Meteorology Flashcards

1
Q

What climate zone is the UK situated in?

A

Temperate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Characteristics of a temperate zone

A

Hot and warm summers, drier than other seasons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where does the atmosphere extend further into space?

A

Around the equator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Two reasons for atmosphere being more extended at equator than poles?

A

Earth’s rotation
Greater heating at equator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Thickness of atmosphere is proportional to

A

Temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In ISA, what atltitude is the tropopause at?

A

30,000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Aircraft fly mostly in what atmosphere subdivision?

A

Troposphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What lies between the Earth’s surface and the stratosphere?

A

Troposphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The trophosphere’s relation to temperature?

A

Proportional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Temperature in the stratosphere is..?

A

Constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Troposphere’s characteristics at the poles?

A

Colder and shallower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Approx. what temp is the stratosphere?

A

-57 degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What substance in the air is critical for life on earth?

A

Water Vapour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In ISA, temp decreases at what rate?

A

2 degrees celcius per 1000ft gained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name of lines on pressure maps connecting areas of similar pressure

A

Isobars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Variation of pressure with horizontal distance is called…

A

Pressure gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Impact on aircraft performance on humid damp days is due to

A

Higher proportion of water molecules in air reduces overall air density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Regular pressure variations owing to daily heating and cooling effects of the sun is called

A

Semi-diurnal variation of pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What kind of barometer is used in aircraft altimeters?

A

Aneroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Altimeter reading 0ft at sea level would read what altitude if the pressure drops 10hPa?

A

300ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Sun’s radiation strikes polar regions at what kind of angle?

A

Oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Transfer of heat energy from one body to another is called..

A

Diabatic process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When heat is neither added or removed from a system, it is called..

A

Adiabatic process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Expansion and compression of gases experience what kind of heat process?

A

Adiabatic process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Relationship between temperature and radiation wavelength

A

The higher the temperature of the body, the shorter the wavelength of the radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Convection describes

A

Process by which warm air rises into the atmosphere and carries its heat energy with it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why does warm air rise?

A

It is less dense than the surrounding air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Advection follows what other diabatic process?

A

Convection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Advection describes

A

Horizontal motion of air replacing air that has risen due to convection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What has a higher heat capacity? Water or land

A

Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Because water has a higher heat capacity than land, land does what?

A

Heat and cool more quickly than water bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

ELR stands for

A

Environmental Relapse Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What describes the process of temperature change from altitude increase in the real world?

A

ELR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the DALR?

A

Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

DALR equates to

A

3 degrees celcius reduction for each 1000ft climbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If water vapour condenses in a discrete parcel of air, what will happen?

A

The parcel of air will cool at a lower rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the SALR?

A

Saturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

SALR occurs when?

A

Parcel of air cools at a lower rate than DALR due to water vapour condensing and latent energy being released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Stable atmosphere occurs when…

A

ELR is less than SALR and DALR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Stable atmosphere means air has what tendency?

A

To return back to its origianl position if displaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Stable atmosphere’s typical weather

A

Clear skies, fog, stratus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Unstable atmosphere occurs when

A

ELR is greater than SALR and DALR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Unstable atmosphere means air has what tendency?

A

Rise if displaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Unstable atmosphere’s typical weather

A

Cumulus and cumulonimbus cloud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Conditional instability occurs when

A

ELR is less than DALR but greater than SALR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Conditional instability means

A

Dry, unsaturated air is stable. Moist, saturated air is unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

In what conditions do temperature inversions occur?

A

Low wind and clear nights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

At night, cooling air not mixing with higher altitude warmer air results in…

A

Temperature inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Approximately what degrees is the Earth tilted at from the vertical?

A

23 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Why does warm tropic air move towards higher latitudes?

A

The air cannot rise higher due to stratospheric isotherm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What generally happens to cool air over the poles?

A

It sinks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

General circulation consists of how many main cells?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the equatorial trough?

A

A band of low pressure at the earth’s surface in the tropics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the process by which surface air will move towards an area of low pressure?

A

Convergence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the process by which surface air will move outwards from an area of high pressure?

A

Divergence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What temp is absolute zero?

A

-273 degrees celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The transfer of heat by the horizontal motion of an air mass is called?

A

Advection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The transfer of heat by the vertical motion of an air mass is called?

A

Convection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is wind?

A

Horizontal flow of air across the Earth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Wind Velocity is the combination of what?

A

Wind direction and wind strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

A wind changing in a clockwise direction is doing what?

A

Veering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

A wind changing in an anti-clockwise direction is doing what?

A

Backing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Wind caused by rotation of the Earth is called

A

Coriolis force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Geostrophic wind results from what…

A

Balance between coriolis force and pressure gradient force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Increasing latitude does what to the relative motion of earth

A

Reduces the easterly motion of the earth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The Earth’s rotation has what effect on the relationship between the Earth and a parcel of air

A

It will lag behind the easterly motion of the parcel of air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Observer’s experience of the coriolis force

A

Wind is deflected to the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Coriolis effect increases with

A

Airflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Coriolis effect cannot occur without

A

Airflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Why is the Coriolis effect greater away from the equator?

A

Changes in latitude cause more significant changes in the difference of easterly movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

In the northern hemisphere, the Coriolis effect deflects the wind to the..

A

Right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Leftward deflection of wind by Coriolis effect occurs where?

A

Southern hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Geostrophic wind’s relationship to isobars

A

It flows parallel to the isobars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Best sentence to describe the formation of geostrophic wind

A

The pressure gradient force gets the air moving and the Coriolis effect turns it to the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Geostrophic wind parallel to isobars has the low pressure on what side?

A

Left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Buys Ballot’s Law is…

A

Standing with your back to the wind in the northern hemisphere, the low pressure will be on your left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Flying from high to low pressure (in Northern Hemisphere) is indicated by what?

A

Right starboard drift, as the wind is from the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Right starboard drift (in Northern Hemisphere) indicates what?

A

Flying from high to low pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Flying from low to high pressure (in Northern Hemisphere) is indicated by what?

A

Left drift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Left drift (In Northern Hemisphere) indicates what?

A

Flying from low to high pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

In the NH, wind flows in what direction round a high?

A

Clockwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

In the NH, wind flows in what direction round a low?

A

Anti-clockwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

In the NH, wind flowing clockwise indicates a what?

A

High pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

In the NH, wind flowing anti-clockwise indicates a what?

A

Low pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Wind blowing around a low experiences what process?

A

Pressure gradient force is greater than the Coriolis force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Wind blowing around a high experiences what process?

A

Coriolis force is greater than the pressure gradient force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Surface wind is usually measured at what height

A

30 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Why is wind usually less strong at the surface compared to higher levels?

A

Earth’s surface exerts friction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Friction causes surface wind to what?

A

Weaken in strength and back in direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

In general, the more unstable atmospheric stability is results in what effect to surface wind

A

It backs less and is more similar to the 2000ft wind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Why is windspeed greater around a high compared to an equally-spaced-isobar low?

A

Coriolis force increases with wind speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Diurnal can be thought of as another word for..?

A

Daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Roughly speaking, what altitude does the top of the boundary layer occur? (And frictional/thermodynamic effects become negligible)

A

2000 to 3000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What part of the day does mixing of wind layers reduce?

A

Night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What happens to wind at night?

A

Slacks and backs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Why does sea breeze occur on sunny days?

A

Land heats more quickly than the sea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Light winds + convection near water =

A

Sea breeze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Vertical extent of a sea breeze is usually what?

A

1000 to 2000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Why does sea breeze cause visibility problems?

A

It may bring cool, moist air over land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

When does sea breeze occur?

A

Day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

When does land breeze occur?

A

Night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Basics of a land breeze?

A

Land cools quicker than the sea, cooler land air replaces rising warm sea air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What kind of heat transfer causes air to cool during clear, cloudless nights?

A

Conduction (due to ground becoming cool because of terrestrial radiation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

In what land type does katabatic wind occur?

A

Mountainous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What causes katabatic wind?

A

At night, cool air flows down mountain slopes creating wind blowing into valleys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What two kinds of wind occur exclusively in mountains/hills?

A

Katabatic and Anabatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What causes anabatic wind?

A

Warm air rises up a mountain slope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Why is anabatic wind weaker than katabatic wind?

A

Air flowing upwards is opposed by gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Cumulonimbus clouds’s up/downdraughts can extend how far into clear air around them?

A

20nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

High pressure systems do what to temp inversions?

A

Detach them from the surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What cloud formation occurs in the lower lee side of a mountain during mountain wave?

A

Rotor cloud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

In the tropics, pressure gradients are usually…

A

Weak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Why is the Coriolis force very weak in the tropics?

A

The distance of isobars from the earth’s axis remains constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What wind system dominates in the tropics?

A

Pressure gradient force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are used instead of isobars in the tropic systems?

A

Streamlines and isotachs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What do streamlines indicate?

A

Wind direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What do isotachs indicate?

A

Areas of equal wind strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Outdraughts in a tropic area come from where?

A

High pressure areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Indraughts in a tropic area come from where?

A

Low pressure areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What do vertical gusts do to an aircraft’s performance?

A

Increase its angle of atttack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

During turbulence, why is it good practice to hold the attitude, not the altitude?

A

Avoid using the elevator excessively to not over-stress the airframe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Mountain wave occurs during what system?

A

High pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

ATC wind reports are relative to..?

A

Magentic north at the airfield

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Metereological reports on wind direction use what relative indication?

A

True North

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

A parcel of air moving in line with the pressure gradient force will experience Coriolis acting at what angle to its motion?

A

Perpendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Wind that flows around curved isobars is called the..?

A

Gradient wind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

In the northern hemisphere, the mean surface wind direction compared to the gradient wind direction will…

A

Back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

In what pressure system is vertical motion more upward?

A

Low pressure because the atmosphere is unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Lenticular cloud is a good indication of..?

A

Mountain wave and severe turbulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What are the four forms of cloud?

A

Cirriform
Cumuliform
Stratiform
Nimbus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

High-level cloud has what minimum base?

A

20,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Why does high-level cloud look fine and spideery?

A

Usually formed in coldest region of troposphere asice crystals rather than water particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Description of cirriform

A

Fibrous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Description of cumuliform

A

Heaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Description of stratiform

A

Layered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Description of nimbus

A

Rain-bearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Clouds: cirru/cirro denotes what kind of cloud?

A

High-level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Stratus means what?

A

Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Cirrus means what?

A

High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Middle-level cloud occurs in what altitude range?

A

6,500ft to 20,000ft AMSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is virga?

A

Rain that does not reach the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Virga occurs in what kind of air?

A

Dry or warm air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Why does virga not reach the ground?

A

It evaporates or sublimes first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Alto- denotes what?

A

Middle-level cloud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Clouds: fractus denotes what?

A

Stratus or cumulus shreds below nimbo/alto-stratus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Clouds: castellanus is what?

A

Cumuliform clouds that are turret-shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Castellanus indicates what?

A

Unstable atmosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

When water changes state, its transferred heat energy is known as..

A

Latent Heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What does humidity measure?

A

The amount of water vapour present in the air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

A saturated parcel of air means it has __% humidity?

A

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Relative Humidity Equation

A

RH = Vapour Pressure/Saturation Vapour Pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What factor determines how much water a particular parcel of air can support, regarding humidity?

A

Air temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Air temperature is proportional to how much water that air can support?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Relation between air temperature and saturation

A

The higher the air temperature, the more water it can support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

How much water a parcel of air can support is formally known as?

A

Saturation Vapour Pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What is the Humidity Mixing Ratio?

A

Ratio of the mass of watter vapour in a parcel of air to the mass of dry air in the same parcel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What happens to the relative humidity of a rising unsaturated parcel of air?

A

It increases because temperature decreases and cooler air cannot hold as much water vapour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Why does rising unsaturated air increase in relative humidity?

A

Cooler air cannot hold as much water vapour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What remains constant in a rising parcel of unsaturated air?

A

Humidity Mixing Ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What is the dewpoint?

A

Temperature at which a parcel of air becomes saturated if it cools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What happens to a dewpoint related to moisture?

A

The moisture in the air, the higher its dewpoint temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What happens if a parcel of air is cooler than its dewpoint?

A

Excess wateer vapour will condense as water droplets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Two adiabatic ways in which cloud is formed

A

Mass uplift
Convection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Two diabatic ways in which cloud is formed

A

Advection
Radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is the DALR?

A

3 degrees per 1000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Why is cooling not as great for saturated air as it continues to rise?

A

Latent heat is released due to condensation, so cooling is not as great

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What is the SALR?

A

Saturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

SALR’s relation to DALR?

A

Approximately half

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Approximately, what rate is SALR?

A

1.5 degrees per 1000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What primary factor determines the type of cloud formed?

A

Stability of the atmosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What are the three kinds of atmopsheric stability when it comes to ELR/DALR/SALR and cloud formation?

A

Unstable, neutral and stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

ELR stuff: when does unstable air occur?

A

ELR is greater than DALR or SALR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

ELR stuff: when does stable air occur?

A

ELR is less than DALR or SALR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

ELR stuff: when does neutral air occur?

A

ELR is equal to DALR or SALR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

In unstable air, clouds and air do what?

A

Continue to move verticaally after displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What clouds are typically formed in unstable air?

A

Cumuliform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What clouds are typically formed in neutral air?

A

Stratiform clouds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

In neutral air, what happens to the air?

A

Remains in the position to which it was vertically displaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

In stable air, what happens to the air?

A

Returns to the position from which it was displaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What clouds are typically formed in stable air?

A

Stratiform clouds or fog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

When a parcel of air cools to the same temperature of its surrounding environment, it does what?

A

Stops rising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Air flowing over mountains cools and rises in what way?

A

Adiabatically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Why does cloud formed over mountains cease to exist as it descends on the lee side?

A

Temperature exceeds dewpoints and therefore water vapour vapourises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

A cloud that forms as a ‘cap’ over the top of a mountain is known as what..?

A

Lenticular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

What factors determine the level at which a cloud bases forms?

A

Humidity and dewpoint temperature

185
Q

Unstable air over a mountain could yield what cloud?

A

Cumuliform

186
Q

Stable air over a mountain could yield what cloud?

A

Lenticularis, stratus or stratocumulus

187
Q

A warmer, drier wind on the lee side of a mountain describes what effect?

A

Foehn

188
Q

Describe the foehn effect

A

Cloud forms on windward side of mountain
Air now drier and dewpoint temp less, cloudbase higher on leeward side
Drier and warmer wind on leeward side

189
Q

Why does foehn effect result in drier, warmer air

A

Dry leeward air descends at DALR, which is a greater rate than the SALR-air on windward side

190
Q

Two large masses of differing temp air meet, what undercuts the other?

A

The warmer air will be undercut by the cooler air

191
Q

What is the name given to the boundary layer between two air masses?

A

Front

192
Q

What cloud usually precipitates in a gradual way over a long period?

A

Stratiform

193
Q

Showers only fall from what clouds

A

Convective cumuliform clouds

194
Q

Drizzle is usually associated with what kinds of cloud?

A

Thick, overcast stratus cloud

195
Q

In order of coverage, what are the cloud abbreviations used in METAR and TAF?

A

SKC, FEW, SCT, BKN, OVC

196
Q

What kind of air has more potential to carry more water before saturation?

A

Warmer

197
Q

A parcel of air has warmed in contact with the earth’s surface. What happens?

A

It will rise and cool adiabatically

198
Q

Orographic uplift of unstable air is likely to cause what cloud?

A

Cumuliform

199
Q

Orographic uplift of stable air is likely to cause what cloud?

A

Stratiform

200
Q

What is the name of visibility between a pilot and the ground?

A

Slant visibility

201
Q

What makes visibility reduce?

A

Particles suspended in the air

202
Q

Haze produced by sea salt has what appearance?

A

Whitish

203
Q

Salt particles from sea spray can attract water vapour (and reduce visibility) at humidity as low as…?

A

70%

204
Q

Why does flying towards the moon give greater visibility?

A

Silhouettes of objects can be seen better

205
Q

What does a temp inversion do to convection?

A

It stops vertical convection currents because of the layer of warmer air above

206
Q

Inversions usually occur during what weather systems?

A

High pressure

207
Q

Why does smog occur during a temp inversion?

A

Particles cannot mix throughout the atmosphere so they form a smog

208
Q

Minimum humidity for mist/fog

A

95%

209
Q

Visibility below 1km is…?

A

Fog

210
Q

Poor visibility above 1km is called?

A

Mist

211
Q

What conditions make the formation of radiation fog likely?

A

Cloudless night
Moist air
Light winds

212
Q

Why are cloudless nights conducive for fog buildup?

A

Allows surface to cool which cools the air near it

213
Q

Why do light winds help the formation of fog?

A

Resupply of moisture from the atmosphere to condense on the ground

214
Q

Does the proportion of oxygen reduce with altitude?

A

No, pressure does

215
Q

What is terrestrial radiation?

A

Long wave radiation emitted by earth that heats the atmosphere?

216
Q

What usually heats the atmosphere?

A

Terrestrial radiation

217
Q

Density equation

A

Mass/Volume

218
Q

What is a trough?

A

Area of low pressure

219
Q

Weather associated with a trough?

A

Increasing cloud and risk of precipiation

220
Q

What is a col?

A

Area of widely spaced isobars between two highs and two lows

221
Q

Weather associated with the col?

A

Light winds

222
Q

When do altimeters over-read?

A

As the aircraft moves into lower pressure

223
Q

Why do altimeters over-read in lower temperatures?

A

Density increases

224
Q

Snow generally comes from what clouds?

A

Cumuliform

225
Q

Most common type of adiabatic change?

A

Rising air expanding and cooling/sinking air condensing and warming

226
Q

Why is SALR less than DALR?

A

Condensation releases latent heat energy which reduces the rate

227
Q

What is the ELR like in stable conditions?

A

Less than 1.5 degrees per 1000ft

228
Q

What is the ELR like in unstable conditions?

A

Greater than 3 degrres per 1000ft

229
Q

If the ELR is between 1.5°C and 3°C the stability of the atmosphere will depend on…?

A

The moisture of the air

230
Q

If the air is wet the atmosphere is unstable, whereas if it is dry it is stable. This is known as

A

Conditional Stability

231
Q

Conditional Stability can be described as what?

A

Determining the stability of the air by the moisture of the air

232
Q

Air Mass: Arctic Maritime

A

Wet cold air bringing snow in winter

233
Q

Air Mass: wet cold air bringing snow in winter

A

Arctic Maritime

234
Q

Air Mass: Polar Continental

A

Cold, dry, giving clear skies and frost in
winter and cool weather in summer

235
Q

Air Mass: Cold, dry, giving clear skies and frost in
winter and cool weather in summer

A

Polar continental

236
Q

Air Mass: Polar Maritime

A

Cold, wet, unstable air giving showers
and thunderstorms

237
Q

Air Mass: Cold, wet, unstable air giving showers
and thunderstorms

A

Polar Maritime

238
Q

Air Mass: Tropical Continental

A

Warm, dry air giving hazy and sometimes
dusty days, can be the source of the most
severe thunderstorms over the UK.

239
Q

Air Mass: Warm, dry air giving hazy and sometimes
dusty days, can be the source of the most
severe thunderstorms over the UK.

A

Tropical Continental

240
Q

Air Mass: Tropical Maritime

A

Warm, moist, stable air giving stratus,
sea fog and drizzle. This normally clears
inland in the summer.

241
Q

Air Mass: Warm, moist, stable air giving stratus,
sea fog and drizzle. This normally clears
inland in the summer.

A

Tropical Maritime

242
Q

Warm front: Cloud base

A

Gradually lowers, 600nm ahead of front at surface

243
Q

Warm front: pressure

A

Pressure decreases and is stable once front has passed

244
Q

Warm front: temperature

A

Temp and dewpoint rise

245
Q

Warm front: wind

A

Veers

246
Q

Warm front: aftermath

A

Low stratus and drizzle

247
Q

Cold front: speed

A

Cool air moves more quickly than warmer air ahead

248
Q

Cold front: stability

A

Rising warm air causes instability

249
Q

Cold front: relation to warm front

A

Undercuts warm front

250
Q

Cold front: clouds

A

Cumuliform clouds

251
Q

Cold front: wind

A

Veers

252
Q

Cold front: temperature

A

Temp and dewpoint decrease

253
Q

Cold front: pressure

A

Falls then rises rapidly after front has passed

254
Q

Global circulation results in what characteristics at the equator?

A

Hot rising air

255
Q

Global circulation results in what characteristics at the poles?

A

Cold descending air

256
Q

Occluded front: wind

A

Veers sharply

257
Q

Occluded front: pressure

A

Drops rapidly then rises rapidly after front has passed

258
Q

A cold occlusion results in what?

A

Cold front conditions at the surface

259
Q

A warm occlusion results in what?

A

Warm front conditions at the surface

260
Q

Danger of occluded front

A

Embedded CB in ST

261
Q

3 conditions required for thunderstorms

A

Instability, high humidity and trigger action

262
Q

What kind of instability causes thunderstorms?

A

ELR greater than 4 degrees per 1000ft

263
Q

Three stages of a thunderstorm

A

Cumulus
Mature
Dissipating

264
Q

Thunderstorms: cumulus stage

A

Strong updrafts
Rapid vertical growth

265
Q

Thunderstorms: Strong updrafts, rapid vertical growth

A

Cumulus stage

266
Q

Thunderstorms: mature stage

A

Updrafts
Severe downdraughts create microbursts, gusts and roll cloud.

267
Q

Thunderstorms: Updrafts
Severe downdraughts create microbursts, gusts and roll cloud.

A

Mature stage

268
Q

Thunderstorms: dissipating stage

A

Downdraughts
Precipitation

269
Q

Thunderstorms: downdraughts, precipitation

A

Dissipating stage

270
Q

How are Mountain Waves denoted in met reporting?

A

MTW

271
Q

Is the relationship between altitude and pressure linear?

A

No

272
Q

Moist air is usually associated with what system?

A

Low pressure system

273
Q

Why does moist air weigh less than dry air?

A

Water vapour weighs less than dry air

274
Q

Why is moist air related to low pressure systems?

A

Moist air exerts less pressure on the Earth’s surface than dry air

275
Q

What is the main source of heat energy in the atmosphere?

A

Radiation

276
Q

What is insolation?

A

Earth’s surface being heated by the sun

277
Q

Typical vertical movement in low pressure?

A

Upwards

278
Q

Typical vertical movement in high pressure?

A

Downwards

279
Q

Drawback to the ‘better weather’ advantage in high pressure systems?

A

Lower visibility

280
Q

How is an air mass classified?

A

Temperature then humidity

281
Q

What causes areas of high and low pressure?

A

Uneven surface heating (mainly)

282
Q

Why may wind direction and runway headings not match up?

A

Runways use magnetic, wind uses true north

283
Q

ATC-issued wind direction is given in what format?

A

Magnetic heading

284
Q

Effect of altitude on wind direction means the bearing of the wind does what?

A

Reduces the closer to the surface it gets

285
Q

Effect of altitude on wind direction: bearing of the wind reduces because of..?

A

Coriolis effect reducing

286
Q

Why is there less difference between surface wind and aloft during the day?

A

More mixing
Coriolis force is stronger so surface wind more aligned with aloft

287
Q

If the surface wind is stronger, what does this do to its relationship with the coriolis effect?

A

It makes the Coriolis effect stronger (so backs less and veers more)

288
Q

What causes mixing of surface air and aloft winds during the day?

A

Convection currents

289
Q

Reason for little or no turbulence during the night near the surface?

A

Smooth deceleration of air between winds aloft and surface wind

290
Q

What is Boyles Law?

A

At constant temp, volume of gas is inversely proportional to pressure

291
Q

What is Charles Law (gas)

A

At constant pressure, volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature

292
Q

What element/factor of the atmosphere is most significant for aircraft performance?

A

Air density

293
Q

What is QNE?

A

Height of an aerodrome threshold at 1013.2hPa

294
Q

What is the name of an air mass that is descending?

A

Subsidence

295
Q

How does a subsidence cause a temperature inversion?

A

Descending air warms up and acts as a lid on pollutants beneath it

296
Q

What causes more significant altimetry errors? Temp change or pressure change?

A

Pressure

297
Q

Why would a moist parcel of air rise?

A

Water vapour less dense than dry air, it is therefore lighter and so will rise

298
Q

Why are SALR and DALR always the same?

A

Composition of gases in dry and moist air remains constant

299
Q

If the ELR is above 3 degrees per 1000 ft (DALR), what occurs?

A

Absolute Instability

300
Q

If ELR results in Absolute Instability, what happens?

A

Air cools at a lesser rate than surrounding atmosphere
Parcel rises in temperature relative to surrounding air
Due to warmth, its vertical motion accelerates

301
Q

If ELR results in Absolute Stability, what happens?

A

Parcel of air’s temperature cools relative to surrounding air, so sinks again and returns to original place

302
Q

What does pressure do to relative humidity?

A

High pressure means less water vapour can be accomodated

303
Q

In METAR/TAF temperature readings, what rounding is used?

A

x.0 - x.4

304
Q

In terms of stable and unstable atmosphere, we can think of what two kinds of respective clouds?

A

Layered and heaped

305
Q

Why are layered clouds associated with stable atmosphere?

A

Large scale ascent of air

306
Q

Why are heaped clouds associated with unstable atmosphere?

A

Localised vertical lifting

307
Q

What cloud produces a halo?

A

Cirrostratus

308
Q

What are the white streaks on altocumulus?

A

Virga

309
Q

Rule of Thumb for calculating cloud base formation?

A

(Temp - Dewpoint) x 400

310
Q

Why do stratiform clouds produce light precipitation?

A

They have weak vertical currents and little extent

311
Q

Why do cumuliform clouds produce heavier precipitation?

A

They have large vertical currents due to their larger extent

312
Q

Metar code: SG

A

Snow Grains

313
Q

Metar Code: Snow Grains

A

SG

314
Q

Metar Code: GR

A

Hail

315
Q

Metar Code: Hail

A

GR

316
Q

Metar Code: PL

A

Pellets

317
Q

Metar Code: Pellets

A

PL

318
Q

Metar Code: IC

A

Diamond Dust

319
Q

Metar Code: Diamond Dust

A

IC

320
Q

Metar Code: SQ

A

Squalls

321
Q

Metar Code: Squalls

A

SQ

322
Q

Metar Code: NIL

A

No precipitation

323
Q

Metar Code: No Precipitation

A

NIL

324
Q

Metar Code: MON

A

Mountainous Regions

325
Q

Metar Code: Mountainous Regions

A

MON

326
Q

Metar Code: Over Land Regions

A

LAN

327
Q

Metar Code: LAN

A

Over Land Regions

328
Q

Metar Code: Over Coastal Regions

A

COT

329
Q

Metar Code: COT

A

Over Coastal Regions

330
Q

How is sleet indicated in UK METARS etc?

A

RASN

331
Q

What does RASN indicate in the UK?

A

Sleet

332
Q

What is the minimum cloud thickness for rain to occur?

A

4000ft

333
Q

Why does more light (rising sun) make mist worse for visibility?

A

More light becomes reflected

334
Q

When is radiation fog most likely?

A

At dawn when the ground temp is lowest

335
Q

Radiation fog: if the wind is too light (less than 2kt), what happens?

A

Dew forms instead

336
Q

Radiation fog: if the wind is too strong (>10kt)m what happens?

A

Low cloud forms instead

337
Q

Radiation fog: the wind speed is directly proportional to…?

A

Cloud base

338
Q

Radiation fog: rule of thumb for wind speed and cloud base

A

8kts = 800ft, 10kts = 1000ft etc

339
Q

Why is radiation fog more likely to occur in autumn?

A

Diurnal temp variation is greatest

340
Q

When is diurnal temp variation greatest?

A

Autumn

341
Q

Metar Code: FU

A

Smoke

342
Q

Metar Code: Smoke

A

FU

343
Q

Metar Code: Fog

A

FG

344
Q

Metar Code: FG

A

Fog

345
Q

Metar Code: Mist

A

BR

346
Q

Metar Code: BR

A

Mist

347
Q

Metar Code: BL

A

Blowing

348
Q

Metar Code: Blowing

A

BL

349
Q

Metar Code: SA

A

Sand

350
Q

Metar Code: Sand

A

SA

351
Q

Metar Code: MI

A

Shallow

352
Q

Metar Code: Shallow

A

MI

353
Q

Metar Code: PR

A

Banks

354
Q

Metar Code: Banks

A

PR

355
Q

Metar Code: BC

A

Patches

356
Q

Metar Code: Patches

A

BC

357
Q

Metar Code: SS

A

Sandstorm

358
Q

Metar Code: Sandstorm

A

SS

359
Q

Metar Code: PO

A

Dustdevils

360
Q

Metar Code: Dustdevils

A

PO

361
Q

Metar Code: UP

A

Unidentified Precip

362
Q

Metar Code: Unidentified Precip

A

UP

363
Q

What unit of measurement is used for visibility?

A

Metres

364
Q

CAVOK refers to clouds not below…?

A

5000ft

365
Q

Does CAVOK mean no cloud at all?

A

No, just none below 5000ft

366
Q

2 main causes of low pressure systems

A

Unstable air rising
Air being less dense due to water vapour

367
Q

What type of front moves the fastest?

A

Cold

368
Q

What is a stationary front?

A

Where warm air and cold air reside next to eachother

369
Q

Why do occluded fronts result in prolonged rain and poor visibility?

A

The fronts are slower moving

370
Q

Why does severe weather occur in a trough?

A

Increased mixing and lifting forces where isobars are closer together

371
Q

High pressure systems are known as what?

A

Anti-cyclones

372
Q

Why are winds usually slack in a high pressure system?

A

Isobars are widely spaced

373
Q

Col in summer typified by what?

A

Moist air and little movement (wind)

374
Q

Col in winter typified by what?

A

Little movement (wind) can cause low cloud and poor visibility

375
Q

What happens to the cloud base as a warm front approaches?

A

It lowers

376
Q

Why does icing occur even if an aircraft flies into above-zero water droplets?

A

The airframe may be sub-zero and will freeze the droplets

377
Q

In what form does ice begin as in the icing process?

A

Large super-cooled water droplets

378
Q

What is rime ice?

A

Impact ice

379
Q

How is rime ice formed?

A

Water droplets impacting the air frame

380
Q

How is clear ice formed?

A

Water droplets flow backward over air frame after rime ice formed

381
Q

Why is clear ice formation so dangerous?

A

Reaches parts of aircraft unprotected by anti-ice systems

382
Q

What type of icing is typically seen on the ground structures?

A

Hoar frost

383
Q

How is hoar frost formed?

A

Sublimation

384
Q

How does hoar frost form on an aircraft?

A

Aircraft cooled by flying through cold air mass
Aircraft enters warm air and sublimation occurs

385
Q

Does hoar frost form in clouds?

A

Not always

386
Q

What icing occurs when a warm front meets a cold air mass?

A

Freezing rain

387
Q

How does freezing rain form in fronts?

A

Super-cooled droplets fall from warm air into cool and instantly freeze

388
Q

Carb Icing: what happens to fuel/air as it passes through the venturi?

A

Pressure reduces
Dewpoint reduces
Air’s water condenses
Fuel evaporation reduces air temp further due to energy required

389
Q

Why is carb ice more likely on warm days?

A

Warm air has the ability to hold more moisture

390
Q

What is the dominant factor in causing carb icing?

A

Humidity

391
Q

Why does the engine sometimes run more roughly after carb heat has been applied?

A

Ice melts into water which enters the system

392
Q

Why is rime ice opaque?

A

It is trapped air

393
Q

Rime ice is trapped air. This gives it what characteristic?

A

Opaque

394
Q

What are the optimum conditions for a thunderstorm to form?

A

Hot humid atmosphere

395
Q

For thunderstorms, when is TCU used instead of CU?

A

When a thunderstorm is taller than it is wide

396
Q

What causes lightning and thunder in a thunderstorm?

A

Air current friction

397
Q

What direction does a thunderstorm’s anvil point?

A

In direction of wind aloft

398
Q

Thunderstorms: during the dissipating stage, what causes the updrafts to reduce?

A

Falling precipitation

399
Q

Thunderstorms: during the dissipating stage, why does a flat top occur?

A

Temperature inversion

400
Q

Thunderstorms: when the anvil becomes well-defined, what does this indicate?

A

Dissipating stage and end of the cells life

401
Q

How does a supercell occur?

A

When winds aloft move precipitation away from the up-draughts

402
Q

How is a supercell self-sustaining?

A

Supply of moist air is present

403
Q

What causes a thunderclap?

A

Sudden massive expansion of air around lightning bolt due to sudden increase in temperature

404
Q

A sudden massive expansion of air around lightning bolt due to sudden increase in temperature causes what?

A

Thunder

405
Q

What instrument will give unreliable readings in the vicinity of a thunderstorm?

A

ADF

406
Q

Why does the ADF give unreliable readings near a thunderstorm?

A

Lightning has a broad Radio Frequency spectrum

407
Q

Rule of thumb for thunderstorm distance

A

5 second delay between thunder and lightning = 1nm distance

408
Q

What factor determines a thunderstorm’s direction?

A

Winds aloft, not surface winds

409
Q

Do thunderstorms travel in the prevailing surface wind direction?

A

No

410
Q

Thunderstorms tend to be severe above what dewpoint?

A

20 degrees

411
Q
A
412
Q

A plane flying towards a depression will experience what? (In the NH)

A

Starboard drift

413
Q

What moves faster across the earth? Highs or lows?

A

Lows

414
Q

Why do clouds form in a depression?

A

Rising air is cooled

415
Q

Why is visibility good in low pressure?

A

Vertical motion of air carries away suspended particles

416
Q

What kind of visibility is associated with a low?

A

Good

417
Q

What is a V-shaped extension of isobars from a depression called?

A

Trough

418
Q

A trough on a chart resembles what?

A

V-shaped extension of isobars

419
Q

A trough carries which two key factors for the development of CBs and storms?

A

Unstable air and rising air due to low level convergence

420
Q

In a trough, what is a major risk associated with observing a cloud formation?

A

CBs may be embedded within other cloud (such as stratiform)

421
Q

An aircraft flying towards an anticyclone will experience what?

A

Port drift

422
Q

What is the stability of subsiding air?

A

Very stable

423
Q

Subsiding air in an anticyclone means the air is what…?

A

Very stable

424
Q

What causes mountain waves and windshear to exist on the outskirts of an anticyclone?

A

Temperature inversion combines with stronger winds

425
Q

Temperature inversions and strong winds on the outskirts of an anticyclone can produce what?

A

Windshear and mountain wave

426
Q

U-shape extension of isobars from a high is called what?

A

Ridge

427
Q

What is the anticyclone equivalent of a trough?

A

Ridge

428
Q

Venturi effect means high pressure, low speed becomes what when constricted?

A

Low pressure, high speed

429
Q

Where can the venturi effect exist in the air?

A

Mountain wave

430
Q

Mountain wave venturi effect results in what?

A

Wind aloft speeds increase, pressure decreases

431
Q

Venturi effect in mountain wave has wgat effect on safe flight?

A

Altimeter may over-read due to lower pressure

432
Q

Icing: what cloud is specifically risky for icing in mountain flying?

A

Lenticular clouds

433
Q

European Air Circulation: winter pressure

A

Low pressure in Atlantic, High in continent

434
Q

European Air Circulation: winter jet stream

A

More southerly than usual

435
Q

European Air Circulation: summer pressure

A

High pressure in Atlantic

436
Q

European Air Circulation: high pressure in Atlantic summer is known as what?

A

Azores HIgh

437
Q

When does an Azores High usually occur?

A

Summer

438
Q

Which air mass is generally responsible for snow over the UK?

A

Arctic Maritime

439
Q

Arctic Maritime is an air mass that can bring what event in the UK?

A

Snow

439
Q

‘Continental’ in air mass description denotes what

A

Dry, and therefore stable

440
Q

F215 provides weather for what vertical space?

A

Ground to 10,000ft

441
Q

Typical F215 forecast validity?

A

9 hours

442
Q

F215 terminology: phenomenon coverage >50%

A

Frequent

443
Q

F215 terminology: phenomenon coverage 25-50%

A

Occasional

444
Q

F215 terminology: phenomenon coverage <25%

A

Issolated

445
Q

F215 chart provides info on what in the UK?

A

Significant weather

446
Q

Significant weather in the UK is forecasted by the Met Office in what publication?

A

F215

447
Q

F214 chart provides info on what in the UK?

A

Spot wind and temperatures

448
Q

F214s are issued every…hours?

A

6 hours

449
Q

What two probability codes are used in the UK for TAFs?

A

PROB30 and PROB40

450
Q

In a TAF, PROB30 is generally understood as…?

A

Might happen

451
Q

In a TAF, PROB40 is generally understood as…?

A

Will happen

452
Q

For METARS, NOSIG means what?

A

No significant change during the two hours after observation time

453
Q

For METARS, NOSIG has what time forecast

A

2 hours

454
Q

Infra-Red satellite shows what?

A

The temperature of clouds

455
Q

In IR-satellite, how is temperature indicated?

A

The lighter the colour, the lower the temperature

456
Q

VOLMET broadcasts METARs or TAFs?

A

METARs

457
Q

How is VOLMET broadcast?

A

On VHF continuously

458
Q

Where does the tropopause begin at the equator?

A

18km (60,000ft)

459
Q

Where does the tropopause begin at the poles?

A

9km (30,000ft)

460
Q

What weather conditions might be associated with a Col in the winter months in the UK?

A

Low Cloud, light winds, Poor visibility (possibly even fog)

461
Q
A