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PPL > Air Law > Flashcards

Air Law Flashcards

1
Q

ICAO year formed

A

1947

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2
Q

ICAO Article stating aircraft have right to make flights across territories and landings without permission

A

Article 5

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3
Q

ICAO Article stating scheduled international air services need permission from states to operate in

A

Article 6

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4
Q

ICAO article concerning customs airports

A

Article 10

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5
Q

ICAO Article concerning rules of the air in all states should be uniform with those established under ICAO convention

A

Article 12

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6
Q

ICAO Article right to search

A

Article 16

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7
Q

ICAO Article concerning aircraft being free of duty/tax

A

Article 24

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8
Q

ICAO Article relating to airworthiness of aircraft

A

Article 29

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9
Q

ICAO Article relating to carrying and use of radios

A

Article 30

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10
Q

ICAO Article relating to competency and licenses of flight crew

A

Article 32

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11
Q

ICAO Article relating to recognition of flight crew licenses by other states

A

Article 33

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12
Q

Minimum (4) equipment required on all VFR aircraft

A

Sensitive pressure altimeter
Airspeed indicator
Magnetic compass
Accurate timepiece

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13
Q

ISA stands for

A

International Standard Atmosphere

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14
Q

3 Characteristics of ISA

A

Sea level pressure of 1013 hPa
Sea level temperature of 15 degrees celsius
Sea level density of 1.225 kg/mcubed

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15
Q

ISA pressure reduction

A

1hPa every 30ft

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16
Q

ISA temp reduction

A

2 degrees every 1000ft

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17
Q

What is the Regional Pressure Setting?

A

Lowest forecast pressure setting for each ASR

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18
Q

How regularly is the RPS updated?

A

Every hour

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19
Q

MATZ characteristics

A

5nm radius, surface to 3000’

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20
Q

MATZ stub characteristic

A

5nm from MATZ, 2nm either side of extended centreline, 1000’ to 3000’

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21
Q

On charts, civil aerodromes are shown in what colour?

A

Red

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22
Q

On charts, military aerodromes are shown in what colour?

A

Blue

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23
Q

What is a CTR?

A

Control Zone

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24
Q

What is a CTA?

A

Control Area

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25
Q

CTR purpose

A

Controlled airspace extending from surface to a level

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26
Q

CTA purpose

A

Controlled airspace that extends from a level to a level

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27
Q

What is a TMA?

A

Terminal Manouvering Area

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28
Q

TMA purpose

A

CTA at the confluence of airways

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29
Q

What airspace class is VFR not allowed in?

A

Class A

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30
Q

Class B Rules

A

Separation provided between all aircraft

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31
Q

Class C Rules

A

Separation provided between IFR traffic, and IFR from VFR traffic

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32
Q

Class D Rules

A

Separation provided between IFR traaffic

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33
Q

Class E Rules

A

Separation provided between IFR traffic, clearance not required for VFR traffic

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34
Q

Two types of uncontrolled airspaces

A

Class F and Class G

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35
Q

Class G Rules

A

Open Flight Information Region

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36
Q

UK uses Class A for what

A

CTAs, London TMA, airwways

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37
Q

UK uses Class B for what

A

Not used

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38
Q

UK uses Class C for what

A

Above FL195

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39
Q

UK uses Class D for what

A

CTAs and CTRs, Luton CTR

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40
Q

UK uses Class E for what

A

Some airways, moostly Scotland

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41
Q

UK uses Class G for what

A

Everywhere else

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42
Q

Rules of the Air: risk of collision when?

A

When an aircraft is on a constant relative bearing

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43
Q

Rules of the Air: aircraft on a constant relative bearing means?

A

Risk of collision

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44
Q

Rules of the Air: aircraft turn what when approaching head on?

A

Right

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45
Q

Rules of the Air: who has right of way in an overtake?

A

Aircraft being overtaken

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46
Q

Rules of the Air: aircraft being overtaken must

A

Maintain heading and speed

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47
Q

Rules of the Air: overtaking in the air

A

Keep aircraft on your left

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48
Q

Rules of the Air: overtaking on the ground

A

Keep aircraft on your right

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49
Q

Rules of the Air: differences in overtaking on ground/in air

A

In air, overtake on the right, on ground, overtake on the left

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50
Q

Rules of the Air: aircraft give way to

A

Airships, gliders and balloons

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51
Q

Rules of the Air: default circuit direction

A

Lefthand

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52
Q

Rules of the Air: two aircraft on final

A

Lower aircraft has right of way

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53
Q

Rules of the Air: following a ground feature…

A

Keep feature on your right

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54
Q

Rules of the Air: aircraft lights

A

Wing nav lights 110 degrees, tail light 140 degrees

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55
Q

Low Flying Prohibitionns Rule

A

Except for take off and landing, VFR flight shall not be flown less than 500 ft above ground/watr of above highest obstacles within 500ft radius

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56
Q

1000ft Rule

A

Flying over congested area shall not fly below height of 1000’ above highest fixed obstacle within 600m horizontal radius

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57
Q

1000ft Rule exception

A

Written permission of the CAA

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58
Q

Land Clear rule

A

Aircraft over congested area shall not fly below a height that would not allow the aircraft to land clear in the event of a power unit failure

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59
Q

Flying over Open Assemblies rule

A

Shall not fly below 1000ft or such height that would not allow the aircraft to land clear

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60
Q

Open Air Assemblies with a minimum of

A

1000 people

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61
Q

VMC inside controlled airspace: above FL100

A

Visibility 8km ahead and 1500m behind
1000ft vertical from clouds

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62
Q

VMC inside controlled airspace: below FL100

A

Visibility 5km ahead and 1500m behind
1000ft vertical from clouds

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63
Q

VMC inside controlled airspace (C and E): below 3000’ or 1000’ above terrain, whichever is higher

A

Visibility 5km ahead and 1500m behind
1000ft vertical from clouds

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64
Q

VMC inside and outside controlled airspace (D): below 3000’ or 1000’ above terrain, whichever is higher is triggered by which speed or less

A

140 knots

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65
Q

VMC inside controlled airspace (D): below 3000’ or 1000’ above terrain, whichever is higher at 140 kts or less

A

Clear of cloud and in sight of surface

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66
Q

VFR minima only relevant for which controlled Airspace classes

A

C, D and E

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67
Q

Unless under Special VFR, VFR flights shouldn’t takeoff/land/enter ATZ and CTR inside controlled airspace with what minima

A

Visibility less than 5km
Cloud ceiling below 1500ft

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68
Q

VFR minima outside controlled airspace: similarity to controlled airspace

A

Visibility 8km or 5km, 1500m behind
1000ft vertical from cloud

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69
Q

VFR minima outside controlled airspace, below 3000ft etc

A

5km visibility or 1500m if 140 knots or less
Clear of cloud and in sight of surface

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70
Q

Key altitude and speed for VFR minima determination

A

3000ft and 140 knots

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71
Q

IFR minima

A

Not less than 1000’ below highest obstacle within 5nm

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72
Q

IFR minima exceptions

A

Unless for taking off and landing
Below 3000’AMSL, clear of clouds with surface in sight and flight visibilty of at least 800m

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73
Q

Special VFR circumstances

A

If in IMC conditions, VFR pilot can request SVFR to transit controlled airspace

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74
Q

SVFR minima

A

Visibility better than 1500m and clear of cloud and in sight of surface

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75
Q

Night definition

A

30 mins before sunrise and 30 mins after sunset

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76
Q

At night, obstacle characteristics higher than 500ft

A

Steady red light

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77
Q

At night, a steady red light indicates a

A

Obstacle higher than 500ft

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78
Q

500ft obstacles at night lit in exceptional circumstances in what way?

A

High intensity flashing white lights

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79
Q

At night, aeordrome identification beacons do what

A

Flash 2-letter morse code every 12 seconds

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80
Q

Runways: What is longest of the 4 DAs?

A

TODA

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81
Q

Runways: What is the shortest of the 4 DAs?

A

LDA

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82
Q

Runways: ASDA is

A

TORA + stopway

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83
Q

Runways: TODA is

A

TORA + clearway

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84
Q

Aerodromes: runway markings are

A

White

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85
Q

Aerodromes: taxiway markings are

A

Yellow

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86
Q

Aerodromes: runway edge lights are

A

Omni-directional white

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87
Q

Aerodromes: runway threshold lights are

A

Green from approach

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88
Q

Aerodromes: runway end lights are

A

Red in direction of runway

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89
Q

Aerodromes: taxiway lights

A

Centre is green and edge is blue

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90
Q

Aerodrome signals: White ‘T’ with a ball on top, or black ball suspended from a mast

A

Direction of takeoff and landing do not coincide

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91
Q

Aerodrome signals: clear white dumbell

A

Movement confined to hard surfaces

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92
Q

Aerodrome signals: white dumbell with black stripes

A

Take off and landing must be on runway, but ground movement not confined to hard surfaces

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93
Q

Aerodrome signals: horizontal red square with single yellow diagonal

A

State of manouvering area is poor

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94
Q

Aerodrome signals: red square with yellow diagonal cross

A

Aerodrome unsafe and landing is prohibited

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95
Q

Aerodrome signals: double white cross or two red balls suspended from mast

A

Glider flying is taking place

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96
Q

Aerodrome signals: yellow cross

A

Gliding two-rope dropping area

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97
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. continuous red

A

Stop

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98
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. stop signal

A

Continuous red

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99
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. flashing red

A

Move clear of landing area

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100
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. move clear of landing area

A

Flashing red

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101
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. continuous green

A

Cleared take off

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102
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. cleared take off

A

Continuous green

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103
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. flashing green

A

Cleared to taxi

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104
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. cleared to taxi

A

Flashing green

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105
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. flashing white

A

Return to apron

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106
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. return to apron

A

Flashing white

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107
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. continuous red

A

Do not land, continue circling

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108
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. do not land and continue circling

A

Continuous red

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109
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. flashing red

A

Do not land

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110
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. do not land

A

Flashing red

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111
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. continuous green

A

Cleared to land

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112
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. cleared to land

A

Continuous green

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113
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. flashing green

A

Return to aerodrome, wait for permission to land

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114
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. return to aerodrome and wait for permission to land

A

Flashing green

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115
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. flashing white

A

Land after continuous green

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116
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. land after continuous green

A

Flashing white

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117
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. red flare

A

Do not land, wait for permission

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118
Q

Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. do not land, wait for permission

A

Red flare

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119
Q

Aerodrome signals: aircraft flashing its landing lights or navigation lights on and off

A

I am compelled to land

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120
Q

5 Air Traffic services outside controlled airspace

A

Basic, Traffic, Deconfliction, Procedural, Alerting

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121
Q

Which of the 5 ATC services outside controlled is provided automatically?

A

Alerting

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122
Q

Procedural Service can only be provided to..?

A

IFR flights

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123
Q

Which ATC services outside controlled airspaces involve potential entry into IMC?

A

Deconfliction and Procedural

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124
Q

What ATC service is provided inside controlled airspace?

A

Radar Control Service

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125
Q

Three kinds of Secondary Radar (Transponder)?

A

Mode A, C and S

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126
Q

Hijack Squawk Code

A

7500

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127
Q

Radio Failure Squawk Code

A

7600

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128
Q

Emergency Squawk Code

A

7700

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129
Q

Mode C is

A

Mode A plus pressure altitude

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130
Q

Mode S is

A

Mode A/C plus Registration, Type, Speed and more

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131
Q

Search and Rescue Signals: V

A

Require assistance

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132
Q

Search and Rescue Signals: require assistance

A

V

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133
Q

Search and Rescue Signals: require medical assistance

A

X

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134
Q

Search and Rescue Signals:X

A

Require medical assistance

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135
Q

Licence privileges related to state

A

Pilots must have a license issuedby the state in which the aircraft is registered

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136
Q

An SEP lasts how many years before renewal?

A

2

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137
Q

2 methods to renew an SEP?

A

Proficiency check or by experience

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138
Q

SEP renewal involves how many hours of relevant experience?

A

12

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139
Q

SEP renewal by experience - 12 hour breakdown

A

6 hours PIC, 12 takeoffs and landings, training flight of 1 hour with FI

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140
Q

SEP currency for passengers

A

Within last 90 days, 3 takeoffs and landings

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141
Q

IR (R) gives what visibility minima for takeoff and landing

A

1800m

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142
Q

ATC clearance required for VFR in Class E?

A

No

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143
Q

ATC clearance required for IFR in Class E?

A

Yes

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144
Q

What is the difference of VFR minima between Class C/E and D?

A

C/E is 5km/1500m/1000ft and D is Clear of Cloud and in Sight of Surface

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145
Q

AIC stands for

A

Aeronautical Information Circular

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146
Q

AIC stands for

A

Aeronautical Information Circular

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147
Q

AIC administration matters coloured in

A

White

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148
Q

AIC administration matters coloured in

A

White

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149
Q

AIC operational matters coloured in

A

Yellow

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150
Q

AIC charts coloured in

A

Green

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151
Q

AIC charts coloured in

A

Green

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152
Q

AIC temp airspace restriction coloured in

A

Mauve

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153
Q

AIC safety related topics coloured in

A

Pink

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154
Q

SERA stands for

A

Standard European Rules of the Air

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155
Q

ANO stands for

A

Air Navigation Order

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156
Q

Name of legal UK doc for aviation

A

Air Navigation Order

157
Q

ANO states that UK will adhere to

A

SERA and specific UK rules

158
Q

AIP stands for

A

Aeronautical Information Publication

159
Q

Why is AIP not legal?

A

Contains info for safe conduct of flight only

160
Q

Student pilots can operate under the instructor’s licences when flying solo as part of their training?

A

Yes

161
Q

Official Differences can be obtained by what 2 parts of training?

A

Training from an instructor and log-book sign off

162
Q

From what date does the Single Engine Piston (Land) Class Rating become valid?

A

Date of skills test

163
Q

Revalidating a SEP(Land) Class Rating by experience requires how many takeoffs and landings within last 12 months?

A

12

164
Q

Revalidating a SEP(Land) Class Rating by experience considers experience how far back?

A

12 months

165
Q

Revalidating a SEP(Land) Class Rating by experience considers the entire previous 24 months of experience?

A

False

166
Q

As a PART-FCL PPL(A) licence holder, you may legally hire an aircraft for business use, and claim back the cost of that hire from the business. True or False?

A

True, but only as long as you’re not employed as a pilot

167
Q

Renewing a a SEP(Land) Class Rating can be done by experience?

A

False

168
Q

Difference in revalidating a a SEP(Land) Class Rating compared to renewing it?

A

You can use experience, as well as a License Proficiency Check

169
Q

ONLY exception to the rule about night flying without a rating?

A

Allowed 5 solo takeoffs and landings

170
Q

To fly a different variant of aircraft within the same CLASS (that does NOT have any of the official differences), what is required?

A

Familiarisation

171
Q

FRTOL stands for

A

Flight Radiotelephony Operators Licence

172
Q

License relating to use of radio

A

FRTOL

173
Q

The minimum age to hold an FRTOL is?

A

14

174
Q

Your logbook must be kept for how long?

A

2 years from the date of the last entry

175
Q

Minimum age to go solo (medical permitting):

A

16

176
Q

Minimum age for PPLicence issue:

A

17

177
Q

UK TMZs require what transponder for flights without a clearance?

A

Mode S

178
Q

Can aircraft without a transponder, or only with Mode A, enter a TMZ?

A

Yes, but only by first gaining a clearance to enter via RTF

179
Q

Can aircraft without a transponder, or only with Mode A, enter a TMZ?

A

Yes, but only by first gaining a clearance to enter via RTF

180
Q

Minimum cloud ceiling at night for VFR?

A

1500ft

181
Q

Revalidating a SEP(Land) Class Rating by experience requires how much PIC?

A

6 hours

182
Q

Minimum PIC hours for a multi-engine piston (land)?

A

70

183
Q

Part-MED Class 2 medical is valid for (until 40 years old)?

A

60 months

184
Q

All airspace items on the aviation chart are shown in what kind of height measurement?

A

AMSL

185
Q

For an obstacle to be shown on a chart, it must be higher than…

A

328ft AGL

186
Q

All Restricted Areas apply to all types of aircraft. True or False?

A

False

187
Q

<500ft Terrain on a NATS 1:500,000 chart is

A

White

188
Q

500-1000ft Terrain on a NATS 1:500,000 chart is

A

Yellow

189
Q

> 3000ft Terrain on a NATS 1:500,000 chart is

A

Dark Orange

190
Q

Are hazards of a non-temporary nature marked on a chart?

A

Yes

191
Q

Which of the UK Flight Information Services (outside Controlled airspace) need to have radar in order for that service to be provided?

A

Traffic; Deconfliction

192
Q

Traffic and Deconfliction Services require what ATC equipment?

A

Radar

193
Q

What ATService can AFIS provide?

A

Basic and Alerting

194
Q

What ATService is provided by all types of ATSU?

A

Alerting

195
Q

What does AFIS stand for?

A

Aerodrome Flight Information Service

196
Q

Why can’t AGCS provide an Alerting Service?

A

Air Ground Communications Services (AGCS) is not viewed by the UK as an Air Traffic Service Unit

197
Q

What does AGCS stand for?

A

Air Ground Communications Services

198
Q

How is it possible that ATC can control uncontrolled airspace?

A

If ATC exists at an airfield that has a Class G ATZ, then the airspace is “Notified”

199
Q

Safetycom frequency?

A

135.480

200
Q

What ATSU can’t control in air but can on the ground?

A

AFIS

201
Q

An AGCS ATSU can instruct an aircraft to remain clear of the ATZ. True or False?

A

False

202
Q

Deconfliction only available to what kind of flights?

A

IFR

203
Q

If under Deconfliction Service, a/c must request what?

A

Request a heading or altitude change from the controller

204
Q

Outside CAS, what service must you request heading/altitude changes from the controller?

A

Deconfliction Service

205
Q

What 2 documents keep a Certificate of Airworthiness valid?

A

Airworthiness Review Certificate,
Certificate of Release to Service

206
Q

How long is a C of A valid for?

A

It’s non-expiring

207
Q

What aircraft document is non-expiring?

A

Certificate of Airworthiness

208
Q

Aircraft Documents: What does an ARC stand for?

A

Airworthiness Review Certificate

209
Q

ARC is a single piece of paper that has the space for up to how many entries?

A

3

210
Q

An ARC’s single entry is valid for how long?

A

1 year

211
Q

What is the minimum equipment required to be carried when flying VFR?

A

Airspeed indicator; Altimeter; Compass; Time-piece, Chart

212
Q

Other than the 4 mandatory equipment for an aircraft when flying VFR, what else is required?

A

Chart

213
Q

How long must the existing Weight and Balance Schedule be kept after re-issue following an aircraft re-weigh?

A

6 months

214
Q

Which document details when the next check is due on an aircraft?

A

Certificate of Release to Service (CRS)

215
Q

When should an aircraft anti-collision beacon be turned on?

A

Before engine start, and all the time whilst the engine is running

216
Q

An aircraft may fly anywhere without displaying its registration. True or False?

A

True, but only if an exemption is obtained from every state in which the aircraft is to fly

217
Q

Does airspeed affect VMC criteria?

A

No

218
Q

SVFR can only enter what kind of Controlled Airspace?

A

Control Zone

219
Q

In the UK, is SVFR allowed at night?

A

Yes

220
Q

SVFR minima

A

Inside CTR
Visibility of 1500m
140kt IAS
Clear of cloud and in sight of surface

221
Q

Visibility for SVFR is determined by a controller only when?

A

If aircraft is taking off or landing within a CTR?

222
Q

When can a pilot determine visibility inside controlled airspace?

A

If under SVFR as long as they are not taking off or landing within CTR

223
Q

In uncontrolled airspace, who determines the visibility?

A

Pilots

224
Q

When do pilots determine visibility?

A

Outside controlled airspace and inside a CTR under SVFR if not taking off or landing

225
Q

Chief difference concerning SVFR between SERA and UK ANO?

A

SVFR is permitted at night in the UK

226
Q

To fly IFR, a working radio in the aircraft is always a mandatory requirement. True or False?

A

False

227
Q

For IFR, when is a working radio a mandatory requirement?

A

Inside controlled airspace

228
Q

For IFR, when is a working radio not required?

A

In Class G

229
Q

Is SVFR allowed in Class E airspace?

A

No

230
Q

In what controlled airspace does the VFR minima become reduced for 140kts/below 3000’ etc?

A

Class D

231
Q

ICAO semi-circular rule is determined by what aircraft measurement?

A

Magnetic track

232
Q

Angular difference between the Heading and Track of the aircraft is called?

A

Drift

233
Q

The IFR semi-circular rule only applies when the aircraft is flying above the…?

A

Transition Altitude

234
Q

Under SVFR in the UK, whhat height rule is exempted?

A

Not below 1000ft of highst part of conngested area within 600m

235
Q

SERA low flying rules (SERA.5005)

A

Not below 500ft agl
Not below 1000ft of the highest object of a congested part of a built up area within 600m radius of the aircraft
Not below a height that would allow a landing to be made without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface (SERA.3105)

236
Q

What separation is required when flying near a gathering of more than 1,000 people when not taking off or landing, or performing a practice forced landing?

A

1,000ft height clearance whilst within 600m horizontally of the gathering

237
Q

For clearance requirements, is congested city/town/settlement the same as a city/town/settlement?

A

No

238
Q

An overtaking situation exists when the overtaking aircraft is within what degree of the tail of the other aircraft?

A

70 degrees

239
Q

When are you exempt from all of the low flying requirements?

A

During taking off aand landing

240
Q

Which reference below describes the “Low Flying” prohibitions?

A

SERA.5005

241
Q

IFR 1000ft rule

A

1000ft above highest obstacle in 5nm radius

242
Q

Aircrafts that have right of way should maintain what?

A

Course and speed

243
Q

In the UK there is no minimum height required. True or False?

A

True

244
Q

In the UK there is no minimum height required ONLY if…?

A

The aircraft remains at least 500ft AWAY from any person, vehicle, vessel or structure

245
Q

Who is higher up in hierarchy of giving way in the air? Gliders or airships?

A

Gliders

246
Q

Someone asks you (a pilot) to perform a fly-by at a local village fete, which they will advertise as being an attraction at their event. What has to take place to be legal?

A

ANO Article 86 applies, meaning the pilot must have a Display Authorisation, and an Article 86 permission must be gained from the CAA. All the requirements of CAP403 must be adhered to affecting both pilot and event organiser

247
Q

In order for an aircraft and pilot to be able to participate in that display, they must hold a

A

valid “Display Authorisation”

248
Q

What is the maximum combination length of an aircraft towing a banner?

A

150m

249
Q

You wish to transport your shotgun on a flight with you. What rules and procedures apply?

A

The gun must be unloaded, and not accessible to passengers during flight

250
Q

Does an Air Ground Communications Service have authority over an ATZ?

A

No

251
Q

A pilot may perform aerobatics in an ATZ associated with an AGCS without permission. True or False?

A

True

252
Q

In order to be able to purposely drop anything from an aircraft (except for the purpose of saving life), what do you need?

A

A specific exemption from the Rules of the Air

253
Q

An Article 89 exemption from the CAA costs money?

A

No

254
Q

In order to practice instrument flight, the only requirement is for a competent observer be present in the aircraft. True or False?

A

False

255
Q

In addition to carrying a qualified pilot as a passenger, what else is required for simulated instrument flight conditions?

A

Fully functional dual controls

256
Q

A person on the ground fires a laser pen at an aircraft passing overhead. What (in words) is the ANO article they would be prosecuted under?

A

Endangering the safety of an Aircraft

257
Q

A Part-FCL PPL(A) may perform glider tugging, banner towing and parachute dropping. True or False?

A

True. But only after the correct rating has been obtained if this is to take place after April 2018

258
Q

Caveat to PPL(A) pilots being able to do glider tugging/banner towing and parachute dropping (with appropriate ratings)

A

Cannot be renumerated (paid)

259
Q

Best way to describe rights of way for ground manouevering?

A

An aircraft under its own power has PRIORITY over a vehicle towing an aircraft

260
Q

An aircraft on the ground under its own power has to give way to a vehicle towing an aircraft. True or False?

A

False

261
Q

Air Traffic refers to any aircraft…

A

In the air or on the manoeuvring area of an airfield

262
Q

Where does the term Air Traffic not apply?

A

Apron

263
Q

What useful rule can be remembered for explaining landing ON THE RIGHT of a departing aircraft?

A

Default circuit direction is lefthand

264
Q

At an airfield with no designated runway, when coming in to land with an aircraft lined up for take-off, what side should you land on?

A

Right

265
Q

What is the meaning of a flashing white light signalled from the ground to an aircraft in flight?

A

Land here and proceed to the apron when clearances given

266
Q

What is the meaning of a flashing white light signalled from the ground to an aircraft on the ground?

A

Return to starting point of aerodrome

267
Q

What signifies your first place to visit when arriving at an airfield?

A

A black “C” on a yellow square background

268
Q

A black “C” on a yellow square background indicates what?

A

Control Point of an aerodrome

269
Q

On the ground, when overtaking another aircraft, which side do you pass?

A

Either side

270
Q

What colour is a Civilian Aerodrome Identification beacon always?

A

Green

271
Q

Civilian Aerodrome Identification beacons flash what?

A

Morse identity of aerodrome

272
Q

Civilian Aerodrome Beacons can flash what?

A

Just white or alternate white/green

273
Q

On a cross-country exercise, you follow the A140 to Norwich

A

You should keep the line feature on your left

274
Q

Formal (ATS) Flight Plans are advised if flight is to take place:

A

Over the sea
More than 10 miles from the coast
Over sparsely populated areas where SAR operations might be difficult

275
Q

A formal (ATS) flight plan must be filed when??

A

The flight crosses an International Boundary (an international FIR boundary).

276
Q

You must use what pressure altitude setting when flying below controlled airspace??

A

QNH

277
Q

What is the difference between the QNH and the Regional Pressure Setting (RPS)?

A

QNH is the actual pressure setting at this point in time. The Regional Pressure Setting (RPS) is a forecast pressure setting that is the lowest forecast setting for the next 2 hours (updated hourly) in a given Altimeter Setting Region (ASR)

278
Q

When does issues relating to customs apply to foreign aircraft in a state?

A

Only if they are landing or departing from that state

279
Q

Under the Convention on International Civil Aviation, a State must not force an aircraft to land for customs purposes. True or False?

A

True

280
Q

An aircraft overflies a state. Are they subject to customs purposes?

A

No

281
Q

Are interception procedures required to be carried on international flights?

A

Yes

282
Q

Are aircraft journey logbooks required to be carried on international flights?

A

Yes

283
Q

Is the cargo manifest required to be carried on international flights?

A

Yes

284
Q

Does a state have the right to search an aircraft, and if so, what conditions apply?

A

Yes, providing no “unreasonable delay” is incurred

285
Q

What condition applies when a state is searching a foreign aircraft?

A

No unreasonable delay is incurred

286
Q

An aircraft flies in a foreign airspace. What laws apply?

A

Air law of state the aircraft is registered in and the state the aircraft is flying in

287
Q

You decide to take off from Earls Colne (UK), transit across France without landing, then land in Germany. Do you need prior permission from France and Germany to do so from an aviation Air Law perspective?

A

No permission from either required

288
Q

ICAO Article 5 concerns what about permissions?

A

No permission required for overflight and arrivals if non-scheduled

289
Q

What condition largely exempts a flight from permissions etc in international flying?

A

Non-scheduled

290
Q

What technique should be used when transmitting messages in a radio failure situation?

A

Prefix all messages with “Transmitting blind”

291
Q

What is the prefix for an URGENCY message?

A

PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN

292
Q

What is used for a distress signal? Pan or Mayday

A

Mayday

293
Q

What is used for an urgency signal?

A

Pan-Pan

294
Q

What is more serious? Distress or urgency?

A

Disttress

295
Q

When escaping a Prohibited Area, what should pilots not do?

A

Descend

296
Q

If Pan-Pan, what is broadcast in Morse code (if necessary)?

A

X-X-X

297
Q

Morse broadcast of X-X-X means an aircraft is what?

A

In a state of urgency (pan-pan)

298
Q

If you have already been given a squawk by the current ATSU you are talking to during an emergency, what should you do?

A

Keep that squawk

299
Q

If you have not been given a squawk by the current ATSU you are talking to in an emergency, what should you do?

A

Squawk 7700

300
Q

Aerobatics squawk

A

7004

301
Q

Lost squawk

A

0030

302
Q

A squawk code of 0030 means an aircraft is

A

Lost

303
Q

What is the international distress VHF frequency?

A

121.500 MHz

304
Q

Aircraft response if intercepted?

A

Rocking aircraft, flashing navigational lights at irregular intervals and following.

305
Q

Intercepted aircraft regular switching on and off of all available lights but in such a manner as to be distinct from flashing lights means?

A

Cannot comply

306
Q

Intercepting aircraft commences an abrupt breakaway manoeuvre from the intercepted aircraft consisting of a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft. This means?

A

You may proceed

307
Q

How should you try to make contact with your interceptor?

A

On 121.5 MHz

308
Q

Death by natural causes on a flight is a reportable accident?

A

False

309
Q

A passenger suffers a heart attack in your aircraft, survives, but dies 6 days later. Since this is an occurrence within 7 days of the flight, it becomes a reportable accident. True or False?

A

False

310
Q

Who investigates accidents?

A

AAIB

311
Q

Does the CAA investigate accidents?

A

No

312
Q

Is blame apportioned in an aircraft accident investigation?

A

No

313
Q

What does CHIRP stand for?

A

Confidential Human Factors Incident Reporting Programme.

314
Q

Is CHIRP anonymous?

A

No

315
Q

A serious injury is defined by a hospital stay of longer than….?

A

48 hours

316
Q

A pilot tells ATC about significant wind sheer on the approach. What is the official name for this type of observation?

A

A Special Air Report

317
Q

Bird Strikes are a mandatory occurrence report item?

A

True

318
Q

Reporting of bird strikes is optional, and any remains should be sent for analysis if the type of bird cannot be identified. True or False?

A

False

319
Q

What should be your initial response to being intercepted?

A

Rock your wings and follow the interceptor

320
Q

A student pilot on a solo circuit detail hears “PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN” from an aircraft in the overhead at the same airfield whilst the student is on base leg. What is the best course of action for the student to take?

A

Continue their approach and land as soon as possible

321
Q

Which of the following R/T calls is correct on the downwind leg on Runway 24 when a full stop landing is planned?

A

Downwind

322
Q

Pre-conditioning in terms of human factors in the circuit means

A

Every approach should be planned with a go-around ocurring

323
Q

A student pilot must have completed 3 take-offs and landings in the previous 90 days before solo flight. True or False?

A

False

324
Q

Why does the 3 takeoffs and landings in the last 90 days rule not apply to students?

A

Students cannot carry passengers

325
Q

Only exception to Aircraft shall not land on an occupied runway?

A

Land after clearance from a full ATC ATSU

326
Q

Can you land on an occupied runway at an AGCS-staffed aerodrome?

A

No

327
Q

Fly on what side of runway when going around because of a departing aircraft?

A

Dead side

328
Q

From a legal perspective, it is permissible for an aircraft to take-off from an “occupied” runway?

A

Yes

329
Q

As a student pilot, at an airfield with an AGCS ATSU, you line up on the runway behind a landing aircraft. When may you take off?

A

When you consider it safe to do so with enough room between you and the landing aircraft

330
Q

Which document contains the official aviation sunset times?

A

AIP

331
Q

What intl agency is a ‘competent authority’ related to?

A

EASA

332
Q

Article 4 of ICAO Convention

A

Misuse of civil aviation

333
Q

What does SARPs stand for?

A

Standards and Recommended Practices

334
Q

What SARPs are discussed in ICAO Annex 2?

A

Rules of the Air

335
Q

What characterises a hot air balloon’s night lighting?

A

A red flashing light

336
Q

Colour of runway threshold lights?

A

Green in approach, red at the end

337
Q

What ICAO Article concerns sovereignty?

A

Article 1

338
Q

A white light and red/green nav lights at night indicate an?

A

Airship

339
Q

What ICAO Annex concerns search and rescue operations?

A

Annex 12

340
Q

When reporting water on the runway, what is considered to be a ‘significant portion’ of wetness of a runway?

A

25% of one third of the runway

341
Q

When reporting a runway’s state, how is it reported?

A

Each third of the runway reported separately

342
Q

Temporarily displaced runway thresholds are characterised with what symbol?

A

White chevrons

343
Q

Wingsocks become horizontal at what approximate speed?

A

25 to 30 knots

344
Q

What categories of Rescue and FireFighting (RFF) cover most light aircraft?

A

1 and 2

345
Q

Marshalling: waving both hands above shoulders left to right and back to left

A

Continue ahead

346
Q

Marshalling: waving both hands below shoulders left to right and back to left

A

Slow down

347
Q

Marshalling: both hands below shoulder stationary

A

Hold position

348
Q

Marshalling: clenching fist

A

Set brakes

349
Q

Marshalling: unclenching fist

A

Release brakes

350
Q

Marshalling: hands high above ahead and moving inwards

A

Chocks inserted

351
Q

Marshalling: hands high above head and moving outwards

A

Chocks removed

352
Q

Marshalling: paddles in one hand below shoulders and the other hand waving

A

Recommend evacuation

353
Q

Marshalling: overlapping both hands well below shoulders together

A

Emergency contained

354
Q

What takes precedence: light signals or a flare?

A

Flare

355
Q

How to acknowledge a light signal on the ground at day?

A

Moving ailerons and rudder

356
Q

How to acknowledge a light signal in the air (unless on finals) at day?

A

Rocking wings

357
Q

VFR flights can land or depart from aerodromes within CTR with what minima?

A

Cloud ceiling 1500ft
Visibility 5km

358
Q

Can Special VFR not talk to ATC?

A

No

359
Q

What airspace doesn’t exist in the UK/

A

Class F

360
Q

Prohibited, Restricted Areas and Danger Zones are categorised as what?

A

Notified Airspace

361
Q

On an airspace chart, an area labelled with Rxxx is a what?

A

Restricted Area

362
Q

What does RMZ stand for?

A

Radio Mandatory Zone

363
Q

Item to remember on NOTAM publications to do with the date?

A

Format is written in reverse

364
Q

Part-FCL vocabulary often refers to gliders as…?

A

Sailplanes

365
Q

How long is a Multi-Engine Piston Rating valid for?

A

12 months

366
Q

How soon before an expiry date of an SEP rating can a proficiency check be performed?

A

3 months

367
Q

Experience required for revalidation of MEP?

A

Proficiency check
10 route sectors as PIC
1 route sector with an examiner

368
Q

MEP revalidation can involve which overlap?

A

1 route sector with examiner can be performed during the proficiency check

369
Q

LAPL max weight and passengers?

A

2000 kg and 3 passengers

370
Q

Passengers can only be flown after what requirement?

A

10 hours PIC after license issue

371
Q

Flying below 140KIAS under 3000ft reduces VMC minima from what to what?

A

Visibility 5km to 1500m

372
Q

Class 1 Medical Certificate validity up to 40 years of age

A

12 months

373
Q

Validity of Class 2 Medical, 40 to 50 years of age?

A

24 months

374
Q

Validity of Class 2 Medical over 50 years of age?

A

12 months

375
Q

Unless above 60 years of age, in multi-pilot environments a Class 1 Medical is valid for how long?

A

12 months

376
Q

Which document details when the next check is due on an aircraft?

A

Certificate of Release to Service

377
Q

When under SVFR, what restriction is waived in the UK relating to minimum height?

A

1000ft rule

378
Q

An Aerodrome Identification Beacon can be white?

A

False

379
Q

An Aerodrome Identification Beacon is always what colour?

A

Green

380
Q

Pilots should contact an ATC unit or other Authority at an aerodrome they are expected at if delayed by…?

A

30 minutes or more

381
Q

Who is responsible for starting the investigation into an aircraft accident?

A

The Authority of the State in which the accident occurred

382
Q

Is a serious injury to a person classed as an aircraft accident?

A

Yes

383
Q

At night, a location emitting a two-letter morse code in red is a..?

A

Military airport

384
Q

Mode C displays what info?

A

Aircraft’s flight level

385
Q

If a flightplan’s destination remains the same but its routing changes, does it require a new flightplan?

A

No

386
Q

On a chart, GVS stands for?

A

Gas Venting Stations

387
Q

Which of the following documents will contain the name of the aircraft owner?

A

Certificate of Registration

388
Q

An air traffic control unit shall not issue a special VFR clearance to aircraft to take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or aerodrome traffic circuit when the reported meteorological conditions at that aerodrome are below the following minima:

A

The ground visibility is less than 1500 m or, for helicopters, less than 800 m;
The ceiling is less than 180 m (600 ft).

389
Q

SVFR minima

A

1500m visibility

PPL (4 decks)

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