?
killed mycobacterai added to mineral oil, illicits a strong immune response
What doe Freunds complete adjuvant usually contain?
Mycobacterium smegmatis or M. phlei
T/F mycobacteria are unique bc killed cells can illicit cell mediated response
True,
Why aren’t adjuvants for mycobacteria used more commonly?
lesion development at the injection site, even research is heavily controlled
Mycobacteria typically induce __________ 4 to 8 weeks following infection
delayed type hypersensitivity
is the antigen used to induce DTH reaction
tuberculin
What are the standard tuberculins called
PPD- purified proteinderivative
are prepared by growing bacilli on synthetic media and have issues iwth non-specific reactions in cattle
Old Tuberculin
are prepared by growing bacilli on synthetic media, autoclaving, removing cells and precipitating the proteins, material is then assayed for biological activity
PPD
What is the major benefit of PPDs?
one batch can be compared to another for purposes of standardizing the material
The drugs used to treat mycobacterai infections usually include____ and ___
isoniazid and rifampin
principle cause of tuberculosis in humans and primates
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
incidence of this disease is ont he rise in 3rd world countries due to influence of AIDS
tuberculosis
has been isolated in several elephants in zoos and circuses
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
occasional cause of tuberculosis in dogs and pigs
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
____ in humans is most often pulmonary in nature
tuberculosis
I dont want to write this out so just read about the Tx for TB on page 87 in the manual
FUCK YOU JOE…. ya ya i know
_____ is the most widely used human immunziation agent in the world; only immunization agent against TB
Bacille Calmette Guerin (BCG)
BCG is a weakend live strain of _____
Mycobacterium bovis
Immunization is effective in reducing the likelihoodand severity of lethal forms of tuberculosis in _____ and ____
infants and young children
T/F immunization with BCG requires multiple shots
FALSE- indicates multpile shots not neccessary
T/F Protection from BCG does not extend into adulthood
TRUE
What must be used to definitively identify true TB positive individuals? WHY?
ELISA because skin test is ineffective, immunized individuals react to PDDs, false postives more of a problem if some jackass gave multiple vaccinations to kids, if you immigrate from an area that is known to immunoze w/ BCG, positive skin test is postive despite immnization history
causes tuberculosis in cattel, pigs, cats, horses, primates, dogs, sheep, and goats, but NOT birds
Mycobacterium bovis
____ is inhibitory to Mycobacterium bovis growth and cant be added to culture medium
glycerol
____ is destroyed by sunlight.pasteurization
Mycobacterium bovis (prob alot of things but this from the notes)
____ despite eradication programs has emerged w/ recent probelms in white tailed deer in MI and other states; also with farmed Elk
Mycobacterium bovis
Mycobacterium bovis transmission is primarily
Respiratory
_____ is the standard in feild test used by veterinarians to test for Mycobacterium bovis
Delayed type hypersensitivity skin test
What is the MAIS complex?
refers to group of organisms formerly classified as separate genera- M. avium, M. intracellulare, M. scrofulaceum
responsible for the majority of tuberculosis in birds, and swine
Mycobacterium avium
are highly resistant mycobacteria
Mycobacterium avium
____ are generally more virulent for birds but can produce tuberculosis in swine and other animals
Mycobacterium avium serotypes 1, 2 and 3
Mycobacterium avium is transmitted
ingestion of feces or soil
______ cause tuberculosis most commonly in swine
Mycobacterium avium serotype 1, 2, 4 and 8
Mycobacterium avium swine lesions typically manifest as
foci in mandibular and mesenteric lymphnodes occasionaly in inestinal tract
cause of leprosy in humans and armadillos
Mycobacterium leprae
called Hansen’s bacillus
Mycobacterium leprae
in humans confined mainly to the skin, peripheral nerves, can be found systemicall in armadillos
Mycobacterium leprae
produces infrequently reported leprosy like disease in cats and rats
Mycobacterium lepraemurium
produces summing pool granuloma on arm and legs of humans and granulomatous lesions in cold blooded animals
Mycobacterium marinum
causes lymphnode lesions in cattle, deer and swine, both pulmonary and extrapulmonary lesions in humans
Mycobacterium kansasii
produces pulmonary disease in dogs and humans (uually immunosupressed)
Mycobacterium fortuitum
observed in swine lymphnode lesions and cold blooded animals
Mycobacterium chelonae
reported to be isolated in patients receiving heart valve trnasplants
Mycobacterium chelonae
major cause of johnes disease in cattle, sheep, goats, camels llamas and wild rmts
M. avium subspecies paratuberulosis
___ is required for primary isolation of M. avium subspecies paratuberulosis
mycobactin
What is mycobactin?
iron chelating compound
How long can M. avium subspecies paratuberulosis remain vaible in soil?
8-9 months
T/F M. avium subspecies paratuberulosis is not encolsed w/in the phagosome as with other Mycoplasma speceis
TRUE
in cattle disease in chronic and characterized by interrmittent diarrhea and emaciation
M. avium subspecies paratuberulosis
____ is the current definitve diagnosis of M. avium subspecies paratuberulosis
culture
____ is the only method that owrks well for sheep isolates of M. avium subspecies paratuberulosis
liquid culture
microscpic analysis of M. avium subspecies paratuberulosis stained with _____ reveal clumps of bacilli
Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast
is the somatic antigen; poly sacchride chains on LPS
O-Ag
is the capsular antigen
K-ag
is the fimbrial antigen
F-Ag
____ hemoglutinate RBC’s mannose sensitive probably bind to mucus on membranes
Type-1
this organism makes up 50% of human nosocomial infections
Enterobacteriaceae
____ genes may be on plasmids, or in the chromosome and may be transfered to other species of bacteria
enterotoxin
is usually killed by pasteurization, but some strains resistant, destroyed readily by disinfectants and drying, can survive freezing for several months, not a sporophores
Enterobacteriaceae
What are the three types of resistant Enterobacteriaceae?
Extensively drug resistant XDR
Multi-Drug resistant MDR
Pandrug resistnat
is a common example of XDR E. coli which has become a serious problem especially in human infections
Sequence Type 131
are produced by strains of E. coli which carry the genes for their production
Potent enterotoxins
_____ is correlated directly with virulence in human strains of E. coli extraintestinal infections
Alpha hemolysin
is a 110 kDa protein that is thought to enhance the inflammatory reaction and compromise leukocyte mediated defense mechansims
Alpha hemolysin
Alpha hemolysin acts by
insertinf monomeric subunits into cell membranes and thus forming a pore through Ca++ and K+ exit the cell
alpha hemoylsin is a member of ____ class
RTX Class
is the term commonly usde for E. coli infections in domestic animals; dentoes enteritis, septicemia or both
Colibacillosis
casue of neonatal diarrhea in piglets 1-4 days old, perfuse yellow, diarrhea w/ dehydration and death
Eschrichia coli
is the most important antigen for E. coli. Why?
F-4 used be called K88.
the fimbrae attach to receptors on the microvilli
ETEC
enterotixigenic E. coli
EPEC
enteropathogenic E.coli
AEEC
attaching effacing E. coli
EIEC
enteroinvasive E. coli
EHEC
enterohemorrhagic E. coli
is a an A-B structure toxin produced by many porcine, human and calf ETEC
Labile Toxin (LT)
___ and ____ can neutralize LT
anti-toxin antibody, antibody to cholera toxin
___ stimulates adenylcyclase increasing ___, leading to___ of CL- and ___ of Na absorption resulting in__ i
LT; cAMP, excretion; inhibition, excessive fluid loss
___ and ___ are the two types of ST which are ___
STa and STbm heat stable, both too small to be immunogenic
What is STa’s mode of action?
stimulates guanylate cyclase -> increased cGMP-> lack of absorption
what is teh major effector of E. coli associated diarrhea?
STa
is most often associated with post weaning diarrhea in pigs
STb
these three fimbrial vaccines have led to marked decrease in morbidity and mortality
F4, F6, F7 fimbrial vaccines
Most E. coli strains causing post weaning diarrhea are____ while most of the strains producing neonatal diarrhea are___
hemolytic, non-hemolyitc
these 2 strains of E. coli cause edema disease
F18ac and F18 ab
this disease is usually seen in better doing swine, edema of the eyelids, facial area, stomach, and other places, but notoriously difficult to demostrate
Edema disease
the majority of edema disease is due to the elaboration of ____
shiga toxin
shiga-like toxin is a ____
vasotoxin
___ inhibits protein synthesis in the vascualr endothelium which leads to necrosis//edema
Shiga-like Toxin
How does Shiga-like toxin inhibit portien synthesis?
NAD-dependent ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2
__ is the most sensitive organ to shiga-like toxin
Brain
is the cause of white scours in cattle
Escherichia coli
white scours in cattle is most frequently associated ith what type of E. coli?
STa and F5 fimbrial type
causes enteric and septicemic disease simialr to calves in sheep
E. coli
this organism enters via the respiratory tract and can produce airsacculitits, acute septicemia, pericarditis, fibrinopurulent serositis, can also produce granulomatous lesions in the wall of the intestines
E. coli
Not part of the normal flora of the intestinal tract of fruit and seed eating birds, assocaited with severe enteritis and septicemia
E.coli
Why do you have to be careful when administering antibiotics to guinea pigs?
may wipe out normal flora, allowing gram negatives to move in and wreck havoc
this organism is the number one cause of pyometria in dogs, and can cause bacteremia in puppies
E. coli
most imoportant of the gram negatives that can cause mastitis in cows, especially in hot weather, in herds that do not have a strept/staph problem
E. coli
____ is the reason why immune response is genereally poor to E. coli
too many O-antigens
___ is used to protect against E. coli endotoxemia in dairy cattle
J5 immunizationn product
VTEC
verotoxin-producing E. coli
associated with diarrhea, hemorrhagic, colitis, and hemolytic uremic syndrome
VTEC
___ is an example of a VETC
E. coli O157:H7
These are the two types of shiga toxin produced by E. coli
STx-1 and STx-2
is the most virulent strain of Shigella
Shigella dysenteriae
is the major cause of infant diarrhea and mortality
shigella sp
the four species of shigella
dysenteriae, felxneri, sonnei, boydii
multiple cases of this organism occur in closed groups such as day cares, prisons, cruise ships, and on indian reservations
shigella spp
disease characterized by severe abdominal cramps, frequent passage of low volume bloody stool containing mucus
Bacillary dysentery (Shigella spp)
is the most common klebsiella organism
Klebsiella pneumoniae
may K. pneumoniae posses fimbriae with ____ or ___
mannose sensitive/Type 1 fimbriae OR resistant adhesins
in humans causes nosocomial infections, pneumonia, and septicemia
Klebsiella pneumonia
causes mastitis associated with sawdust as bedding
Klebsiella pneumonia
second most common cause of UTI ion animals and humans, repro tract infections especially in horses
Klebsiella pneumonia
is ALWAYS resistant to ampicillin
Klebsiella pneumonia
what are ESBL-producers
Extended Spectrum Beta Lactamase producers
Klebsiella pneumonia usually susceptible to
first generation cephalosporins
have been found in human population and have been the cause of several fatal nosocomial infections
Klebsiella pneumonia cabapenemase producers KPC
is not normally an enteric pathogen except in psittacine birds in which in can produce septicemia
Enterobacter spp
Relatively common isolate from mastitis in cattle and UTI in small animals
Enterobacter
____ and ___ may be effective against Enterobacter spp
Second and third gen cephalosporins
Resistant to 1st gen
The three most common species of Enterobacter:
cloacae, aerogenes, agglomerans
associated with plants as pathogens and saprophytes
Erwina corotovera (double check spelling)
causes proliferative oseomyelitis in dogs, mastitis, germ warfare studies
Serratia marcescens
these three organisms make up what was formerly known as the Proteus group
Proteus, Morganella, Providencia
are the two most common species of proteus
mirables, vulgaris
causes urinary tract infections in dogs, otitis externa in dogs, as a secondary invader in snake bites
Proteus spp
associated with cases of neonatal meningitis, fasiciitis, arthritis, skin infections, bactermia, and CNS infections
Morgenella morgani
organism is commonly found in the mouths of snakes
Morganella morgani
____ is produced by Morgenella morgani in infected fish, which when eaten can cause an anaphylaxis like syndrome in humans that eat it. This is known as ____
histidine decarboxylase;
Scrombroid poisoning
three most common Providencia species:
stuarti, rettgeri, alcalifaciens
menigitis in salt water crocodiles
Providencia stuarti
most commonly associated with disease in fish, enteric speticemia of catfish, do not grow at 37
Edwardsiella ictaluri
occasional cause of extraintetinal disease in humans most commonly hospitals in pateints with chronic diseases or on antimicrobial therapy
Hafnia alvei
causes UTI, neonatal meningitis, septicemia in humans, biochemically looks the same as salmonella, but does not decarboxylate lysine
Citrobacter
cause of the bubonic plague
Yersinia pestus
has decimated many praire dog colonies
Yersinia pestus
___ is the rodent cycle of Yersinia pestus
sylvatic plague
what is the bubonic form of Yersinia pestus?
organisms enters the dermal lymphatics and then the draining lymph nodes usually in the groin area, tremendously enlarged and swollen lymph nodes
when Yersinia pestus is present in high numbers in the lungs it can spread via droplet, this is know as:
pneumonic form
What are the three routes of transmission of Yersinia pestus, aka the black plague?
Slyvatic plague (rodent-rodent)
Bubonic (via fleas)
Pneumonic (via droplet)- 100% fatality
T/F penecillin is the drug of choice for Yersinia pestus
FALSE, its worthless, levofloxacin has been approved for humans, tetracycline, chloramphenicolm and kanamycin work well
Is seen in epizootics in nearly all species but especially in rodents, causes a mesenteric lymphanditis in humans, mimics appendicitis and also diarrhea
Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
is pathogenic for humans, monkeys, chinchillas, 1-3% of bacterial enteritis in humans, arthritis, septicemia, acute gastroenteritis, cause of a lot of appendicectomies
Yersinia enteroclitica
____ and ___ are both important causes of enteritis and mesenteric lymphanditis in humans, they are not found in absence of the diesease
Yersinia pseudotuberculosis and entercolitica
List the 7 general characteristics of Mycoplasma spp
smallest living structure capable of growth in cell free medium
lack a cell wall
pleomorphic, coccoid to filamentous
specialized termina structures
most facultative anearobes
Very small colonies
lack genetic code for cell wall
what is the one thing micoplasmas require for growth?
Cholesterol- ie SERUM in media
T/F mycoplasmas are susceptible to beta lactams
FALSE, no peptioglycan
What are the routinely used drugs for mycoplasma
Tilmicosin, tulathromycin, Zuprevo, other long acting macrolides
this organism is the cause of contagious bovine plueopneumonia, one of the most serious diseases of cattle in africa
Mycoplasma mycoides
causes broncopneumonia with 2-8 week course, recovery or death, limited to lungs with involvement of intrapulmonary lymphatics and thoracic lymph nodes
Mycoplasma mycoides
What are the 4 ways Mycoplasma mycoides is diagnosed?
CLinical signs- air hunger
PCR testing
Isolation
Complement fixation test
causes mastitis, pneumonia, otitis poly arthritis, abortion subcutaneous abscesses, and meninigitis
Mycoplasam bovis
___ produces a glycoprotein toxin which has been shown to produce inflammation in mammary tissue and this toxin may induce necrosis of lung tissue
Mycoplasma bovis
Once a cow get mastitis from this organism it is almost impossible to cure it
Mycoplasma bovis
These two practices are best to prevent transmission of Mycoplasma bovis to calves
pateurization of milk, addtion of formic acid to milk
this organism is important predisposing infection of Morexella bovoculi in production of pink eye, occurs as sublcinical infection in cattle
Mycoplasma bovoculi
very common in the bovine resp tract and can often be isolated from calves w/ pneumonia, hard to isolate, results of immunosupression to M. bovis
Mycoplasma dispar
cause of granular vulvo-vaginitis and infertility in cows, isolated from prepuce/semen of males,
Ureaplasma diversum
may cause seminal vesiculitis, epididymitis, orchitis, urethritis
Mycoplasma bovigenitalium
cause of contagious agalctiae and arthiritis in sheep and goats
Mycoplasma agalctiae
cause of contagious caprine pleuropneumonia, most serious disease world wide in goats, edemic in africa
Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumonia
___ is the virulence factor of Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumonia
capsular polysacchride
organism is more agressive than most mycoplasmas, limited to thte thoracic cavity involving the lungs, pleura and reginal lymphnodes, no bacteremic phase, but the capsular polysacchride can be dtencted in the serum of infected animals
Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumonia
Is there a vaccination for Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumonia
yes attenuated live cultures formalinized suspension of lunglesions has been effective
causes acute septiecemia polyarthritis, menigitis, possibly mastitis
Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capricolum
has atleast 80% DNA homology with Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumonia
Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capricolum
causes chronic pneumonia in sheep and goats, proliferative interstitial or atypical pneumonia, found in austraila, new zealand, US
Mycoplasma ovepnuemoniae
___ is the virulence factor of Mycoplasma ovipneumonia
capsule
sporadically occuring in generalized disease characterized by arhtritis, keratitis, mastitis, peritonitis, pnuemonia
Mycoplasma mycoides subsp mycoides LC
___ is used for Tx of Mycoplasma mycoides subsp mycoides LC
tylosin
causes infectious caprine and infectious ovine keratoconjunctivitis, infections seen in free range Caprinae- alpine ibez and chamois in the Alps, can be so severe sheep become blind
Mycoplasma conjunctivae
common genus in the urogenital tract of sheep/goats, causes granular vulvo-vaginitis in shee, associated with urethral calculi in sheep
Ureaplasmas
cause of mycoplamsa pneumonia in pigs, cranio ventral lung consolidation
Mycoplasma hypopeumoniae
causes chronic pneumonia of 6-10 weeks with reduced growth, feed conversion, especially prevalent in confinement raised animals,
Mycoplasma hypopneumoniae
____ is the best approach to curing Mycoplasma hypopneuomniae
improvement of management and the environment
___ is almost always subclinical but causes sporadic polyserositis in young pigs 3-10 wks, occasionally in naive highly susceptible young adutl animals, more common in pigs w/ PRRS
Mycoplasma hyorhinis
causes polyarthritis in grwoing and finisher animlas (older animals), sudden onset
Mycoplasma hyosynoviae
casue of eperthrozoonosis in swine, pigs under 5 days of age, skin palor icterus,
Mycoplasma suis
this organism attacks RBC in hogs
Mycoplasma suis
diagnosis of this organism s made by demonstration of organisms on blood smears from febrile pigs
Mycoplasma suis
cause of chronic respiratory disease of chickens, and infectious sinusitis of turkeys, conjunctivitis in wild birds
Mycoplasma gallispeticum
____ is a modified life vaccine that reduces loss in egg pdx in laying hens, not used in broilers, too virulent for tureys
F strain- vaccine agains Mycoplasma gallisepticum
T/F vaccine against Mycoplasma gallisepticum prevents infection of the upper respiratory tract in the face of heavy challenge
FALSE neither vacc does this
____ is the proces of placing a cool egg in a warm solution of antibiotic allowing the gg to absorp the antibiotic, and is used to prevent ____
Egg dipping, Mycoplasma gallisepticum
T/F there are no side effects assocaited with egg dipping
False, heating the eggs reduces their hatchability
causes of infectious synovitis and airsacculitis in chickens and turkeys in US, acute generalized repiratory progressing to arthritis, synovitis of joints keel, buram tendonitis, airsacculitis
Mycoplasma synoviae
___ in the feed is used to treat Mycoplasma synoviae
Chloretetracyline
causes air sacculitis in turkeys only, eggs are infected and airsacculitis can be seen in newly hatched poults
Mycoplasma meleagridis
causes reduced hatchability of chicken and turkey embryos, airsacculitism tenosynovitis, arthiritis and digital flexor tendon
Mycoplasma iowae
combines with infectious bronchitis virus and causes more severe bronchitis
Mycoplasma gallinarum
causes airsacculitis, meningitis, serositis and pneumonia in ducklings
Mycoplasma anatis
very important cause of respiratory disease, genital infections in rats and mice, also causes chronic polyarthritis, may cause repro problems, priblem in research colonies
Mycoplasma pulmonis
implicated as cause of plueritis in foals
Mycoplasma felis
cause of feline infectious anemia, produces disease only in cats, increased frequency in FeLV positive cats, splenectomized cats are very susceptible
Mycoplasma haemofelis
What are the four stages of Mycoplasma haemofelis
Preparasitic
Aute- cyclic parasitemia
Recovery
Carrier
WHat is the main cause of anemia associated with Mycoplasma haemofelis
splenic erthyrophagocytosis- attachment of organsim to RBC damages membrane, spleen removes these RBC from circualtion, macrophages eat them
clinical signs of Mycoplasma haemofelis infection
cats 4-6 years of age, depression, weight loss, anorexia, weakness, pale mucous membranes
___ and ___ are used to diagnose Mycoplasma haemofelis
blood smear, PCR test
____ is used to treat Mycoplasma haemofelis, but doesnt treat the carrier state, ____ is also used
doxycycline; enerofloxin
only infects dogs, usually no clincal signs, transmitted via the brown tick, anemia can be seen in splenectomized dogs, or dogs with concurretn infection
Mycoplasma haemocanis
primary cause of walking pneumonia in humans, tracheobronchitis, pharyngitis
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
___ is contained on the specialized tip structure of Mycoplasma pneumonia, it is an important virulence factor
P1 antigen
____ is the ability of Mycoplasma pneumonia to fuse its plasma membrane w/ host cell membranes
Cell fusion
____ is a_____ type drug that is most effective for tx of Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Azithromax, long acting macrolide
cause of non-gonococcal urethritis in human males, maybe associated w/ prostatitis, low birth weights of infants w/ infected mothers, and possible chorioamnionitis
Ureaplasma urealyticum
most common mycoplasma involved in disease in aids patients
Mycoplasma fermentans
is known as the green pus bacillus
Pseudomonas aeroginosa
___ is the pigment produced by Pseudomonas aeroginosa that gives it the green color
pyocyanin
Pseudomonas aeroginosa is able to use_____ and be able to grow under anearobic conditions
nitrate as terminal electron accepter
T/F Pseudomonas aeruginosa can life inside disinfectants
TRUE
organism can be isolated from intravenous solutions, endotrach tubes, surgical instruments, water in hot tubs, swimming pools, surgical scrubs,etc
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
_____ causes beta hemolysis, paralysis, death, dermonecrosis and vascular permeability inmice
phospholipase C
____ is the target organ of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
liver
___ this Pseudomonas aerigonsa toxin serves to enhance the severity of infection and has been shown to damgae alot of cell types
Exoezyme S
these two enzymes play important roles in corneal infections and in pulmonary infections
Elastase A and B
______ degrades immunoglobulin G and A complement, airway lysozyme, and coagualtion factors, inhibits gamma interferon and NK cell activity
Elastase B
____ is important in the generation of P. aeruginosa microcolonies in tissues ie lungs, restricts access of immunoglobulins to o antigen polysacchrides
Extracellular slime
____ is produced by P. aeruginosa, it is toxic for other bacteria nd interfers witht eh tracheal cilliary function
pyocyanin
____ in high concentration will prevent expression of Exotoxin A, elastase, alkaline protease
iron
__ is the cause of UTI assocaited w/ catheter, otitis exteran, post surgical infection and a giant ass list of other bs diseases on page 122
Psuedomonas aeruginosa
immunization for P aeruginosa in only successful for _____ in mink adn chinchillas
hemorrhagic pneumonia
____ and ____ have shown promising results for tx of P aeruginosa
Fluoroquinolones and carbapenems
imprtant infectious agent especially in amphibians, reptiles and fish, causes a septicemia in frogs known as red leg, causes necrotic stomatitis in turtles
Aeromonas hydrophilia
Aeromonas hydrophilia produces alot of _____ which cause tissue destruciton
extracellular enzymes
cause of skin ulceration, furunculosis, and septecemia in a variety of cold water fish species- trout, salmon, grayling , etc
Aeromonas salmonicidia subspecies salmoncidia
cause of glanders primarily in horses and solipeds, humans and occasionally other animals, one of the oldest diseases known as described by the greeks
Burkholderia mallei
What are the three types of disease caused by Burkholderia mallei
Pulmonary- encapsulated noduels w/ cheesy puffs
Nasal- nodules in nasal mucous membranes which rupture, release exudate and form ulcers
Farcy of Cutaneous ganders- nodules along the cutaneous lymph channels
produces meliodosis a ganders like disease
Burkholderia pseudomallei
sometimes referred to as the Vietnamese time bomb
Burkholderia pseudomallei- some one call MIKE NELSON
cause of columnaris disease in warm water fish, disease is said to be the second leading casue of mortality in pond raised catfish in SE US second only to_____
Flavobacterium columnare; Edwardsiella ictaluri
_____ usually manifest as brown to yellow lesions of the gills, skin and or fins, bacteria attach to the surface of the gills, grow in spreading patches and erode the gill surface through production of _____
Flavobacterium coulmnare; proteolytic enzymes
treatment of water with _____ is successful in helping eliminate external disease of F. columnare
potassium permanganate
______ in the feed is helpful if tx is initiated early
terramycin
causes a devastating disease in freshwater salmon and trout characterized by necrotic lesions known as _____, young fish suffer severe mortality associated hemorrhagic septicemia referred to as_____
Flavobacterium psychrophilum; fresh water disease; rainbow trout fry syndrome
Flavobacterium psychrophilum pdx ______ that hydrolyze fish tissues
proteases
Name the Salmonella serovars that are adapted to humans, swine, cattle, and poultry
Humans= Salmonella typhi and typhoid fever in humans Swine= Salmonella choleraesuis Cattle= Salmonella dublin Poultry= Salmonella pullorum
What is the difference between host-adapted and host-restriced?
Host adapted means its able to produce profound dz in that particular host species
Host restricted means its only able or is restricted to one host species thus only causes dz in that host species
Button ulcers” are characteristic of which Salmonella-host combination?
S. choleraesuis and swine (associated with respiratory dz and button ulcers)
Name the Salmonella serotype from amphibians and why is this serotype relevant to livestock?
Salmonella arizonae- causes septicemia in turkeys, is normal flora of reptiles esp. turtles and is not from the enterica subspecies (has different metabolic chars)
Name two major determinants of host adaptation/host restriction
- Adherence to host epithelial cells
2. Macrophage survival
Why is S. typhimurium commonly associated with foodborne outbreaks?
S. typhimurium is normal gut flora of poultry and does not cause dz in poultry, however it does cause dz in humans.
Common cause of salmonellosis in mammalian hosts, mainly foodborne infections in humans
What intestinal cells does Salmonella prefer and why?
Salmonella prefers the M-cells or dome cells because they have a shorter glycocalyx and its easier to colonize these cells vs enterocytes with a thick glycocalyx.
In general terms how does Salmonella get into intestinal cells?
Adherence to M-cells/doem cells Injection of bacterial proteins through the cell membrane (needle-like action) Rearrangement of actin Disorganized and ruffled membrane Bacterial entry Exit basal side of cell Enters the systemic circulation Endotoxemia
How is this cellular penetration process relevant to recent vegetable-borne outbreaks of salmonellosis?
With invasion of plant cells the bacteria don’t exit the cells (so they are not an issue for plants) but rather co-exist and then get ingested by a mammal or bird and cause infection.
Explain the importance of normal gut flora in regards to salmonella colonization of the intestines
Normal gut flora will compete for the receptor binding sites and hide the binding sites from the salmonella.
Normal flora will produce compounds that inhibit Salmonella and kill them
Explain how the SRP vaccine works
- SRP (siderophore receptor protein vaccine from S. newport) is an anti-Salmonella vaccine given to cattle (oral IN, IM, SC) and antibodies are made against the SRP.
- SRP brings Iron into the environment and cattle make antibodies against this so there will be an anamnestic response during an infection stopping the iron intake into the Salmonella. The lack of iron kills the salmonella and the antibody leads to CMI.
Why are killed bactrins usually ineffective versus Salmonella?
Killed bactrins do not elicit a CMI response the epitopes are usully the O antigen
- O-antigens are serogroup specific so bacterins are monovalent and don’t carry over to other serotypes
- Salmonella can also readily shed its O-antigens if needed so it gets away from the vaccine anyways.
Name two reasons why S. typhimurium DT 104 is of concern.
- DT104 has multiple antibiotic resistance (this includes: ampicillin, chloramphenicol, streptomycin, sulfonamides, and tetracycline)
- It is more virulent in cattle due to the presence of rumen protozoa harboring the Salmonella and the virulence factors of DT104 once the protozoa reach abomasum and are destroyed the bacteria is then released
Name the two major determinants of Salmonella virulence
- Intestinal colonization
2. Invasion of intestinal cells
