Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

StepFun > Micro > Flashcards

Micro Flashcards

1
Q

Purpose of peptidoglycans

A

gives rigid support, protects against osmotic pressure, determines how much gram strain will be picked up. Sugar backbone with peptide side chain cross linked by transpeptidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Gram + vs gram - color

A

Gram + pruple, gram - pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

function of cell wall/cell membrane (gram +)

A

major surface antigen, induces TNF and IL1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

function of outer membrane (gram -)

A

site of endotoxin, lipid A induces TNF and IL-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

periplasm function

A

space btwn cytoplasmic membrane and outer membrane in gram negative bactr, contains hydrolytic enzymes including B lactamases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

glycocalyx function

A

mediates adherence to surfaces, especially foreign substances – sugar coat, think biofilm/capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Gram + bacteria examples

A
  • Staph, strep (cocci)
  • clostridium, corynebacterium, bacillus, listeria, mycobacterium,gardnerella (bacillus)
  • actinomyces, nocardia (branching)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Gram negative examples

A

-neisseria (coccus)

==RODS==

  • Ecoli, shigella, salmonella, yersinia, klebsiella, proteus,enterobacter,serratia, bivrio, campylobacter,helicobacte,r psuedomonas, bacteriodes(enterics)
  • haemophilus, legionella, bordetella (respiratory)
  • francisella, brucella, pasteurella, bartonella (zoonotic)
  • leptospira, borrelia, treponema (spirochete)
  • ricketssiea,chlamydia (plenomorphic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Unique thing about cell membrane/wall for mycoplasma

A

contains sterols and has no cell wall (hence why some abx dont work)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Unique thing about mycobacteria cell wall

A

contain mycolic acid,high lipid content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Capsule function in bacteria

A

protects against phagocytosis,usually polysaccharide (except D-glutamate in bacillus anthracis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Bugs which dont gram stain well

A

“These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color”
-Treponema, Rickettsia, Mycobacteria, Mycoplasma, Legionella, Chlaymdia

can use silver stain for legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

for waht bugs do you use Giemsa stains

A

Chlamydia, Borrelia,Rickettsiae, Trypanosomes, Plasmodium,Histoplasm

“Certian Bugs Really Try His Patience”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

PAS stains for..

A

Stains glycogen/mucopollysacharides –> Tropheryma whipplei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ziehl Neelson stain

A

Acid Fast organisms (nocardia, mycobacteria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

India Ink stain

A

cryptococcus neoformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bug grown on Chocolate agar w Factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin)

A

H. Influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Culture reqs for H Infleunza

A

Chocolate Agar w/ FV and FX (NAD+ and hematin, respectively)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Thayer martin media grows what two bugs, and has what 3 bugs

A

Neissseria gonorrhoea and neisoerria meningitidis

VPN: Vancomycin, polymyxin, nystatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar grows

A

Bordetella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Loffler’s Media grows

A

C Diphtheriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Lowenstein Jensen agar grows

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Eatons agar grows

A

M pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

MacConkey’s agar grows, and what color do fermenting bac grow

A

they turn pink; Think lactose fermenting bacteria (Citrobacter, Ecoli,klebsiella, enterobacter, serratia)

CKEES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Charcoal yeast extract grows

A

Legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Sabarouds agar grows

A

Fungi

“Sabaroud is a fun guy”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Obligate aerobes include

A

Are O2 depedent, and includes

Nocardia, pseudomonas, mycobacterum tberculosis, bacillus

“Nagging Pests Must Breathe”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Obligate anaerobes include

typical abx include?

A

Clostridium, bacteriodes, actinomyces

they lack catalose/superoxide dismutase –> are susceptible to oxidative damage, genreally foul smeling
Tx: clindamycin, metronidazole

“can’t breathe air”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Obligate intracellular bugs

A

Rickettsia and Chlamydia (cant make their own ATP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Facultative Intracellular

A

Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria,Francisella, Legionella, Yersinia estis

“Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLY”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Encapsulated Bacteria have what + reaction, and include what species?

A

+ quellung reaction

Strep pneumo, Haemophils influenza, Neisseria Meningitids, E Coli, Salmonella, Klebsiella, GBS, Pseudomonas

“Even Some Pretty Nasty Killers Have Shiny Bodies”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Quellung reaction indicates what?

A

Encapsulated species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Catalase + organisms include

Also, pts with what disease are more prone to these infections?

A

Pseudomonas, Listeria, Aspergillus, Candidda, EColi, Staph Aureus, Serratia

Pts with chronic granulomatous disease have recurrent infxns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pigment of the following bacteria:

  • Staph Aureus
  • Actinomycess Israelii
  • Serratia Marcescens
  • Pseudomonas Aeurginosa
A
  • gold
  • gold
  • red
  • green
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Importance of bacterial viurlence factor Protein A, which bug has it?

A

Binds Fc region of Ig, prevents opsonization and phagocytosis – staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Importance of bacteriaul virulence factor - IgA protease, who has it?

A

Enzyme cleaves IgA, Strep Pneumo, H Influenza, Neisseria (SHiN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Importance of bacterial virulence factor M protein - who has it

A

prevents phagocytosis, seen on Group A strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

More toxic: endo or exotoxin?

A

Exotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Result of Endotoxin

A
  • Activates macrophages (IL1, TNF, and NO release)
  • Activates complement (C3a, C5a)
  • Activates tissue factor (DIC)

ENDOTOXIN:
Edema, NO, DIC/Death, Outer Membrane, TNFa, O-antigen, eXtremely heat stable, IL-1, Neutrophil chemotaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Toxin associated with corynebacterium diptheria and MOA

A

Diptheria toxin, inactivates elongation factor 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa toxin and MOA

A

Exotoxin A - inacitvates elongation factor 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Shigella toxin and MOA

A

shiga toxin - inactivates 60S ribosome by removing adenine from rRNA - causes GI mucosal damage –> dysentery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

EHEC toxin and moa

A

Shiga Like Toxin (verocytotoxin) which inactivates 60S ribosome by removing adenine from rRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

two toxins of ETEC and MOA

A

increased fluid secretion

LT and ST (heat labile and heat stable)

  • LT activates adenylate cyclase, leading to increased cAMP –> increase Cl secretion in gut and H2o efflux)
  • ST activates guanylyl cyclase,leading to increased cGAMP –> decreased NaCl and H2o resoption in gut

Wattery diarrhea: labile in the Air (cAMP) and stabile on the ground (cGMP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Bacillus anthracis 3 toxins and MOA

A

edema factor, lethal factor, protective Ag

mimics adeylate cylcase activity (increased cAMP), causes increased fluid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

vibrio cholera releases..

A

cholera toxin, overactivates adenylate cycalse (cAMP) by permanently activating Gs –> incnreased CL- and H2O secretion in gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Bodetella pertussis toxin and activity

What disease is caused?

A

Pertussis toxin which activates adenylate cycalse –> increased cAMP, impairs phagytosis
causes whooping cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Clotridium tetanus rleases what toxin, and what MOA?

A

Tetanospasmin, cleaves SNARE protein required for NTM release, prevents release of inhibitory (GABA and glycine) NTM,causing muscle rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Clostriduum botuliniuum has what exotoxins

A

Botulinum toxin, cleaves SNARE protein required for NTM release, prevents release of stimulatory (ACh) signal at NMJ, causes flaccid paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Yersinia Enteridis toxin, associated with what disease?

A

similar to ETEC- overactivates cGMP, causes abdpominal pain, “psuedo appendicitis”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Clostridium perfringens releases what two toxins and has what MOA

A

releases alpha toxin, which is a phospholipase which degrades tissue and cell membranes.

also has enterotoxin for food poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Strep pyogenes exotoxin

A

Streptolysin O, which degades cell membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Staph Aureus Toxins (x2?)

A

TSST-1 and Enterotoxins

TSST brings MHC II and TCR in proximity, causing overwhelming release of IFNy and IL-2 –> shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Strep pyogenes (GAS) has what superantigen and what MOA?

A

Exotoxin A –> brings MHC II and TCR in proximity, causing overwhelming release of IFNy and IL-2 –> shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Meaning of alpha vs beta vs gamma hemolysis

A

Alpha - partial hemolysis with green cleaning (strep pneumo or strep viridans)

Beta - completel hemolysis with white clearing (GAS) - Strep pyogenes or GBS (Strep agalictiae)

Gamma - no hemolysis, no clearining - Enterococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Clinical presentation of Strep Pneumo

A

Meningitis, Otitis Media, Pneumonia, Sinusitis

MOPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Staph exotoxins can cause what?

A

Shock, Staph Scalded skin Syndrome (TSST)

gastroenteritis (enterotoxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Rheumatic Fever Criteria?

A

JONES

  • Joint pains
  • Pancarditis
  • Nodules
  • Erythema marginatum
  • Sydenham’s Chorea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Toxins associated with Strep Pyogenes (GAS)

A
  • Streptlysin O –> hemolysis, O2 labile
  • Streptolysin S - hemolysis, O2 stable
  • Eryhtogenic/Pyogenic toxins –> Skin rash, fever, scarlet fever
  • Exotoxin : toxic shock like syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Pyogenic, Toxigenic, and Immunologic result of GAS/Strep Pyogenes

A
  1. pharyngitis, cellulitis, impetigo
  2. Scarletfever, toxic shock like syndrome, necrotizing fasciitis
  3. PSGN, Rheumatic Fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

causes of cellulitis/impetigo

A

Staph aureus and strep pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Clostridium difficile’s two toxins MOA

Often secondary to what abx use?

A

Toxin A: enterotoxin binds to brush border of gut
Toxin B: cyotoxin, destroys the cytoskeletal structure of enterocytes, causing psuedomembranous colitis

Usually clindamycin, ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Waterhouse friderichsen syndrome? caused by?

A

Adrenal hemorrhage, casued by N. Meningococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Hemophiluscuases what sx?

A

hEMOPhilus

Epiglottis, meningitis, otitis media/sinusitis, pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Psuedomonas Aeurgionsa causes what disease?

A

PSUEDOmonas
Pnuemonia, Sepsis, Externial otitis media, UTI, Drug use, and diabetic osteomyleitis

Produces endotoxin and exotoxin A

66
Q

Kelbsiella’s 4 A’s

A

Aspiration pnuemonia, abscess in lungs and liver, Alcoholic, diAbetics

67
Q

Lyme dz manifestations:

A

FAKE:

Facial nerve palsy,arhtralgias, kardiacblock, erythyma migrans

68
Q

associated with cat scratch disease

A

bartonella spp

69
Q

cat scratch in immunocompromised patient

A

bacillary angiomatosis, regional LAD

70
Q

Borrelia burgdoferia

A

lyme dz, caused by ixodes tick

71
Q

unpasteurized dairy

A

brucella, brucellosis

72
Q

puppies/live strock (ingestion of undercooked meat)

A

campylobacter, bloody diarrhea

73
Q

parrots, other birds

A

chlamydiophila psittaci, psittacocis, severe PNA

74
Q

Aerosols of cattle, sheep amniotic fluid

A

Q fever, coxiella burnetii

75
Q

Lone star tick

A

Ehrlichiosis, ehrlichia chaffeensis

76
Q

Animal urine transmission

A

leptospira,leptospirosis

77
Q

Armadillos and humans with specific skin dzL

A

mycobacterium leprae, leprosy

78
Q

animal bite, cats,dogs

A

pasteurerlla multicoccida, causes cellulitis and osteomyelitis

79
Q

louse

A

rickettsia (epidemic typhus) or borrelia

80
Q

dermacentor tick bite

A

Rocky mountain potted fever, rickettsia rickettsii

81
Q

Fleas

A

Endemic typgus, rickettsia typhi

82
Q

Fleas, rats, and prairie dogs

A

Yersinia pestis, bubonic plaque

83
Q

Rickettsial diseases

  • Triad
  • can all be treated with
  • Weil-felix rxn + or -?
A
  • HA, fever, Rash
  • Doxycycline
    • weill felix rxn bc of Ab agglutination
84
Q

Palm and Sole rash seen with which infections?

A

Coxsackie A, RMSF, secondary syphilus (CARS)

85
Q

5 organisms assocaited with birds

A

Histoplasma, cryptococcus neoformans, chlamydophyla psittaci,WNV, H5N1

86
Q

Disease location of:

  • Histoplasmosis
  • Blastomycosis
  • Coccidiomycosis
  • Paracoccidiomycosis
A
  • histo: Mississippi and Ohio River valleys (found with bird/bat droppings)
  • blasto: East of mississippi river, central america
  • SW US, California
  • Latin Aerica - looks like captains wheel
87
Q

4 main classes of infections

A

Bacteria, VIruses, Fungi, Parasites

88
Q

Protozoa causing

-GI, CNS, Heme, Visceral, STDs infxns

A

GI: Giardia, entomoeba histolytica, cryptospordium

CNS: toxoplasma gondii, naegleria fowelderia, Trypanosoma

Heme: plasmodium, Babesia

Viscerial: Leschmaniasis, trypanosmaCruzii

STD: trichomonas

89
Q

3 main types of parasites cause disease in humans:

A
  • Protozoa - usually unicellular)
  • Helminths - multicellular (3 main groups are nematodes (roundworms), cestodes (tapeworms), and trematodes (flukes)
  • Ectoparasites (think ticks, fleas, mites, and lice)
90
Q

Nematode route of infection

A

Ingested: enterobius, Ascaris, Trichinella
Cutaneous: Strongyloides, Ancylostoma, Necotar

You’ll get sick if you EAT these!
These get into your feet from the SANd!

91
Q

Brain cysts, seizures

A

Taneia solium (cysticerciosis)

92
Q

Liver cysts

A

Echinoccocus granulosus

93
Q

VitB12 Deficiency

A

Diphyllobothrium

94
Q

Biliary tract disease,cholangiocarcinoma

A

Clonorchis sinensis

95
Q

Hemoptysis

A

Paragonismus westermani

96
Q

Portal HTN

A

Schistosoma mansoni

97
Q

Hematuria, bladder cancer

A

Schistostoma haemtobium

98
Q

Microcytic anemia

A

Ancylostoma, necator

99
Q

Perianal pruiritis

A

Enterobius

100
Q

Live viruses:

A

Smallpox,yellow fever, VZV, Sabin’s polio, MMR, and nasal infleunza,rotavirus

MS. PRIVY

101
Q

Killed Virus

A

Rabies, Influenza, Salk Polio, HAV vaccines

PAIR

102
Q

Vaccines with egg

A

Yellow fever, Influenza

103
Q

All RNA viruses except _____ are ssRNA

A

reovirus and retrovirus

104
Q

Positive stranded RNA viruses

A

retrovirus, togavirus, flavivurus, coronavirus,hepevirus, calicivurus, picornavirus

105
Q

All viruses are ____loid except for ___ which are ____

A

all viruses are haploid, except retrovruses, which are diploid (have 2 ssRNA)

106
Q

All DNA viruses replicate in ____ except ____

A

nucleus,poxvirus (smallpox, molluscum contagiosum)

107
Q

All RNA viruses replicate in ____ except ___

A

cytoplasm, influenza/retroviruses

108
Q

DNA viruses include

A

Hepadna, herpes, adeno, pox, parvo,papiloma, and polyoma virus

109
Q

Naked/noneveloped viruses include:

A

papillomavirus,adenovrus, picornavirus, polyomavirus,calcivurs, parvovirus,reovirus,and hepevirus

give PAPP (DNA) smears and CPR to a naked Heppy (RNA)

110
Q

Herpesvirus

Enveloped, DNA structure, and important viruses in family

A 
HSV 1 - oral
HSV 2 - genital ulcers
VZV - 3
EBV  -4 
CMV - 5
HHV6 - roseola 
HHV7 - less common cause of roseola
HHV8 - Kaposi's sarcoma

yes envelope, DS linear
causes latent dz, reacitvated later

111
Q

Hepadnavirus

Enveloped, DNA structure, and important viruses in family

A

yes enveloped, DS and partial circular DNA

HepB Virus

112
Q

Adenovirus

Enveloped, DNA structure, and important viruses in family

A

No envelope, DS and linear DNA

febrile pharyngitis,PNA, conjunctivitis

113
Q

parvovirus

Enveloped, DNA structure, and important viruses in family

A

no envelope, SS and linear (negative strand)

parvo B19

114
Q

ppillomavirus

Enveloped, DNA structure, and important viruses in family

A

No envlope, DS and circular

HPV 1,2,6,11,16,18

115
Q

polyomavirus

Enveloped, DNA structure, and important viruses in family

A

No envelope, DS and circular

JC virus

116
Q

poxvirus

Enveloped, DNA structure, and important viruses in family

A

yes envelope, DS and linear

smallpox, vaccinia,and molluscum

117
Q

Reoviruses

Enveloped, RNA structure, and important viruses in family

A

no, DS linear

Coltivirus, Rotavirus

118
Q

1 cause of fatal diarrhea in children

A

Rotavirus

119
Q

Picornaviruses

Enveloped, RNA structure, and important viruses in family

A

no envelope, ss + linear, PERCH viruses

Poliovirus, Echovirus, Rhinovirus, Coxsackie viruses, HAV

120
Q

Hepevirus

Enveloped, RNA structure, and important viruses in family

A

no envelope, SS + linear, HEV

121
Q

Caliciviruses

Enveloped, RNA structure, and important viruses in family

A 
No envelope, +SS linear
Norwalk viruse (think cruise ship diarrhea)
122
Q

Flavivirus

Enveloped, RNA structure, and important viruses in family

A

Yes envelope, SS + linear

HCV, yellow fever, dengue, WNV

123
Q

togavirus

Enveloped, RNA structure, and important viruses in family

A

yes enveloped, SS + linear

rubellea

124
Q

Retroviruses

Enveloped, RNA structure, and important viruses in family

A

yes enveloped, SS + inear

HIV, HTLV

125
Q

Coronaviruses

Enveloped, RNA structure, and important viruses in family

A

Yes enveloped, SS + linear,

Coronavirus – common cold

126
Q

Orthomyxovirus

Enveloped, RNA structure, and important viruses in family

A

yes enveloped, SS negative linear RNA

Infleunza virus

127
Q

Paramyxoviruses

Enveloped, RNA structure, and important viruses in family

A

Yes enveloped, SS negative linear RNA

parainfluenza (croup)
RSV (bronchiolitis)
measles, Mumps

128
Q

Rhabdoviruses

A

Rabies

129
Q

Filoviruses

Enveloped, RNA structure, and important viruses in family

A

yes enveloped, ss neg linear RNA

EBOLA, marburg hemorrhagic fever

130
Q

Negative stranded viruses

A

must tx negative stand to positive strand,virus brings its own RNA dependent RNA polymerase

Arenaviruses, Bunyaviruses,Paramyxoviruses, orthomyxoviruses, filoviruses, rhabdoviruses

Always Bring Polymerase Or Fail Replication

131
Q

Segmented viruses – DNA or RNA?

A

all are RNA

BOAR - Bunyaviruses, Orthomyxociurses, Arenaviruses,Reoviruses

132
Q

Cough, Coryza, COnjunctivitis?

A

MEASLES virus, a paramyxovirus, can see koplik spots

133
Q

parotitis, orchitis,meningitis

A

Mumps virus

134
Q

What can cause viral meningitis

A

Coxsackie virus,echovirus, enterovirus, mumps virus

135
Q

Hepataitis Viruses - what kind of family?

A 
HAV = RNA picornavirus
HBV = DNA hepadnavirus
HCV = RNA flavivirus
HDV = RNA deltavirus
HEV =  RNA hepevirus
136
Q

Gp120 fxn?

gp41 fxn?

A 
gp120  = attachment to host CD4+ T cell
gp41 = fusion and entry
137
Q

HIV p24 fxn?

A

Capsid protein around RNA

138
Q

3 genes of HIV

A

gag (p24),pol (reverse transcriptase,aspartate protease,integrase), env (gp120, gp41)

139
Q

Food poisoning from contaminated seafood

A

vibrio parahemolyticus/vulnificus

140
Q

food posinoining from reheated rice

A

bacillus cereus

141
Q

poisnoing from meats, mayo, custard

A

Staph aureus (PREFORMED TOXIN)

142
Q

reheated meat dishes

A

clostridium perfringens

143
Q

Clostridium botulinum

A

improperly canned foods

144
Q

undercooked meat

A

EColi (O157:H7)

145
Q

poultry, meat, eggs

A

Salmonella (no preformed toxin)

146
Q

Bloody diarrhea:

A

campylobacter,salmonella, shigella, EHEC, EIEC, Yersinia entercolatia, entomobea

147
Q

Watery diarrhea

A

ETEC, vibrio cholera, Cdiff, Cperfrigens, protozoa, viruses

148
Q

PNA nosocomial

A

Staph,enteric gram neg rods

149
Q

PNA in immuncomoromised

A

Staph, enteric gram neg rods, fungi, viruses, PCP

150
Q

aspiration PNA

A

Anaerobes (tx with clinda)

151
Q

alcoholic/IVDU PNA

A

klebsiella, staph, strep pneumo

152
Q

CF PNA

A

Pseudomonas, staph, strep

153
Q

Post viral PNA species?

A

Staph, HFlu, Strep pneumo

154
Q

Atpical PNA?

A

Mycoplasma, Legionealla, Chlamydia (tx with macrolides)

155
Q

COPD PNA?

A

HInfluenza

156
Q

most common cause of osteomyelitis

A

Staph aureus

157
Q

4 causes of meningitis in HIV?

A

Cryptococcus, CMV< toxoplasmosis, JV virus

158
Q

TORCH infections? their significance?

A

Toxoplasma,HSV2, Syphillis, Rubella, CMV, HIV – they can cause congenital malformations

159
Q

Chorioretinitis,hydrocephalus, and intracranial calficications?

A

Toxoplasma godi TORCH infxn

160
Q

PDA or pulm artery hyoplasia, cataracts, and deafness?

A

Rubella TORCH infxn

161
Q

hearing loss, seizures, petchieal rash

A

CMV TORCH infxn

StepFun (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions