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BOC Review > Micro > Flashcards

Micro Flashcards

1
Q

CAPNOPHILES

A

prefer higher CO2

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2
Q

aerotolerant

A

Do not require O2 but are not poisoned by O2

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3
Q

what is complex media made out of

A

Peptones and extract

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4
Q

Gas packs

what is the reaction and products produced

what catalyzes the reaction

A

Contains sodium carbonate and sodium borohydride and you add water to produce H2 gas and CO2.

Palladium pellets

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5
Q
A
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6
Q

typical incubation requirements

CO2, Temperature and Humidity requirements

A

5-10% CO2
35-37 C
and 50-70% humidity

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7
Q

Moist autoclave requires what pressure, temperature, and weight

A

15Ib of pressure at 121C at 15 minutes

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8
Q

Dry heat requires what pressure, temperature, and weight

A

flame or incinerator at 170C for 2 hours

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9
Q

Pasteurization requires what pressure, temperature, and weight

A

Ultra high temperatures 140C for 3 seconds

Not sterilization

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10
Q

What is the size for pores in filtration

what is it used for

A

.22-.45u

Used for sugar solutions, urea media, and vaccines

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11
Q

Desiccation means that

A

Organisms remain viable but there is no multiplication

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12
Q

Radiation forms

A

Hydroxyl radials and damages DNA

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13
Q

Phenol disinfectant damages _________ and denatures _______

A

damages cytoplasmic membrane and denature proteins

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14
Q

Halogens disinfectant is a type of ______

A

Oxidizer

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15
Q

Alcohols denature _______ and dissolves __________

A

Proteins and dissolves lipids

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16
Q

B-lactams examples

what is their mode of action

A

Carbapenems
B lactamase( Augmentin)
Penicillin’s
Cephalosporins ( imipenem)
monobactams (aztreonam)

Inhibits cell wall synthesis

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17
Q

Glycopeptides

type and mode of action

A

Vancomycin

inhibits cell wall synthesis

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18
Q

Aminoglycosides

type and mode of action

A

Gentamicin
tobramycin
amikacin

Inhibits cell wall synthesis

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19
Q

Tetracyclines

types and mode of action

A

tetracycline and doxycycline

inhibits proteins synthesis

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20
Q

Lincosamdies

mode of action and types

A

inhibits protien synthesis and clindamycin

is used for both gram positive and gram negative

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21
Q

Chloramphenicol mode of action and types

A

Chloramphenicol and inhibits proteins synthesis

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22
Q

Macrolides mode of action and type

A

Erythromycin and inhibits proteins synthesis

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23
Q

Fluoroquinolones type and mode of action

A

ciprofloxacin and norfloxacin

inhibits nucleic acid synthesis

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24
Q

Rifampin mode of action and used against what

A

Inhibits nucleic acid synthesis and used for Meningitis and mycobacteria

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25
Q

Sulfa drugs such as methoxazole mode of action

A

analogue of PABA a which is a intermediate in folate synthesis

used for UTI, enteric infection and with trimethoprim

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26
Q

Streptogramins types inhibits ___________ and is used against ____________

A

Quinupristin and dalfoprinstin

inhibits protein synthesis and used for GP such as vancomycin resistant enterococcus faecium

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27
Q

Oxazolidinones types and inhibits what and used against what

A

Linzolid and inhibits protein synthesis and used for GP

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28
Q

what inhibits the 30S subunit

A

Aminoglycosides and tetracyclines

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29
Q

what are glycopeptides used against

A

Clostridium diff and MRSA

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30
Q

what inhibits the 50s subunit of bacteria

A

Macrolides and chloramphenicol

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31
Q

what can chloramphenicol cause

A

Aplastic anemia

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32
Q

Fluoroquinolones are used against what

A

Pseudomonas

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33
Q

Broad spectrum is

A

both gram + and gram -

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34
Q

selective toxicity

A

action against microbe only without hurting the host

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35
Q

synergetic

A

using two or more antibiotics against a host

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36
Q

what type of media is used for microbiology susceptibility test in Kirby Bauer method

Concentration
pH
Concentration of

A

Kirby Bauer

Mueller Hinton

depth= 4mm
pH 7.2-7.4
concentration of Mg and Calcium

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37
Q

MacFarland constant

A

0.5mm * 10^8

Represents 1.5* 10^ 8 bacteria

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38
Q

How often do you do QC in micro

A

Once a week

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39
Q

MBC ( minimum bactericidal concentration

A

lowest amount of drug required to kill 99.9% of Blake bacteria

subculture near the MIC to find the MBC

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40
Q

MIC ( minimum bactericidal concentration)

A

minimum amount required to stop bacteria growth in vitro

first tube with no visible growth

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41
Q

E-test

A

Is MIC on a stick and plastic strips are impregnated with antibiotics

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42
Q

Extended spectrum beta lactamase

what are they resistant too

examples

A

is where the bacteria is resistant to all third generation b lactams such as cephalosporin and penicillin and aztreonam

examples are klebsiella and E.coli

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43
Q

Nitrocefin disk test

reaction and detects what

A

Detects resistant to stains of bacteria such as haemophiles, gonorrhea’s, Moraxella, and catarrhalis and used for organisms that are resistant to penicillin and ampicillin and cephalosporins

nitrocefin( yellow)—> red color

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44
Q

D-test

A

used for clindamycin resistance and forms a D ring and uses a erythromycin disk + clindamycin disk together

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45
Q

MRSA detection

A

zone of greater then 10mm with oxacillin detects MRSA

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46
Q

Carbapenem resistant enterobacteriaceae organisms

A

Klebsiella and ecoil and enterobacter

use modified hodge test and chromogenic media

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47
Q

Gamma hemolytic reaction

A

no zone of hemolysis

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48
Q

alpha hemolytic reaction

A

green hemolysis

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49
Q

Beta hemolytic

A

Clear zone of hemolysis

50
Q

Chocolates agar

A

Neisseria and haemophiles

51
Q

Phenylethyl alcohol is used for

A

Gram positive cocci and anerobic gram negative bacilli

52
Q

CNA agar is used for

A

Gram positive cocci

53
Q

Thayer martin agar is used for

A

N gonorrhoeae N meningitis

54
Q

Thioglycolate broth is used for

A

Anaerobes

55
Q

Lowenstein Jensen, middlebrook, and petragnani media is used for

A

Mycobacterium

56
Q

BBE bile esculin agar is used for

A

B.fragilis

57
Q

Kanamycin vancomycin laked blood agar is used for

A

Bacteroides

58
Q

CCFA is used for

A

C.difficile

59
Q

CDC agar is used for

A

Anaerobes

60
Q

chopped meat agar is used for

A

Anaerobes

61
Q

BCYE is used for

A

Legionella

62
Q

TCBS is used for

A

Vibrio

63
Q

Cystine tellurite blood agar is used for

A

C.diphtheriae

64
Q

CIN is used for

A

Yersinia and Aeromonas

65
Q

Phenol red reaction

A

Red is negative and yellow is positive

66
Q

BBE esculin reaction

A

Black is positive

67
Q

Hippurate hydrolysis reaction

A

Purple is positive

68
Q

Phenylalanine positive reaction

A

Green surface after 10% Fecl3

69
Q

Urea positive reaction is

A

Pink

70
Q

what is the best time to draw

A

Just prior to temperature spike

71
Q

Need a 1:____ dilution of blood to broth on adults and at least ____ ml for pediatric

A

10

at least 5 ml for pediatrics

72
Q

what is the resolving power on a light microscope

A

0.2 um

73
Q

Darkfield is used for what organism

A

Spirochetes

74
Q

Auramine rhodamine detects what

A

Acid fast bacteria such as mycobacteria organ to yellow color under fluorescent microscope

75
Q

Acridine orange detects what

A

T.vaginalis and and produces a red fluorescents

76
Q

Calco fluor white stain is used for what

A

Uses KOH to give a white fluorescence and contain chitin structures used for fungi

77
Q

what is the primary stain in the gram stain

A

Crystal violet and safranin is the counterstain

78
Q

what is the primary stain in the kinyoun and zeihi nelson

A

carbol fuchsin and new methylene blue is the secondary stain

79
Q

Aura,ome rhodamine counterstain

A

potassium permanganate

80
Q

Most common infections of staph aureus

A

Furuncles( boils and carbuncles

bullous impetigo ( blisters)

paronychia ( nails)

Toxic shock syndrome women

food poisoning enterotoxin

81
Q

exotoxins in Aureus

A

hemolysins, leukocidins, coagulase, and hyaluronidase

82
Q

Aureus is resistant to penicillin due to

A

Plasmid mediated B lactamase

83
Q

What is the drug of choice for MRSA

A

Vancomycin

84
Q

are Staph aureus beta hemolytic

A

True

85
Q

S.ludunensis is PYR ____ and Ornithine decarboxylase ____

A

Positive and Ornithine decarboxylase positives

86
Q

catalase test

A

you drop one drop of H2O2 and catalase breaks down H2O2 into Water and O2

87
Q

agglutination test detects

A

Coagulase( proteins factor and protein A

88
Q

S.epidermidis causes ________

A

endocarditis, prothetic devices infections

89
Q

S.Saprophyticus causes

A

UTI in young women

90
Q

Lancefield grouping is based on

A

C carbohydrate

91
Q

S. pyrogenous is _______ hemolytic

A

Beta

92
Q

Pyrogenous

Streptolysin ______ is stable in ______

A

S

stable in O2 non antigenic

93
Q

Pyrogenous

Streptolysin O is ________

A

Oxygen liable. antigenic

94
Q

Erythrogenic toxin in Pyrogenous

A

rash of scarlet fever

95
Q

Pyrogenous is group what

A

A in Lancefield

96
Q
A
97
Q

Strep pyrogenous infections

A

Pharyngitis
Impetigo
erysipelas
rheumatic fever

98
Q

S. agalactia infections and group

A

Group B

and UTI and neonatal sepsis and meningitis

CAMP positive with S. aureus

99
Q

Enterococcus is Bile esculin ______

and causes

A

Positive

UTI, bacteremia

100
Q

S.peumoniae is what hemolytic and causes what

A

Alpha

Otitis media, conjuctivities, meningitis, lumbar pneumonia,

101
Q

Streptococcus viridians causes

A

Subacute bacterial endocarditis

102
Q

N. gonn requires what CO2 % and may take how long to grow

A

5-10% and 48Hrs

103
Q

N.gonn ferments ________

A

glucose

104
Q

N.gonn is penicilin and B lactamase __________

A

Sensitive

105
Q

N meningitis ferments both

A

GLucose and maltose

106
Q

N meningitis is transmitted by and diseases

A

Respiratory dorplets and seen in children under 3

causes waterhouse- frederichsen syndrome ( scattered petechiae) meningococcemia

107
Q

Meningitis csf of glucose neutrophils and protein levels

A

Increased Neutrophils and proteins but decrease glucose

108
Q

Moraxella catarrhalis is A____________

A

Asaccharolytic and is beta-lactamase + and DNase positive

109
Q

Corynebacterium Diphtheriae are small ________

A

pleomorphic rods with clubbed ends

110
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheria make a ___________

A

Chinese letter formation

111
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheria produce ___________ granules

A

Metachromic ( stain red purple with methylene blue)

112
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheria

what media is used

A

Tinsdale and black colonies are produces with tellurite hydrolysis

113
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheria

Elek test

A

determines toxin production by the isolate in vitro

114
Q

Loeffler stain enhances

A

Metachromic granules inside of Corynebacterium diphtheria

115
Q

Bacteria vaginalis is negative for __________ and Positive for _________

A

negative for catalase and oxidase

positive for hippurate and starch

116
Q

Listeria monocytogenes are _______ colonies with a narrow zone of ___________

A

small colonies with a narrow zone of beta hemolysis

117
Q

Listeria monocytogenes have ________ mobility

A

Tumbling

118
Q

Listeria monocytogenes are bile esculin _________

A

Positive

119
Q

Erysipelothrix Rhusiopathiae reactions and motility

A

Non motile and catalase negative

H2S + in TSI

120
Q
A

BOC Review (3 decks)

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