Micro Flashcards

1
Q

(adult/pediatric) UTI: dysuria, frequency, urgency

A

adult

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2
Q

(adult/pediatric) UTI: tenderness in lower abd w/ inadequate urine flow

A

peds

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3
Q

CFU/mL is always diagnostic and is obtained by _____ urine culture

A

semiquantitative

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4
Q

_____ causes 75-90% of UTIs, all others are opportunistic

A

uropathogenic E coli

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5
Q

(Enterococci/Enterobacteriacae) are gamma-proteobacteria (Gram - rods)

A

Enterobacteriacae

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6
Q

(Enterococci/Enterobacteriacae) are Gram + cocci that grow in chains, drug resistant

A

enterococci

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7
Q

Enterobacteriaceae are (facultative anaerobes/obligate aerobes) and mostly normal GI flora

A

facultative anaerobes

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8
Q

____ use virulence factor P type I fimbrae to attach to uroepithelial cells and work their way up the tract

A

uropathogenic E coli

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9
Q

atypical UTIs are opportunists; sequels of UT procedures/catheters, diabetes, or ___

A

sepsis

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10
Q

encapsulated (Klebsiella/Enterobacter/Serratia) can cause dangerous hemorrhagic PNA in alcoholic men

A

Klebsiella

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11
Q

(Klebsiella/Enterobacter/Serratia) can become “panresistant”

A

Enterobacter

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12
Q

(Klebsiella/Enterobacter/Serratia) can cause endocarditis in heroin addicts

A

Serratia

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13
Q

proteus/providencia/morganella: cause UTIs with ____ stones using urease virulence factor

A

struvite

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14
Q

proteus/providencia/morganella: attach with ____

A

fimbrae

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15
Q

(enterobacteriacae/enterococci) cause UTIs, endocarditis, contribute to polymicrobial intra-abdominal infections

A

enterococci

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16
Q

treat cystitis (uncomplicated UTI) with (sulfa or fluoroquinolone/third gen or combined drugs and antibiotic sensitivity testing)

A

sulfa or fluoroquinolone

17
Q

treat pyelonephritis with (sulfa or fluoroquinolone/third gen or combined drugs and antibiotic sensitivity testing)

A

third gen or combined, AB testing

18
Q

when is cranberry juice helpful in treating UTI

A

early on, when microbial numbers are still low

19
Q

(transplant rejection/graft v host dz): T cells in the transplant attack the recipient’s tissues

A

graft v host. when hematopoietic cells are transplanted

20
Q

(transplant rejection/graft v host dz): when recipient’s T cells attack the transplant

A

transplant rejection (kidney)

21
Q

MC transplant

A

blood

22
Q

(hyperacute/acute/chronic) rejection: caused by preformed antibodies that react to the transplanted organ

A

hyperacute

23
Q

MC antigen attacked in hyperacute rejection

A

ABO blood (may have HLA)

24
Q

when the serum of a recipient is tested against a panel of leukocytes from many individuals to detect the presence of antibodies to HLA

A

panel reactive antibody, presented as a percentage from 0-100%

25
Q

(hyperacute/acute/chronic) rejection: when T cells from the recipient become reactive against the transplant over days to weeks

A

acute

26
Q

(hyperacute/acute/chronic) rejection: stronger response is to donor cells expressing class II MHC, indirect response with presentation by host APCs

A

acute

27
Q

most immune suppression therapies are directed toward inhibiting (hyperacute/acute/chronic) rejection

A

acute

28
Q

(hyperacute/acute/chronic) rejection: primarily the result of indirect recognition of the transplant, often assoc with presence of antibodies to HLA class I

A

chronic, HLA class I seem to act on the vasculature of the graft

29
Q

(hyperacute/acute/chronic) rejection: vascular damage by class I HLA

A

chronic

30
Q

four tests for compatibility done at transplantation

A

ABO, HLA I and II, find match on computer, cross match on all positive sera from antibody serum

31
Q

The _____ _____ reaction measures the ability recipient cells to respond to donor MHC antigens. The T cell response is measured by cell division.

A

mixed lymphocyte

32
Q

Anti-___ antibody testing done monthly, used for cross matching against donor lymphocytes

A

HLA-ABC