Micro Flashcards

1
Q

staining for cryptococcus neoformans

A

india ink

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2
Q

staining for pneumocystitis

A

silver staining or periodic acid-schiff stain

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3
Q

staining for candida

A

periodic acid-Schiff or methenamine silver stain

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4
Q

staining for aspergillus

A

methenamine silver stain or PAS

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5
Q

antigenic test for cryptococcus

A

glucoronoxylomannan (GXM)

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6
Q

antigen test for aspergillus

A

galactomannan

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7
Q

antigen test for candida, PCP and aspergillus

A

Beta D Glucan

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8
Q

antibiotic for bacterial vaginosis

A

metronidazole

stat or weekly

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9
Q

What organism is responsible for the sexually transmitted infection Chancroid, which causes multiple painful ulcers.

A

haemophilus ducreyi

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10
Q

what chemical reaction test can be diagnostic for the presence of tinea or trycophyton

A

potassium hydroxide

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11
Q

what infection is fungal serology used for

A

histoplasmosis

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12
Q

Pneumonia in plumbers

A

legionella pneumophilia

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13
Q

abx for legionella

A

doxycycline, macrolides or fluroquinolones

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14
Q

how is pityriasis vesicolour diagnosed

A

Wood’s lamp

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15
Q

food poisoning within couple hours is most likely be caused by?

A

staphylococcus aureus

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16
Q

During which trimester of pregnancy is the risk of HSV transmission to a neonate greatest?

A

3rd Trimester

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17
Q

The presence of clue cells on microscopy of vaginal discharge suggests what diagnosis?

A

bacterial vaginosis

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18
Q

What is the name of the neurological sign of a pupil that accommodates, but does not react to light?

A

Argyll Robertson pupil

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19
Q

key feature of leptospirosis

A

subconjuctival haemorrhages

abnormal U&Es
farmers

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20
Q

What gram positive organism is associated with tumbling motility and rockets?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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21
Q

What diagnostic test is used to diagnose chlamydia infection?

A

Nucleic Acid Amplification tests

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22
Q

What antiviral drug is typically given prophylactically to patients undergoing allogenic stem cell transplantation to protect against CMV infection?

A

gancyclovir

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23
Q

what is the treatment of syphilis

A

IM benzylpencillin

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24
Q

what reaction can develop hours after treating syphilis

A

Jarisch Herxheimer reaction

fever, headache and muscle aches

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25
Q

What is the first line antibiotic for the treatment of sinusitis in a systemically well patient with no known allergies, assuming there has been no improvement of symptoms for at least 10 days?

A

phenoxymethypenicillin

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26
Q

offensive smelling, yellow-green discharge

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

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27
Q

treatment of trichomonas vaginalis

A

metronidazole

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28
Q

what blood test should be done prior to starting a systemic anti fungal such as terbinafine

A

LFTs

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29
Q

which organs are affected by visceral leishmaniasis

A

liver, spleen and bone marrow.

diagnosed with splenic or bone marrow aspirate

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30
Q

An adult with molloscum contagiosum must have which infection ruled out?

A

HIV

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31
Q

What is the most common organism that causes an aseptic meningitis?

A

enterovirus

Other viruses such as herpes simplex, varicella-zoster, mumps, and HIV can also cause it.

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32
Q

what is aseptic meningitis?

A

Aseptic meningitis is inflammation of the membranes around the brain and spinal cord without any bacterial or fungal infection.

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33
Q

What is the bacteria responsible for Scarlet Fever?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Strep)

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34
Q

antiviral given to child with co-morbidities with Respiratory Syncytial virus

A

ribavirin

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35
Q

which pneumonia has a halo sign on chest x ray

A

aspergillus fumigatus

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36
Q

treatment for aspergillus fumigatus

A

voriconazole

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37
Q

treatment for cryptococcus neoformans

A

amphotericin B

38
Q

fungi involved in pityriasis vesicolour

A

malassezia furfur

39
Q

Lady came back from visiting her sister in Arizona with systemic sx

responsible fungus?

A

coccidioides

40
Q

Man in his 60s with poorly controlled diabetes presents with rapidly progressing periorbital swelling, sinus pain and confusion

A

rhizopus spp causing mucromycosis

41
Q

A soldier returning from Afghanistan has a small ulcer on right ring finger that won’t heal and keeps getting bigger

A

Leishmaniasis

42
Q

Snail trail oral ulcer in a homosexual man

A

treponema pallidum

43
Q

Virus that may cause Hydrops fetalis if caught in first 20wks of pregnancy

A

parvovirus

44
Q

Virus that require C-section if mother has an outbreak at 34wks or later due to risk of transmission vaginally

A

herpes simplex virus

45
Q

Virus which if transmitted to baby: they can initially be symptomless but then come down with long term sequelae

A

cytomegalovirus

46
Q

undercooked poultry at the barbecue causing bloody diarrhoea

A

campylobacter jejuni

47
Q

associate with Guillaine Barre Syndrome

A

campylobacter jejuni

48
Q

Beta lactam with anti-pseudomonal activity

A

ceftazidime

49
Q

Broad spec, no pseudomonal activity usually given with a beta lactamase inhibitor

A

amoxicillin

50
Q

A DNA synthesis inhibitor used to treat Pseudomonal infections but poor against anaerobes

A

ciprofloxacin

51
Q

which STI causes a painless ulcer and which one is painful

A

painless: treponema pallidum (syphilis)
painful: HSV

52
Q

what causes genital warts, what causes genital ulcers

A

warts: HPV 6 and 1

ulcers: HSV 2

53
Q

which STI can be identified on wet prep microscopy

A

trichomonas vaginalis

54
Q

19 year old rugby player with boils, members of his team have similar boils, as do members of his family

A

staphylococcus aureus

55
Q

Neonate has meningitis, Gram positive organism in chains

A

Group B strep

56
Q

vaccine preventable disease: Virus that resides in pharynx and GIT - 1:100 encephalitis, 1:1000 destruction of motor neurons

A

poliovirus

57
Q

vaccine preventable disease that develops a grey film over the back of the throat

A

diphtheria

58
Q

vaccine preventable disease that causes a maculopapular rash moves from face that can cause encephalitis and pneumonitis

A

measles

59
Q

vaccine preventable disease that causes lockjaw

A

tetanus

60
Q

bacteria that causes cat scratch disease

A

Bartonella henselae

61
Q

what is the definite of herd immunity threshold

A

The proportion of immune healthy people needed within a population to stop a pathogen’s spread:

1- (1/R0)%

62
Q

what is the lifetime risk of immunocompetent getting active TB?

A

10%

63
Q

Receptor/ cytokine mutation that could be protective in HIV

A

CCR5/MIP-1a

64
Q

what drug is used to treat severe malaria is artesunate is not available

A

IV quinine

65
Q

what does the Paul Bunnell test look for

A

presence of antibodies to EBV

66
Q

Which vaccine-preventable organism causes cough, lymph node enlargement and has a potential to occlude the airway?

A

corynebacterium diphtheriae

67
Q

Boy visits grandparents in Wiltshire, comes back with 5 days of diarrhoea, no vomiting, and unexplained bruises all over body, which organism has most likely triggered this

A

E.coli 0157:H7

68
Q

Natural antibodies against what can confer protective immunity against HIV?

A

HIV gp120

69
Q

most common cause of cellulitis

A

streptococcus pyogenes (group A)

70
Q

which enzyme involved in HIV DNA formation is error prone

A

reverse transcriptase

71
Q

Which vector transmits Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense?

A

tsetse fly

72
Q

Which of these is the most likely causative organism of a hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

73
Q

what is the most common cause of fever in the returning traveller?

A

malaria

74
Q

antigen test for asperigillus

A

galactomannan

75
Q

most likely organism in prosthetic joint infection

A

CoNS

76
Q

Which viral infection has the feature of owl eye inclusions

A

CMV

77
Q

Difference in presentation between dengue and typhoid

A

Dengue: high fever sudden onset; maculopapular rash; haemorrhagic manifestations; severe abdominal pain; low platelets; intense joint and muscle pain

Typhoid: gradual onset high fever; constipation; rose spots; systemically unwell

78
Q

Which fungal infection requires systemic anti fungal

A

Tinea unguium

79
Q

Which prion disease can be diagnosed with a tonsillar biopsy

A

Variant CJD

80
Q

how is Q fever diagnosed

A

serology

81
Q

treatment of Q fever

A

cipro or doxy

82
Q

what can Q fever progress to

A

atypical pneumonia
ARDS
endocarditis

83
Q

cause of endocarditis in IVDU

A

staph aureus

84
Q

cause of endocarditis in someone with poor oral hygiene

A

streptococcus viridians

85
Q

cause of endocarditis in someone with a prosthetic heart valve

A

CoNS i.e. epidermidis

86
Q

most common cause of otitis media in children

A

strep pneumoniae

other: haemophilus influenzae; mortadella catarrhalis

87
Q

how is listeriosis diagnosed

A

culture

88
Q

bacterial infection associated with COPD

A

haemophilus influenza

89
Q

bacterial infection associated with alcoholics

A

klebsiella

90
Q

bacterial infection (pneumonia) associated with the elderly

A

klebsiella