Micro Flashcards by Sarah King

CAPNOPHILES

prefer higher CO2

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aerotolerant

Do not require O2 but are not poisoned by O2

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what is complex media made out of

Peptones and extract

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Gas packs

what is the reaction and products produced

what catalyzes the reaction

Contains sodium carbonate and sodium borohydride and you add water to produce H2 gas and CO2.

Palladium pellets

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typical incubation requirements

CO2, Temperature and Humidity requirements

5-10% CO2
35-37 C
and 50-70% humidity

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Moist autoclave requires what pressure, temperature, and weight

15Ib of pressure at 121C at 15 minutes

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Dry heat requires what pressure, temperature, and weight

flame or incinerator at 170C for 2 hours

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Pasteurization requires what pressure, temperature, and weight

Ultra high temperatures 140C for 3 seconds

Not sterilization

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What is the size for pores in filtration

what is it used for

.22-.45u

Used for sugar solutions, urea media, and vaccines

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Desiccation means that

Organisms remain viable but there is no multiplication

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Radiation forms

Hydroxyl radials and damages DNA

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Phenol disinfectant damages _________ and denatures _______

damages cytoplasmic membrane and denature proteins

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Halogens disinfectant is a type of ______

Oxidizer

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Alcohols denature _______ and dissolves __________

Proteins and dissolves lipids

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B-lactams examples

what is their mode of action

Carbapenems
B lactamase( Augmentin)
Penicillin’s
Cephalosporins ( imipenem)
monobactams (aztreonam)

Inhibits cell wall synthesis

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Glycopeptides

type and mode of action

Vancomycin

inhibits cell wall synthesis

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Aminoglycosides

type and mode of action

Gentamicin
tobramycin
amikacin

Inhibits cell wall synthesis

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Tetracyclines

types and mode of action

tetracycline and doxycycline

inhibits proteins synthesis

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Lincosamdies

mode of action and types

inhibits protien synthesis and clindamycin

is used for both gram positive and gram negative

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Chloramphenicol mode of action and types

Chloramphenicol and inhibits proteins synthesis

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Macrolides mode of action and type

Erythromycin and inhibits proteins synthesis

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Fluoroquinolones type and mode of action

ciprofloxacin and norfloxacin

inhibits nucleic acid synthesis

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Rifampin mode of action and used against what

Inhibits nucleic acid synthesis and used for Meningitis and mycobacteria

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Sulfa drugs such as methoxazole mode of action

analogue of PABA a which is a intermediate in folate synthesis used for UTI, enteric infection and with trimethoprim

Streptogramins types inhibits ___________ and is used against ____________

Quinupristin and dalfoprinstin inhibits protein synthesis and used for GP such as vancomycin resistant enterococcus faecium

Oxazolidinones types and inhibits what and used against what

Linzolid and inhibits protein synthesis and used for GP

what inhibits the 30S subunit

Aminoglycosides and tetracyclines

what are glycopeptides used against

Clostridium diff and MRSA

what inhibits the 50s subunit of bacteria

Macrolides and chloramphenicol

what can chloramphenicol cause

Aplastic anemia

Fluoroquinolones are used against what

Pseudomonas

Broad spectrum is

both gram + and gram -

selective toxicity

action against microbe only without hurting the host

synergetic

using two or more antibiotics against a host

what type of media is used for microbiology susceptibility test in Kirby Bauer method Concentration pH Concentration of

Kirby Bauer Mueller Hinton depth= 4mm pH 7.2-7.4 concentration of Mg and Calcium

MacFarland constant

0.5mm * 10^8 Represents 1.5* 10^ 8 bacteria

How often do you do QC in micro

Once a week

MBC ( minimum bactericidal concentration

lowest amount of drug required to kill 99.9% of Blake bacteria subculture near the MIC to find the MBC

MIC ( minimum bactericidal concentration)

minimum amount required to stop bacteria growth in vitro first tube with no visible growth

E-test

Is MIC on a stick and plastic strips are impregnated with antibiotics

Extended spectrum beta lactamase what are they resistant too examples

is where the bacteria is resistant to all third generation b lactams such as cephalosporin and penicillin and aztreonam examples are klebsiella and E.coli

Nitrocefin disk test reaction and detects what

Detects resistant to stains of bacteria such as haemophiles, gonorrhea's, Moraxella, and catarrhalis and used for organisms that are resistant to penicillin and ampicillin and cephalosporins nitrocefin( yellow)---> red color

D-test

used for clindamycin resistance and forms a D ring and uses a erythromycin disk + clindamycin disk together

MRSA detection

zone of greater then 10mm with oxacillin detects MRSA

Carbapenem resistant enterobacteriaceae organisms

Klebsiella and ecoil and enterobacter use modified hodge test and chromogenic media

Gamma hemolytic reaction

no zone of hemolysis

alpha hemolytic reaction

green hemolysis

Beta hemolytic

Clear zone of hemolysis

Chocolates agar

Neisseria and haemophiles

Phenylethyl alcohol is used for

Gram positive cocci and anerobic gram negative bacilli

CNA agar is used for

Gram positive cocci

Thayer martin agar is used for

N gonorrhoeae N meningitis

Thioglycolate broth is used for

Anaerobes

Lowenstein Jensen, middlebrook, and petragnani media is used for

Mycobacterium

BBE bile esculin agar is used for

B.fragilis

Kanamycin vancomycin laked blood agar is used for

Bacteroides

CCFA is used for

C.difficile

CDC agar is used for

Anaerobes

chopped meat agar is used for

Anaerobes

BCYE is used for

Legionella

TCBS is used for

Vibrio

Cystine tellurite blood agar is used for

C.diphtheriae

CIN is used for

Yersinia and Aeromonas

Phenol red reaction

Red is negative and yellow is positive

BBE esculin reaction

Black is positive

Hippurate hydrolysis reaction

Purple is positive

Phenylalanine positive reaction

Green surface after 10% Fecl3

Urea positive reaction is

Pink

what is the best time to draw

Just prior to temperature spike

Need a 1:____ dilution of blood to broth on adults and at least ____ ml for pediatric

10 at least 5 ml for pediatrics

what is the resolving power on a light microscope

0.2 um

Darkfield is used for what organism

Spirochetes

Auramine rhodamine detects what

Acid fast bacteria such as mycobacteria organ to yellow color under fluorescent microscope

Acridine orange detects what

T.vaginalis and and produces a red fluorescents

Calco fluor white stain is used for what

Uses KOH to give a white fluorescence and contain chitin structures used for fungi

what is the primary stain in the gram stain

Crystal violet and safranin is the counterstain

what is the primary stain in the kinyoun and zeihi nelson

carbol fuchsin and new methylene blue is the secondary stain

Aura,ome rhodamine counterstain

potassium permanganate

Most common infections of staph aureus

Furuncles( boils and carbuncles bullous impetigo ( blisters) paronychia ( nails) Toxic shock syndrome women food poisoning enterotoxin

exotoxins in Aureus

hemolysins, leukocidins, coagulase, and hyaluronidase

Aureus is resistant to penicillin due to

Plasmid mediated B lactamase

What is the drug of choice for MRSA

Vancomycin

are Staph aureus beta hemolytic

True

S.ludunensis is PYR ____ and Ornithine decarboxylase ____

Positive and Ornithine decarboxylase positives

catalase test

you drop one drop of H2O2 and catalase breaks down H2O2 into Water and O2

agglutination test detects

Coagulase( proteins factor and protein A

S.epidermidis causes ________

endocarditis, prothetic devices infections

S.Saprophyticus causes

UTI in young women

Lancefield grouping is based on

C carbohydrate

S. pyrogenous is _______ hemolytic

Beta

Pyrogenous Streptolysin ______ is stable in ______

S stable in O2 non antigenic

Pyrogenous Streptolysin O is ________

Oxygen liable. antigenic

Erythrogenic toxin in Pyrogenous

rash of scarlet fever

Pyrogenous is group what

A in Lancefield

Strep pyrogenous infections

Pharyngitis Impetigo erysipelas rheumatic fever

S. agalactia infections and group

Group B and UTI and neonatal sepsis and meningitis CAMP positive with S. aureus

Enterococcus is Bile esculin ______ and causes

Positive UTI, bacteremia

S.peumoniae is what hemolytic and causes what

Alpha Otitis media, conjuctivities, meningitis, lumbar pneumonia,

Streptococcus viridians causes

Subacute bacterial endocarditis

N. gonn requires what CO2 % and may take how long to grow

5-10% and 48Hrs

N.gonn ferments ________

glucose

N.gonn is penicilin and B lactamase __________

Sensitive

N meningitis ferments both

GLucose and maltose

N meningitis is transmitted by and diseases

Respiratory dorplets and seen in children under 3 causes waterhouse- frederichsen syndrome ( scattered petechiae) meningococcemia

Meningitis csf of glucose neutrophils and protein levels

Increased Neutrophils and proteins but decrease glucose

Moraxella catarrhalis is A____________

Asaccharolytic and is beta-lactamase + and DNase positive

Corynebacterium Diphtheriae are small ________

pleomorphic rods with clubbed ends

Corynebacterium diphtheria make a ___________

Chinese letter formation

Corynebacterium diphtheria produce ___________ granules

Metachromic ( stain red purple with methylene blue)

Corynebacterium diphtheria what media is used

Tinsdale and black colonies are produces with tellurite hydrolysis

Corynebacterium diphtheria Elek test

determines toxin production by the isolate in vitro

Loeffler stain enhances

Metachromic granules inside of Corynebacterium diphtheria

Bacteria vaginalis is negative for __________ and Positive for _________

negative for catalase and oxidase positive for hippurate and starch

Listeria monocytogenes are _______ colonies with a narrow zone of ___________

small colonies with a narrow zone of beta hemolysis

Listeria monocytogenes have ________ mobility

Tumbling

Listeria monocytogenes are bile esculin _________

Positive

Erysipelothrix Rhusiopathiae reactions and motility

Non motile and catalase negative H2S + in TSI