MFM Flashcards

1
Q

Marfan’s syndrome:
a) maternal risks
b) fetal risks

A

a) cervical insufficiency, aortic rupture, uterine rupture,
operative delivery, PPH, death
b) inheritance (AD), PTB, IUGR, IUFD

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2
Q

key features of herpes gestationis (aka pemphigoid)?

A
  • presents in T2/T3
  • papules/vesicles everywhere
  • C3 +/- IgG deposition in BM
  • 50-75% risk of recurrence

fetal risks: SGA, PTB, IUFD (30%), transient neonatal rash (5%)

Tx:
- increased FHS
- prednisone +/- IVIG
- delivery by 37wks

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3
Q

Causes of increased AFP on MSS? (7)

A

1) wrong dates
2) oNTD
3) abdo wall defect
4) twins
5) cystic hygroma
6) IUFD
7) non-OB (e.g. ovarian pathology)

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4
Q

Cardiac conditions where pregnancy is contraindicated? (10)

A

1) pulmonary arterial HTN
2) NYHA 3/4 or EF < 30%
3) severe (re)coarctation
4) severe aortic root dilation
a) Marfan’s: AR > 4.5cm
b) bicuspid AV or TOF: AR > 5cm
c) Turner’s ASI > 25mm/m2
5) Eisemenger’s syndrome
6) previous peripartum CM + current EF < 45%
7) vascular EDS
8) severe MS
9) severe symptomatic AS
10) Fontan circulation, with any complication

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5
Q

Derm conditions in pregnancy associated with increased fetal risks? (3)

A

1) pemphigoid (herpes gestationis)
2) pustular psoriasis (impetigo herpetiformis)
3) pruritis gravidarum (cholestasis)

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6
Q

Abnormal value for uterine artery Doppler?

A

PI > 2.5 (bilateral)

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7
Q

Indications for PPx for infectious endocarditis? (3)

A

1) prosthetic valve or material to repair valve
2) previous infectious endocarditis
3) structural valve regurgitation with prosthetic material, in the setting of …
- unrepaired/residual shunt
- cyanotic heart disease
- cardiac transplant

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8
Q

Risk factors for striae in pregnancy?

A
  • increased gestational weight gain
  • increased BMI
  • LGA
  • multiples
  • young maternal age
  • non-white ethnicity
  • FHx
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9
Q

US findings of oNTD? (5)

A

1) lemon head sign
2) banana cerebellum
3) ventriculomegaly
4) open defect along spine
5) talipes

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10
Q

When to deliver SGA + IUGR?

A

IUGR with abnormal Dopplers:
- absent/reversed DV a-wave: 26-30wks
- UA REDF: 30-32wks
- UA AEDF: 32-34wks
- at any GA, if maternal indication for delivery (e.g. abnormal NST, abruption, HELLP)

IUGR with normal Dopplers:
- by 37wks
- vs at 37wks for “uncomplicated”

SGA: 37-39wks

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11
Q

Hyperthyroidism:
a) maternal risks
b) fetal risks

A

a) maternal tachycardia, palpitations, sweating, heat intolerance, PET, CHF, thyroid storm, PP flare
b) hypothyroidism, goiter, fetal tachycardia, PTB, hydrops, IUFD

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12
Q

Triad of findings for congenital rubella syndrome?

A
  • sensorineural hearing loss
  • ocular defects
  • cardiac defects
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13
Q

Finding most associated with BPP score of 2?

A

persistent pulmonary HTN

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14
Q

Key features + fetal risks of pustular psoriasis in pregnancy (impetigo herpetiformis)?

A

features:
- pustules on erythematous plaques
- flexural surfaces
- onset in T3

fetal risks:
- PTB
- IUGR
- IUFD

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15
Q

facial features of FASD?

A
  • epicanthal folds
  • short palpebral fissures
  • small eyes
  • smooth philtrum
  • thin upper lip
  • absent maxilla
  • small head
  • CNS abnormalities
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16
Q

abnormal value for MCA Doppler for fetal anemia?

A

> 1.5 MoM

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17
Q

which acne Tx options are NOT safe in pregnancy?

A
  • retinoids
  • tetracyclines
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18
Q

which Tx options for psoriasis are SAFE in pregnancy?

A
  • steroids: topical or PO
  • UV light therapy
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19
Q

rash on extensor surfaces?

A

psoriasis

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20
Q

rash on flexor surfaces?

A

eczema

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21
Q

signs of MgSO4 toxicity?

A
  • decreased/absent reflexes
  • hypotension
  • low RR (<12/min)
  • low O2 sats (<94%)
  • low urine output (< 30cc/hr)
  • bradycardia
  • cardiac arrhythmias
  • muscle weakness
  • excessive drowsiness

antidote = calcium gluconate 10%, 10cc IV over 3 min

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22
Q

melasma in pregnancy:
a) incidence
b) Tx

A

a) 70%
b) avoid sun, use sunscreen, PP retinoic acid, consider laser if persistent (70% resolve PP)

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23
Q

normal derm changes in pregnancy?

A
  • increased pigmentation: linea nigra, new nevi
  • telangiectasias
  • brittle nails
  • nail bed coming off
  • transverse grooves in nails
  • PP hair loss
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24
Q

parvo B19 in pregnancy:
a) when does MOST hydrops occur following infection?
b) what GA would parvo infection be the worst?

A

a) 2-4 weeks
b) 13-16wks GA

25
which thyroid molecule is LEAST likely to cross the placenta?
TSH
26
LEAST teratogenic anticonvulsants? (2)
- lamotrigine - levateracetam
27
LRs for T21: a) absent NB b) increased NF
a) 6.6 if isolated, 23.3 in combination b) 3.8 in isolation, 23.3 in combination
28
enzyme deficiency in Tay-Sachs?
hexosaminidase
29
when can you conceive following Zika infection?
3 months after last exposure or sxs
30
RFs for oNTD: a) moderate risk b) high risk
a) moderate risk for NTDs: - personal or FHx of FA-sensitive anomalies: NTDs, cardiac anoms, GU tract anoms, limb reduction defects, oral or facial clefting - FHx of NTDs in first or second degree relatives - DM: type 1 or 2 - use of teratogenic meds: antiepileptics, cholestyramine - GI malabsorption conditions: IBD, celiac, prev gastric bypass Sx b) high risk for NTDs: if the pregnant pt or partner have ... - personal Hx of NTD - previous preg affected by NTD
31
what are the benefits of IOL at 39-40wks for BMI > 30?
- decreased LGA - decreased c-section - decreased neonatal morbidity - decreased neonatal mortality
32
how long to wait to conceive after bariatric Sx?
24 months
33
which fetal trisomy is associated with choriod plexus cysts?
T18
34
which findings are associated with DECREASED risk of aneuploidy for fetal omphalocele? (2)
- liver herniation - giant omphalocele up to 40% of omphaloceles are associated with aneuploidy
35
mode of delivery for fetal omphalocele?
- vaginal delivery OK for smaller omphalocele - c-section may be needed for abnormal FHR in labor - c-section for large (>5cm) defect, especially if containing liver
36
most likely cardiac defect with Eisenmenger syndrome?
VSD
37
AS is a ____ dependent lesion: preload or afterload?
preload. avoid PPH + hypotension!
38
fetal mortality rate in Canada?
4.5 per 1000 total births
39
what is the ONLY type of antenatal fetal surveillance with level 1 evidence?
umbilical artery Doppler
40
when are pregnant pts with T1DM at increased risk of hypoglycemia?
T1 and PP
41
autonomic dysreflexia: a) who b) presentation c) triggers d) prevention
a) spinal cord injury at/above T6 b) HTN, pounding headache, vision changes, flushing, sweating, piloerection above level of injury + cold/pale skin below c) ctx, PVEs, urinary retention, catheterization, blocked Foley, DRE, surgery d) topical anesthetics for PVE + catheterization, early epidural
42
which cardiac defects are NOT preload dependent?
AR MR MS
43
investigations for hydrops fetalis? (10)
- type + screen - CBC - kleihauer - karyotype or microarray - TSH - TORCH (including parvo B19) - PET BW (Mirror syndrome) - fetal anatomy scan - fetal Dopplers - fetal echocardiogram +/- anti Ro/La, Hb electrophoresis, G6PD screen
44
Dx criteria for peripartum cardiomyopathy? (4)
- occurring within last 1 month of pregnancy to 5 months PP - LV dysfunction: EF < 45% - no Hx cardiac disease prior to onset - rule out other causes
45
maternal CAH: a) enzyme responsible b) inheritance c) prevention of virilization in female fetus
a) 21-hydroxylase deficiency b) AR c) dexamethasone 20mcg/kg/day until you confirm either male fetus, or unaffected female fetus
46
stress dosing for steroids?
hydrocortisone 100mg IV q8hrs
47
malignancies that can metastasize to the placenta? (3)
- melanoma - leukemia - lymphoma
48
gestational age for physiologic gut herniation in fetus?
9wks to 11+6
49
why should blood glucose be kept at 4-7 mmol/L during labor?
decreases risk of neonatal hypoglycemia
50
pre-existing DM: a) target Hb A1C for preconception counselling b) benefits of pre-conception DM optimization c) anomalies associated with hyperglycemia
a) 6.5%, if safe to do so (< 7.0% associated with decreased progression to retinopathy) b) decreased risk of - congenital anomalies - SAB - PET - progression of retinopathy c) anomalies a/w hyperglycemia - VSD: MC anomaly - caudal regression (aka NTD from waist-down): this is pathognomonic - sirenomelia
51
associations with single umbilical artery? (5)
- renal anomalies (#1) - IUGR - congenital heart defects - spinal defects - chromosome abnormalities (1%) NOT associated with clefting
52
management of pheochromocytoma in pregnancy?
- alpha blockers FIRST, then beta blockers - alpha blocker = phenoxybenzamine - if Dx < 24wks consider Sx - if Dx > 24wks: medical Tx, delivery by c-section
53
ventriculomegaly is associated with which aneuploidy?
T21
54
which enzyme protects the fetus from maternal increases in cortisol?
placental 11-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenas
55
maternal complications of Cushings in pregnancy? (7)
- HDPs - GDM - CHF - maternal mortality - pulmonary edema - sepsis - GI bleeding
56
which conditions in pregnancy are associated with aplastic anemia?
parvo B19 sickle cell
57
definition of growth discordance in twins?
- EFW (bigger twin / smaller twin) of > 20% - difference of > 20mm in AC
58
RhoGam: ___ mcg covers ____ mL of fetal RBCs + ___ mL of fetal blood
300 mcg 15 mL 30 mL
59