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PS3035 Cog Neuro > Methods > Flashcards

Methods Flashcards

1
Q

Briefly describe the computational level of analysis.

A

Abstract problem analysis (identification) and decomposing a task into its main constitutes.

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2
Q

Briefly describe the algorithmic level of analysis.

A

Specifying the formal procedure to perform a task and providing the correct output for given input.

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3
Q

Briefly describe the physical implementation level of analysis.

A

Description of how the code or algorithm is physically implemented.

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4
Q

What concept suggests “wholes are nothing but their parts?”

A

Determinism/scientific reductionists.

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5
Q

What concept suggests “wholes are more than the sum of their parts?”

A

Emergence.

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6
Q

Define emergent property.

A

A purely physical system composed of different bits of matter that, at a certain level of complexity, display novel properties.

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7
Q

Define multiple realisability.

A

Functional system properties can be represented by indefinitely different physical structures.

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8
Q

Define functionalist theory of mind.

A

What makes something a mental state of a particular type, is not essentially its intrinsic material constitution, but the way it functions in the system to which it belongs.

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9
Q

Give 3 types of lesions.

A

Physical, pharmalogical and reversible (magnetic stimulation).

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10
Q

Give 3 disadvantages of lesions.

A

Don’t know how specific/precise they are, hard to interpret and lack recovery processes.

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11
Q

Give the 4 stages of transcranial magnetic stimulation.

A

A coil is placed near the patients head, a very brief and large pulse of current is run thorough, a strong transient magnetic field is induced, and a current in nearby conductors is induced.

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12
Q

Describe activation in TMS.

A

Response if peripheral muscles after stimulation.

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13
Q

Describe inhibition in TMS.

A

Disruption of normal activity in localised brain regions.

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14
Q

Give 4 advantages of TMS.

A

Can use healthy participants, relatively inexpensive, controlled stimulation of a specific brain area and excellent temporal information.

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15
Q

Give 7 disadvantages of TMS.

A

Noisy, low spatial resolution, small epileptic seizure risk, effects of mood, local pain and headache, burns from scalp electrode and uncertainly over long term effects.

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16
Q

Describe a cathodal stimulation in tDCS.

A

Hyperpolarisation of neuronal membranes causing a decrease in firing rate and excitability.

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17
Q

Describe an anodal stimulation in tDCS.

A

Depolarisation of neuronal membranes causing an increase in firing rate and excitability.

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18
Q

Give 3 advantages of tDCS.

A

Inexpensive, uses healthy participants and demonstrates controlled neuromodulation.

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19
Q

Give 5 disadvantages of tDCS.

A

Low spatial resolution, can’t be used in participants with epileptic risk, with metal brain implants, or on certain medication, local itching, possible mild headaches and poorly established long term effects.

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20
Q

What are the conditions for relatively safe tDCS?

A

Stimulation intensified below 2mA and durations below 20 minutes.

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21
Q

Give 4 radioactively-labelled isotopes commonly used in PET?

A

Oxygen, fluorine, carbon and nitrogen.

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22
Q

Describe the 3 stages of PET, once the isotope is injected/inhaled.

A

Radioactive isotopes emit positrons, positions collide with electrons and emit 2 photons in opposite directions and detectors surrounding the brain register simultaneous photons and compute the likely source.

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23
Q

Give 3 advantages of PET.

A

It can be used to measure both metabolism and blood flow, in humans in conjunction with behavioural studies and in conjunction with psychopharmacological studies.

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24
Q

Give 4 disadvantages of PET.

A

Expensive, poor temporal resolution, moderate spatial resolution and used invasive procedures with radioactive material.

25
Q

In fMRI, what happens when protons reverse into the antiparallel phase?

A

A decrease in net longitudinal magnetisation.

26
Q

In fMRI, what happens when protons get in sync and start to process?

A

Transversal magnetisation appears.

27
Q

How does oxyhemoglobin assist in detecting increased neural activity during fMRI?

A

The oxygen content in venous blood increases too.

28
Q

What 2 things does Logethesis find out about BOLD signal?

A

It correlates with LFP measures and is proportional to the aggregate neuronal firing rate.

29
Q

Which method of fMRI looks at 2 behavioural conditions and overlays the images?

A

Subtraction.

30
Q

Which method of fMRI looks at a specific brain area over a time period?

A

Region of Interest Analysis.

31
Q

Give 3 advantages of fMRI.

A

Safe (and so repeatable), high spatial resolution and moderate temporal resolution.

32
Q

Give 6 disadvantages of fMRI.

A

Expensive, cannot be used in participants with metallic devices, movement is restricted, difficult for claustrophobic participants, acoustic noise and radio-frequency oscillating fields can generate internal body heat.

33
Q

Describe the key flaw in Donder’s subtraction method.

A

Switching from one procedure to another may not just insert/delete processing stages, it may hanged the quality of associated stages shared across different tasks.

34
Q

What do event-related brain potentials represent?

A

Net electrical fields associated with the activity of sizeable populations of neurons.

35
Q

Give the name for neurons that are perpendicular to the skull, usually involved in EEG.

A

Radially oriented.

36
Q

Give the 4 reference points in the standardised EEG elective system.

A

Inion, nasion, left preauricular point and rifht preauricular point.

37
Q

What are the 3 assumptions of signal averaging?

A

That the evoked signal is a time-locked event, that background noise varies randomly, and that repetition of an event elicits the same behavioural/brain response.

38
Q

What causes some neural activity not to be apparent at the scalp (affecting EEGs)?

A

Some is insufficiently synchronous and some do not have open-field arrangements.

39
Q

Give 3 advantages of EEG/ERP.

A

Excellent temporal resolution, cheap, and non-invasive.

40
Q

Give and explain a disadvantage of EEG/ERP.

A

Poor spatial resolution due to the distance been sources and electrodes and the poor conductivity of some tissues.

41
Q

What does the dipole model do to help with the inverse problem in EEG?

A

Allows description of the electrical activity in a specific brain region.

42
Q

What does the head model do to help with the inverse problem in EEG?

A

Allows the calculation of the proposition is the electrical fields through the brain.

43
Q

What does the statistical procedure do to help with the inverse problem in EEG?

A

Allows calculation of the the best fit of source parameters relating to a measured potential distribution.

44
Q

Describe the N170 component.

A

Sensitive faces, and activates most to eyes when a face is partly masked.

45
Q

Describe the N400 component.

A

Sensitive to the effort of semantic integration, and activated most when something does not make sense semantically.

46
Q

What are the 2 main findings of the Libet experiment?

A

Readiness potential occurs before conscious intention to act and free will is the ability to delete and correct errors, rather than initiate processes.

47
Q

Give 4 principles of magneto-encephalography.

A

Non-invasive, direct, requires open-field configurations and measures mostly tangentially oriented neurons.

48
Q

Give the name for neurons that are parallel to the skull, usually involved in MEG.

A

Tangentially orientated.

49
Q

Briefly describe how MEG captures signal.

A

An axial gradiometer measures a signal between 2 coils o the cortex.

50
Q

Give 3 advantages of MEG.

A

High temporal resolution, raiser to set up than EEG and magnetic fields are not differentially attenuated by different brain tissues, making it easier to estimate the location of underlying brain sources.

51
Q

Give 3 disadvantages of MEG.

A

Very expensive (helium cooling), highly susceptible to magnetic artifices and participant head movements are highly restricted.

52
Q

What are the 3 types of absorption in optical imaging?

A

Hear production, phosphorescence, and fluorescence.

53
Q

Describe phosphorescence in optical imaging.

A

Energy of the photon is released by the tissue, with a delay, in the form of a photon with similar or lower energy.

54
Q

Describe fluorescence in optical imaging.

A

Energy of the photon is released by the tissue in the form of a photon with lower energy.

55
Q

Describe absorption in optical imaging.

A

Energy of the photon is transferred to the tissue.

56
Q

Describe scattering in optical imaging.

A

Photon remains of the same energy and is merely deviated in its trajectory.

57
Q

What is a major contributor to NIRS caused by absorption changes?

A

Blood oxygenation level changes, as there are distinct absorption spectra for HbO2 and Hb.

58
Q

Give 4 advantages of optical imaging.

A

Inexpensive, safe, high temporal resolution and high spatial resolution.

59
Q

Give 3 disadvantages of optical imaging.

A

Relatively low signal-to-noise ratio (very noisy, very limited penetration of light into living tissue, and low transparency of white matter.

PS3035 Cog Neuro (4 decks)

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