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millwright level 2 test questions from teacher > Metallurgy, shafts, fits, lubrication test from teacher > Flashcards

Metallurgy, shafts, fits, lubrication test from teacher Flashcards

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1
Q

what is the best definition of metallurgy

study of science

study of metal characteristics during welding

study of mining

study of structure, properties, extraction and refining of metals

A

study of structure , properties extraction and refining of metals

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2
Q

alloy steel has other elements in it to improve its mechanical properties

true

False

A

true

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3
Q

aluminium is used because it is has a light weight and it resists corrosion

true

False

A

true

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4
Q

which of the following is not a mechanical property of metals

hardness

toughness

tensile strength

softness

A

softness

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5
Q

what is the difference between hot and cold rolled steel

hot rolled steel has a scale left on its surface after bing rolled and cooled

hot rolled is harder after cooling

colled rolled steel has a scale left on it after being rolled

cold rolled steel is made oversized to allow for machining

A

hot rolled steel has a scale left on its surface after bing rolled and cooled

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6
Q

stress relieving high carbon steels to 400 - 600 degrees F and letting it cool down is an action of

tempering

annealing

normalizing

stretching

A

tempering

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7
Q

when quenching steel, you will use ______ to help cool it

air

oil

water or brine

any of the above, depending on how quickly it needs to be cooled

A

any of the above, depending on how quickly it needs to be cooled

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8
Q

which of the following is a physical property of metals

color

weight

texture

all the above

A

all the above

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9
Q

the carbon content range of low carbon steel (mild) is

0.02 %- 0.30 %

0.30 % - 0.45 %

0.45 % - 0.75 %

0.75 % - 1.5 %

A

0.02%-0.30%

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10
Q

the lower critical temperature of carbon steel is ______________ degrees F

1333

1100

1450

2400

A

1333

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11
Q

an increase in carbon content of steel will

increase the ductility

increase the hardness

improves the machinability

decreases the brittleness

A

increase the hardness

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12
Q

annealing is

to make a hardened work piece harder

to make a hardened work piece softer by quenching it at 1450 degrees F

to make a hardened work piece soft again so it can be machined

to relieve the hardening of the steel by machining

A

to make a hardened work piece soft again so it can be machined

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13
Q

tempering steel is to relieve the amount of hardening______________________

by heating it to the upper critical point and quenching

by machining

and internal stresses by heating above the lower critical point and cooling at any desired rate

and internal stresses by heating the steel to below the lower critical temperature and cooling at any desired rate

A

and internal stresses by heating the steel to below the lower critical temperature and cooling at any desired rate

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13
Q

pearlite is a

form of steel at high temperatures

hardened form of steel

stucture of soft steel consisting of layers of ferrite and cementite

type of iron carbide

A

stucture of soft steel consisting of layers of ferrite and cementite

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14
Q

martensite is a

form of steel at high temperature

a structure of hardened steel consisting of angular needle-like crystals

a mixture of ferrite and cementite

a type of iron carbide

A

a structure of hardened steel consisting of angular needle-like crystals

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15
Q

austenite is a

form of steel at high temperatures, (ferrite and cementite dissolve into each other)

the hardened form of steel

layers of ferrite and cementite

type of carbide

A

form of steel at high temperatures, (ferrite and cementite dissolve into each other)

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16
Q

cementite means

form of steel at high temperatures

the hardened form of steel

a mixture of ferrite and pearlite

a type of iron carbide

A

type of iron carbide

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17
Q

toughness means the ability of a metal to

resist penetration

be deformed without breaking

withstand a pull without breaking

withstand shock or impact

A

withstand shock or impact

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18
Q

hardness means the ability of a metal to

resist penetration

be defomed without breaking

withstand a pull without breaking

withstand shock or impact

A

resist penetration

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19
Q

ductility means the ability of a metal to

resist penetration

be deformed without breaking

withstand a pull without breaking

withstand shock or impact

A

be deformed with out breaking

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20
Q

tensile strength means the ability of a metal to

resist penetration

be deformed without breaking

withstand a pull without breaking

withstand shock or impact

A

with stand a pull with out breaking

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21
Q

pipes and tubes can be produced in 2 ways.______________ and __________

rolled and welded, pierced and formed

rolled and welded, drawn thru a die

rolled and welded, cast

pierced and formed, drawn thru a die

A

rolled and welded, pierced and formed

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22
Q

cast iron is considered to have a carbon content of____________

0.60 % to 0.80 %

0.80 % to 1.0%

1.0 % to 1.5 %

1.7 % to 4.5 %

A

1.7%-4.5%

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23
Q

what makes stainless steel corrosion resistant

carbon

tungsten

aluminium

chromium

A

chromium

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24
Q

brass is a mixture of

copper and tin

copper and zinc

bronze and zinc

bronze and tin

A

bronze and zinc

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25
Q

which of the following is not a tool steel sub group

high speed

water hardening

shock resistant

quench and temper

A

quench and temper

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26
Q

a light straw color when heating up steel during tempering and before cooling would be good for what type of tools

cutting tools

screw drivers

wood saws

shear blades

A

cutting tools

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27
Q

when testing a piece of steel with a file, you find that the file can barely cut the metal. what Rockwell hardness is the steel

20

30

40

50

A

50

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28
Q

in the classification 1141, what does the 41 stand for

carbon content

sulfur added

carbon steel

chromium steel

A

carbon content

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29
Q

hardness testing can be done in different ways. which one of the following is not a true test

rockwell

Brinell

file

torch

A

torch

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29
Q

MTR stands for _________________ (when dealing with steel orders)

miller test results

mill test reports

material thermal resistance

metal treatment reports

A

mill test reports

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30
Q

the main differences between ferrous and non-ferrous metals are

carbon content and machinability

iron content and magnetism

color and texture

hardness and ductility

A

iron content and magnetism

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31
Q

when using the spark test to find out the type of material, what spark shape would high speed steel have

long, straight and yellowish

short with branches that burst, dark yellow

has many bursts with red color near the grinder

orange color with little branching, ends up in ball shaped sparks

A

orange color with little branching, ends up in ball shaped sparks

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32
Q

which shaped beam will use tapered washers to help bolt it to the foundation

standard beam (S)

welded wide flange (WWF)

wide flange (W)

none of the above

A

wide flange (W)

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33
Q

how do you size a hollow structural section

width and height

width and inside diameter

inside diameter and outside diameter

wall thickness and outside diameter or dimensions

A

wall thickness and outside diameter or dimensions

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34
Q

only steel with a carbon content of ______ and above can be hardened

0.01%

0.05%

0.1%

0.2%

A

0.2

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35
Q

beryllium bronze is a health hazard when it is machined. the particles produced are toxic and must not be inhaled or permitted to touch the skin

true

false

A

true

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36
Q

keys are timing devices are designed to fail before any other part in a gear train, shaft or hub assembly

true

false

A

true

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37
Q

the width of a square or flat key should be about ____ of the shaft diameter

1/8

1/4

1/3

1/2

A

1/4

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38
Q

a pratt and whiteny key _______________________

does not require a key seat in the shaft

is a boxed or blind key

can be fixed or sliding

has a taper 1 in 96

can be used on a parallel or tapered shaft

A

is a boxed or blind key

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39
Q

a woodruff key

does not require a key seat in the shaft

is boxed or a blind key

can be fixed or sliding

has a taper of 1 in 96

can be used on a parallel or tapered shaft

A

can be used on a parallel or tapered shaft

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40
Q

a tapered gib head key

does not require a key seat in the shaft

can be boxed or a blind key

has a taper of 1 in 96

can be used on a parallel or tapered shaft

A

has a taper of 1 in 96

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41
Q

a saddle key

does not require a keyseat in the shaft

can be boxed or a blind key

can be fixed or sliding

has a taper of 1 in 96

can be used on a parallel or tapered shaft

A

does not require a keyseat in the shaft

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42
Q

a feather key

does not require a key seat in the shaft

can be boxed or a blind key

can be fixed or sliding

has a taper of 1 in 96

can be used on a parallel or tapered shaft

A

can be fixed or sliding

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43
Q

if you had a woodrufr key with a number of 406, the width would be_______ and the diameter would be______

1/16, 1

1/8, 3/4

1/4, 1/2

1/8, 1/2

A
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44
Q

parallel key seats in shafts can be open or tapered

true

False

A

false

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44
Q

the accurate, proper depth of a key seat in a shaft is measured from

the bottom of a key seat to the top of the key seat end

the bottom of the key seat to the top of the key seat side

the bottom of the shaft to the bottom of the key seat

none of the above

A

the bottom of the shaft to the bottom of the key seat

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45
Q

you should not use a_______________key with a cast hub

gib head parallel

feather

pratt and whitney

tapered key

A

tapered key

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46
Q

key stock is manufactured with low to medium carbon steel (AISI) 1020 to a ___________tolerence

minus (under sized)

plus (over sized)

size on size

A

plus (over sized)

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47
Q

key seats in hubs and attachments will be cut to a depth equal to

half the key

half the key plus the clearance

half the hub width plus the tolerance

half the key minus the clearance

A

half the key plus the clearance

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48
Q

you can cut key seats with

portable key seat cutter

hand broaching with an arbor press

milling machines with endmills

all the above

A

all the above

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49
Q

when installing keys, on shafts and in tapered bushings, you can put anti-seize on the keys and tapers of the bushings to help stop seizing and damage to the bushing, key seats and the key

true

false

A

false

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50
Q

when fitting keys, a class ______ fit has a tight fit while a class_______ fit has a clearance fit

1, 2

3, 2

2, 1

2, 3

A

2, 1

51
Q

there should always be a clearance (0.005”) on the ________ of a key

top

end

bottom

side

A

top

52
Q

setscrews are used to lock attachments onto shafts. for positive locking power, you should

use 2 setscrews of a similar width to the key. one on the key and one 90 degrees to the first

lubricate the threads on the setscrew for maximum thrust

use a knurled cup point setscrew for positive positioning

all the above

A

all the above

53
Q

to help facilitate removal of hubs and attachments, you should

make sure there are not 2 setscrews in the hole

file a flat where the setscrew fastens to the shaft to eliminate hang-ups from burrs

use fox wedges to help in removal of gib head keys

all the above

A

all the above

54
Q

to help facilitate removal of tapered keys, the gib head should be about 1/4” away from the hub to allow for wedges

true

false

A

true

55
Q

when removing stubborn parallel keys, you can use

slide hammers welded to the end of the key

a dutchman

locking pliers

all the above

A

all the above

56
Q

a journal is the part of the spindle, shaft or axle that rotates in or on a plain friction bearing

true

false

A

true

56
Q

finished shafting is manufactured to wide tolerances and uses finishes like cold rolled, machining, grinding and polishing

true

false

A

false

57
Q

C 1045 is percision shafting (percision ground and polished from medium carbon steel) and has a carbon content of

1.0 %

0.1 %

4.5 %

0.45 %

A

0.45 %

58
Q

hollow shafting is found on shaft mounted reducers

true

false

A

true

59
Q

shaft stresses include bending, shear and ________________

axial thrust

radial thrust

torsional shear

bearing pressure

A

torsional shear

60
Q

whenever there is a shoulder machined into a shaft, there should be a __________at the base of the should to help strengthen the shaft and reduce the stress in this area. it should also allow the bearing to sit up against the _____________

fillet, shoulder

square corner, shoulder

taper, radius

fillet, radius

A

fillet, shoulder

61
Q

when checking for ____________, you should put the shaft in the lathe centres and set up_______________ to measure for it while rotating the shaft 360 degrees.

runout, feeler gauges

continuity, dial indicators

runout, dial indicators

critical speed, dial indicators

A

runout, dial indicators

62
Q

if a bearing fit on a shaft is to loose, it will creep

true

false

A

true

62
Q

the ________ bushing does not have a key in the taper of the bushing

QD

split

A

QD

63
Q

tapered sleeves are used for positive bearing location and fit. they have a locking washer to lock the sleeve onto the shaft

true

false

A

false

64
Q

shear pins____________the machine drive in an overload situation

drive

disconnect

position

center

A

disconnect

65
Q

when locking eccentric locking collars onto the bearing and shaft, you must rotate the eccentrc locking collar in the direction of the shaft rotation

true

false

A

true

66
Q

ine shafting has bearings located at a maximum distance of _____ between bearings and the fixed bearing should be located as close as possible to the ___________

8’, end of the shaft

8’, drive unit

6’, drive unit

6’, end of the shaft

A

8’, drive unit

67
Q

tapered dowel pins have a taper of ________ per foot

1/16”

1/8”

1/4”

1/2”

A

1/4”

68
Q

tolerances for dimensioning are the total permissible variation in it size and also determines the fit between mating parts

true

false

A

true

69
Q

ANSI fits are broken down into 3 groups - running and sliding fits, location fits and force fits.

true

false

A

true

70
Q

ISO metric fits have ______ case letters that represent the hole or bore size and _________ case letters that represent the shaft size

upper, lower

lower, upper

in is not letters but numbers

it depends on the size of the shaft

A

upper , lower

71
Q

when selecting a puller, the ____________ determines the puller size

reach

spread

force required

all the above

A

all the above

72
Q

presses must have proper gaurding in place before putting them to use

true

false

A

true

73
Q

basic size is the nominal size

after tolerances are added

before adding tolerances

after adding only one positive tolerance

after adding one negative tolerance

A

before adding tolerances

74
Q

if a shaft has a plus tolerance of + 0.004” and a minus tolerance of - 0.000”, this would be a

bilateral tolerance

unilateral tolerance

basic size

all of the above

A

unilateral tolerance

75
Q

allowance is

the intentional difference between mating parts at MMC

the minimum clearance (positive allowance) of mating parts

maximum interference (negative allowance) of mating parts

all the above

A

all the above

76
Q

MMC is

shaft is as big as allowed and hole is a big as allowed

shaft is as big as allowed and hole is as small as allowed

shaft is as small as allowed and hole is as big as allowed

shaft is as small as allowed and hole is as small as allowed

A

shaft is as big as allowed and hole is as small as allowed

77
Q

which type of fit can be both sliding and press

interference

clearance

transition

shrink

A

transition

78
Q

freeze fitting is what type of fitting

shrink

expansion

sliding

forced

A

expansion

79
Q

if you used a hydraulic press to push a hub onto a shaft, this would be a _____fit

shrink

expansion

sliding

force

A

force

80
Q

surface roughness is measured in micro inches or micro meters with roughness grade numbers from N 1 to N 12

true

false

A

true

81
Q

lubrications main function is to reduce

friction

wear

heat

power consumption

A

friction

81
Q

a revision number to a drawing is enclosed in a _______________ and is located near the revised dimension

triangle

circle

all the above

A

all the above

82
Q

sliding friction

has no metal to metal contact. has electromagnetic bonds

has adheasive wear and asperities touching and welding

has a small contact area and is slightly deformed

A

has adheasive wear and asperities touching and welding

83
Q

rolling friction

has no metal to metal contact. has electromagnetic bonds

has adheasive wear and asperities touching and welding

has a small contact area and is slighly deformed

A

has a small contact area and is slighly deformed

84
Q

fluid friction

has no metal to metal contact. has electromagnetic bonds

has adheasive wear and asperities touching and welding

has a small contact area and is slightly deformed

A

has no metal to metal contact. has electromagnetic bonds

85
Q

viscosity is

the resistance to flow in a fluid

the most important property of lubricating oil

measured in centistokes and SUS

all the above

A

all the above

86
Q

viscosity index identifies the amount of change in the viscosity of a lubricant over a temperature range ( 40 to 100 degrees C). a high VI number means

a major change in viscosity

a small change in viscosity

A

a small change in viscosity

87
Q

an oilwedge is formed by hydrodynamic principles as the shaft rotates

true

false

A

true

88
Q

boundary film forms

at low speeds

at high speeds

at low viscosity

both the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

A

both the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

89
Q

which is the correct sequence for the formation of the oil wedge
1. the oil wedge drags the oil into the loaded area
2. shaft journal starts to climb the boundary lubricated area on rotation
3. jounal starts to skid as it climbs onto the area of partial lubrication
4. boundary film adhears to the journal beside loaded area

1,2,3,4

2,4,3,1

4,2,3,1

3,4,2,1

A

4,2,3,1

90
Q

to have full hydrodynamic lubrication (at running speed) you will need to

have only boundary film

have only partial film

have a RPM and viscosity high enough to form full film lubrication

none of the above

A

have a RPM and viscosity high enough to form full film lubrication

91
Q

Naphtha based oils have the highest wax content

true

false

A

false

91
Q

petroleum base oils

do not wear out

are stable up to 55 degrees C

cheap compared to all other oils

all the above

A

all th above

92
Q

the total additive package added to base oils is about____________of the oil

11 %

22 %

33 %

1 %

A

22

93
Q

synthetic oils

eliminate wax problems

made up of at least 10 chemical bases

stable up to 250 degrees C

all the above

A

all the above

94
Q

which statement is not true about oxidation

rate of oxidation of petroleum oils doubles with every 8 degrees C temperature rise above 55 degrees C

produces sludge

raises the viscosity of the oil

increases in the presence of anti-oxidants

A

ncreases in the presence of anti-oxidants

95
Q

rust and corrosion inhibitors work by forming a protective layer on the metal surfaces

true

false

A

true

96
Q

on worm and wheel reducers, the

worm passes oil to the wheel from the oil bath

wheel passes the oil to the top bearings by having scrapers take it off the wheel

flingers on the worm pass oil to the worm bearings

all the above

A

all the above

97
Q

load capacity control with additives such as ____________ and ___________________help with reducing wear during boundary lubrication

E.P., anti-foam

anti-foam, anti-wear

anti-wear, E.P.

anti-foam, E.P.

A

anti-wear, E.P.

98
Q

E.P. additives with sulphur and phosphorous corrode copper and bronze

true

false

A

true

99
Q

when oil and water have been separated, they are said to be

dispersed

emulsified

demulsified

washed

A

demulsified

100
Q

once thru systems do not recycle the oil. which of the following is not a once thru system

bottle

wick feed

hand oiler

splash

A

splash

100
Q

a lubrication system’s job is to wet the surfaces of rolling elements and maintain the oil level

1/3 to 1/2 the way up the lowest rolling element

1/3 to 1/2 the way up the total bearing

just over the bottom rolling element

just touching the bottom rolling element

A

1/3 to 1/2 the way up the lowest rolling element

101
Q

which of the following systems uses capillary action to move the oil

bottle

wick feed

hand oiler

splash

A

wick feed

102
Q

the wick feed and drop feed have ways to adjust the amount of oil being delivered

true

false

A

true

103
Q

block lubrication systems have advantages. which is not one of them

single point adjustable flow volume with one pump

rupture disc feature

allows easy recycling of the oil to the tank

modular design of divider blocks

A

allows easy recycling of the oil to the tank

104
Q

oil mist lubrication

is used for high speed bearings

can be once thru

is used for high speed roller chain

all the above

A

all the above

105
Q

in recirculating pressure lubrication systems, the reservoir helps

cool the oil

aerate the oil

settle out contaminants

both the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

A

both the 1st and 3rd answers are correct

106
Q

an industrial mechanic can check oil by smell, touch, and sight. when using site, you can check the oil for

oxidation

dissolved water or air

metallic particles

all the above

A

all the above

107
Q

oil analysis tells us about the

types of contamintion

viscosity

wear rate and condition of the machine

all the above

A

all the above

108
Q

wear metal (in oil samples) is measured in parts per million and identifies the wearing components. this procedure is called spectroscopy

true

false

A

true

108
Q

when taking samples of the oil, you should always take it at regular intervals and once the machine has cooled down

true

false

A

true

109
Q

partical counts in oil samples tells us the number of particles per million for each of the following particle sizes

2,5,15

2,7,18

3,6,15

5,15,24

A

2,5,15

110
Q

on-line flushing is done during machine operation

true

false

A

false

111
Q

consistency of a grease is the degree to which it resists deforming under force and is

a measure of its color

measured using a cone penetration test and given a NLGI number

measure of its drop point

all the above

A

all the above

111
Q

grease is made up of a liquid lubricant and a thickener that can be

soap

clay

polyurea

all the above

A

all the above

112
Q

greases are classified by the type of thickener, NLGI number and

its pumpability

its drop point

its application

its color

A

its application

113
Q

the base oil held in the thickener is released by the addition of

soap

fatty acides

pressure

the thickener

A

pressure

114
Q

inorganic non-soap thickeners are good in high temperatures and wet conditions

true

false

A

true

115
Q

a grease with a 6 NLGI grade will be a ______________ grease

soft

medium

hard

high penatration numbered

A

hard

116
Q

low temperature operation of greases would require a NLGI of 0 to 1 with a oil viscosity of _________

about 15 centistokes

between 75 and 200 centistokes

110 centistokes with additives to improve oxidation stability

none of the above

A

about 15 centistrokes

117
Q

when dealing with heavy loads with greases, you would want to have a grease with ___________

molybdenum

E.P. additives

water

the 1st and 2nd answers are correct

A

the 1st and 2nd answers are correct

118
Q

when packing a bearing with grease, you will pack the housing ________ full for high speeds and _______ full for slow speeds

1/2. 1/3

1/3, 1/2

2/3, 1/2

3/4, 2/3

A

1/3, 1/2

119
Q

dry, solid lubricants like graphite, are used in pins and bushings where moisture is present

true

false

A

true

120
Q

automatic centralized grease systems can lubricate many areas with a metered amount of grease at a given rate or time

true

false

A

true

121
Q

teflon and molybdenum disuphate is used in engine oil to help with foaming issues

true

false

A

false

millwright level 2 test questions from teacher (7 decks)

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