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Metabolism and Survival Flashcards

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1
Q

What does metabolism mean?

A

Metabolism is all the chemical reactions taking place within a cell

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2
Q

What is meant by metabolic pathway?

A

A metabolic pathway is the series of chemical reactions occurring in a cell

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3
Q

What controls the chemical reactions that take place in a cell?

A

Enzymes

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4
Q

What two reactions can a metabolic pathway be?

A

Anabolic or catabolic

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5
Q

What is an anabolic reaction?

A

Anabolic reactions build up large molecules from small molecules and require energy.

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6
Q

An Example of a anabolic reaction is?

A

Protein synthesis

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7
Q

What is a catabolic reaction?

A

Catabolic reactions break down large molecules into small molecules and release energy.

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8
Q

An Examples of a catabolic reaction is?

A

Aerobic respiration

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9
Q

Why do alternative routes occur?

A

They occur when a specific enzyme or substrate isn’t available in a pathway, then sometimes an end product can still be made by using alternative routes.

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10
Q

What can alternative routes do?

A

They can bypass steps in a pathway

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11
Q

Alternative routes may take longer but they still result in what?

A

The same or similar end product that is needed.

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12
Q

Some organelles have what?

A

Inner membranes which have compartments

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13
Q

What do an organelles compartments allow?

A

Metabolic activity to be localised so conditions for reactions are more favourable.

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14
Q

What is the function of the outer membrane in the mitochondria?

A

Separate it from the rest of the cell contents.

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15
Q

What is the function of the inner membrane in the mitochondria?

A

Provides a large surface area for reactions to take place upon.

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16
Q

The chloroplast is also a double membrane structure what does it do?

A

The membrane forms a compartment and allows specific reactions to take place within the chloroplast

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17
Q

What happens with the surface to volume ratio with double membranes?

A

The high surface to volume ratio of small compartments creates high concentrations and high reaction rates.

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18
Q

What happens to the surface to volume ratio when an object increases?

What does this mean?

A

The surface area to volume ration decreases.

It’s better to have small cells so that the surface area to volume ration is as large as possible to increase the rate of chemical reactions.

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19
Q

What does the cell membrane consist of?

A

Protein and phospholipid molecules

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20
Q

What type of model is the cell membrane known as?

A

Fluid mosaic model

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21
Q

What do the phospholipid molecules do in the cell membrane?

A

Form a double layer and are constantly in motion, giving a fluid nature to membranes and making them flexible.

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22
Q

How are the proteins placed in the cell membrane?

What do the proteins in a cell membrane do?

A

Proteins are scattered in a patchy mosaic pattern.

Some proteins form pores, others are pumps that penetrate through the membrane and some are enzymes that catalyse chemical reactions.

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23
Q

What are Channel-forming (pores) proteins?

What do they do?

A

Larger molecules depend on certain protein molecules to allow them passage across the membrane.

These protein molecules contain pores. Provide channels for specific substances to diffuse across the membrane. Making the membrane selectively permeable.

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24
Q

What are carrier (pump) proteins?

A

Act as carrier molecules which recognise specific ions and transport them across the membrane.

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25
Q

What are carrier (pumps) proteins used in?

A

Active transport and require energy available by ATP.

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26
Q

What do enzymes in the molecule do and how are they placed?

A

They catalyse a specific reaction and organise the sequence of reactions essential to cell.

Embedded in cell.

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27
Q

What do metabolic pathways need to be?

A

Regulated and controlled.

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28
Q

How can metabolic pathways be regulated and controlled?

What will they do?

A

Can be done the presence or absence of a particular enzyme.

Stop the build up of an end product that isn’t needed.

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29
Q

What do intracellular and extracellular signalling molecules do?

A

Control metabolic pathways

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30
Q

What is intracellular?

What is extracellular?

A

Inside the cell

Outside the cell

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31
Q

What is an induced fit?

A

Induced fits occur where the active site of the enzyme changes shape to fit the substrate after the substrate binds.

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32
Q

What does affinity mean?

A

Chemical attraction

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33
Q

Substrate molecules have a what affinity for the active site?

While the product have a what affinity and what does it let it do?

A

High affinity

Low affinity allowing them to leave the active site.

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34
Q

What does the high affinity for the active site do?

A

This orientates the reactants into the correct position for the reaction to take place.

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35
Q

What happens when the substrate binds during an induced fit?

Why does this happen?

What does this do?

A

The enzyme changes shape allowing for a tighter fit with the substrate.

A reaction is more likely to happen as the bonds of the substrate are under tension

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36
Q

What is activation energy?

A

The energy required to initiate a reaction

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37
Q

What does the binding of the enzyme to it’s substrate do to the activation energy?

A

It lowers the activation energy of the reaction

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38
Q

What can effect the rate of enzyme reaction?

A

They can be affected by substrate concentration

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39
Q

What happens to the substrate concentration?

A

The enzyme reaction increases until all active sites are occupied by the substrate.

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40
Q

What happens when all active sites are occupied?

A

The enzyme becomes saturated

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41
Q

What does adding more substrate do to the saturated enzyme?

A

Does not affect the reaction rate

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42
Q

What affects an enzyme catalysed reaction?

A

Concentration of enzyme

Concentration of substrate

Concentration of end product

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43
Q

Different what can influence enzyme activity?

A

Chemicals

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44
Q

What do inhibitors do?

What dose it result in?

A

Stop an enzyme from binding to its substrate.

Inhibitors can directly control the progress of a metabolic pathway

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45
Q

What are the two types of inhibitors?

A

Competitive

Non- competitive

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46
Q

What do competitive inhibitors do?

A

They resemble shape and size of the substrate

Bind to the active site preventing the substrate from binding, slowing the reaction rate.

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47
Q

How can competitive inhibition be reversed?

Why?

A

Increasing substrate concentration.

The substrate eventually dilutes the inhibitor so that all enzyme molecules bind to substrate.

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48
Q

What are non-competitive inhibitors?

A

Binds away from the active site but change the shape of the active site preventing the substrate from binding.

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49
Q

Can non-competitive inhibitors be reversed?

A

No they are irreversible

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50
Q

What do competitive and non-competitive inhibitors do to a metabolic pathway?

A

Affect the reaction rate

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51
Q

What is feedback inhibition?

A

Occurs when the end-product in the metabolic pathway reaches a critical concentration. End product then inhibits an earlier enzyme, blocking pathway, so prevents further synthesis of the end product.

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52
Q

What affect does feedback inhibition have?

A

Process stops the metabolic pathway until end product concentration decreases.

The higher the concentration of end product, the quicker the metabolic pathway stops.

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53
Q

What is negative feedback control?

A

Prevents the cell from wasting energy synthesising a product that they already have in excess.

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54
Q

What is cellular respiration?

A

Cellular respiration is a series of metabolic pathways which brings about the release of energy from a food storage and the regeneration of the high energy compound ATP

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55
Q

What controls cellular respiration?

A

Enzymes

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56
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

Does it require oxygen?

A

Cytoplasm

No it does not require oxygen

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57
Q

Where does the citric acid cycle occur?

Does it require oxygen?

A

In the matrix of the mitochondria

Yes it requires oxygen

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58
Q

Where does the electron transport chain occur?

Does it require oxygen?

A

Inner membrane of the mitochondria

It does require oxygen

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59
Q

In cellular respiration how many ATP molecules are made?

A

38 ATP per glucose molecule

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60
Q

In the break down of glucose what products are produced?

A

2 molecules of pyruvate are produced

While 2 molecules of ATP is produced for each glucose molecule broken down

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61
Q

Pyruvate is further broken down into what?

A

Carbon dioxide and water

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62
Q

To form ATP the cells use what?

A

The cells use some of the energy from respiration

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63
Q

When the cell needs energy what happens?

A

ATP can be broken down to realise the stored energy

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64
Q

How do you make ATP?

A

Adenosine diphosphate + inorganic phosphate + energy

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65
Q

What happens if the cell needs energy?

A

It can breakdown ATP back to ADP and energy is released

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66
Q

What is used to carry out the breakdown of ATP to ADP + Pi?

A

Enzymes

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67
Q

What is phosphorylation?

A

The adding of a phosphate

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68
Q

ATP is used to transfer energy and phosphorylate to cellular process which require energy.

What are some of those processes?

A

DNA replication, active transport, synthetic pathways and muscle contraction

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69
Q

Phosphorylation is a what controlled reaction?

And require what?

A

Enzyme controlled

Energy

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70
Q

The metabolic pathway can be split into three main stages.

what are the stages?

A

Glycolysis

Critic acid cycle

Electron transport chain

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71
Q

What is glycolysis?

A

The breakdown of glucose into two pyruvate molecules

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72
Q

Glycolysis can be split into two stages.

What are they?

A

Energy investment stage

Energy payoff stage

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73
Q

What is the energy investment stage?

A

2 ATP are used up per glucose molecule and phosphorylation of intermediates occur.

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74
Q

What is the energy payoff stage?

A

4 ATP are produced per glucose molecule

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75
Q

What is the net gain of glycolysis?

A

2 ATP per glucose molecule

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76
Q

What do dehydrogenase enzymes do?

A

Remove hydrogen ions and electron from intermediates and pass them to the coenzyme NAD. Forms NADH which acts as a hydrogen acceptor and carrier.

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77
Q

Where do NADH take the hydrogen ions and electrons?

A

To the inner membrane of the mitochondria for use in the electron transport chain

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78
Q

After the dehydrogenation of 2 NAD molecules how many NADH molecules are made?

A

2 NADH molecules

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79
Q

If oxygen is available what happens to the pyruvate molecules?

A

They progress into the citric acid cycle

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80
Q

When does the critics acid cycle occur?

A

After glycolysis

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81
Q

Why is the inner membrane of the mitochondria folded?

A

To create a large surface area for reactions to occur

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82
Q

What is the central matrix?

A

A fluid filled interior

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83
Q

What is the beginning of the citric acid cycle?

A

When Pyruvate diffuses into the matrix of the mitochondria

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84
Q

Pyruvate is broken down into what after carbon dioxide is removed?

A

An acetyl group

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85
Q

Acetyl group and coenzyme A form what when bonded together?

A

Acetyl coenzyme A

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86
Q

In the citric acid cycle what happens to hydrogen ions and electrons?

A

They are removed and become attached to coenzyme NAD forming NADH

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87
Q

What happens when acetyl group coenzyme A combined with oxaloacetate?

A

The acetyl group from the acetyl coenzyme A combined with the oxaloactate to form citrate

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88
Q

How is oxaloacatate converted back to oxaloacatate after combining with the acetyl group?

What does it generate?

A

A series of enzyme controlled steps, citrate is gradually converted back into oxaloacatate.

Results in the generation of ATP and release of carbon dioxide.

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89
Q

In the citric acid cycle how does carbon dioxide leave the cycle?

A

It diffuses out the cell

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90
Q

What is the electron transport chain?

A

A series of carrier proteins attached to the inner mitochondrial membrane.

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91
Q

What does NADH do once in the electron transport chain?

A

Release the electrons to the electron transport chain where they pass along the chain releasing energy.

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92
Q

What does the energy realised by NADH do?

A

Energy allows hydrogen ions to be pumped across the inner mitochondrial membrane from the matrix

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93
Q

How does the protein ATP synthase work?

A

The return flow of the hydrogen ions back through the membrane to the matrix and rotates the membrane protein ATP synthase

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94
Q

What does the rotation of the protein ATP synthase result in?

A

The production of ATP from ADP + Pi

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95
Q

What do electrons do at the end of the electron transport chain?

A

Combine with oxygen, while the oxygen combines with hydrogen to form water

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96
Q

What is oxygen in the electron transport chain?

A

The final electron acceptor

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97
Q

What happens if oxygen is not present in the electron transport chain?

A

Electron transport chain does not operate and this major source of ATP become unavailable to the cell

98
Q

How many ATP molecules are mad from 1 molecule of glucose over all?

A

38 ATP

99
Q

When does fermentation occur?

A

When oxygen is not available

100
Q

Where does fermentation take place?

A

Cytoplasm

101
Q

What happens during the process of fermentation?

A

Sugar is only partially broken down and very little energy is released.

102
Q

Since oxygen is not present which stages will occur in cellular respiration?

A

Only glycolysis will occur

103
Q

In animals what is the product of fermentation?

A

Lactate

104
Q

In plants and fungi what is the product of fermentation?

A

Ethanol and carbon dioxide

105
Q

Is fermentation reversible?

A

Yes but only in animals and not in plants and fungi

106
Q

In fermentation how many molecules of ATP are released from 1 molecule of glucose?

A

2 ATP molecules

107
Q

What is fermentation less of compared to aerobic respiration?

A

Fermentation is less efficient

108
Q

What is metabolic rate?

A

The quantity of energy consumed per unit time

109
Q

ATP is mainly generated by what?

A

Aerobic respiration

Glucose + Oxygen —> Carbon dioxide + water + energy

110
Q

How could metabolic rate be measured?

A

Oxygen consumption per unit time

Carbon dioxide production per unit time

Energy production per unit time

111
Q

What does the measure of oxygen consumed by the body do?

A

It give an indirect measure of energy expenditure which is known as indirect calorimetry

112
Q

How can heat production be measured?

A

Can be measured directly which is a process called direct calorimetry

113
Q

How is heat production measured?

A

Subject is placed in an insulated chamber and the temperature rise of a known mass of water is calculated

114
Q

The formula of measuring energy expenditure is?

A

Energy (calories)= mass of water (g) x temperature change (C)

115
Q

How accurate is the formula for measuring energy expenditure?

A

This method is extremely accurate

116
Q

How are respirometers used?

A

Used to measure metabolic rate

Can track temperature, oxygen concentration and carbon dioxide concentrations in real time using probes linked to computers

117
Q

What do respirometers measure?

A

The volume of oxygen uptake or carbon dioxide produced by an organism to measure metabolic rate

118
Q

What do calorimeters measure?

A

Heat generated by an organism to determine metabolic rate

119
Q

What data can exercise tests provide?

A

Monitor the effectiveness of a training program for an athlete

Monitor recovery e.g heart attack

120
Q

Organisms with high metabolic rate require what?

A

Efficient delivery of oxygen

121
Q

What are the three different circulatory systems in vertebrates?

A

Single circulatory system

Incomplete double circulatory system

Complete double circulatory system

122
Q

What organism has a single circulatory system?

A

Fish

123
Q

What organism Incomplete double circulatory system

A

Amphibians and most reptiles

124
Q

What organism has a complete double circulatory system?

A

Birds, mammals and some reptiles

125
Q

How many times does blood pass through the heart in a single circulatory system?

A

Passes through the heart once

126
Q

How many chambers does a single circulatory system have?

What are they?

A

Two

One atrium and one ventricle

127
Q

In the single circulatory system where is the blood pumped from and what happens to the blood?

A

Pumped from the ventricle to the gills where it is oxygenated.

128
Q

What happens to the oxygenated blood in the single circulatory system?

A

The oxygenated blood travels around the body cells before returning to the atrium.

129
Q

What is the main disadvantage of the single circulatory system?

A

The gill capillaries offer so much resistance to blood flow that blood pressures to the body tissue are greatly reduced

130
Q

How many times does blood pas through the heart in an incomplete double circulatory system?

A

Blood passes twice through the heart

131
Q

How many chambers does the heart have in a incomplete double circulatory system?

What are they?

A

It has three chambers

Two atria and one ventricle

132
Q

What type of blood returns from the body tissue to the right atrium?

A

Deoxygenated blood

133
Q

What type of blood returns from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart?

A

Oxygenated blood

134
Q

Blood is passed from how many atria into the ventricle to exit the heart?

A

Both atria

135
Q

What type of blood is pumped at high pressure to both the lungs and the body tissue at the same time in an incomplete double circulatory system?

A

Mixed blood

136
Q

Amphibians heart maintain what?

Why?

A

High blood pressure

Because oxygenated blood from the lungs returns to the heart before it is pumped to the body tissue

137
Q

What is the main disadvantage of the incomplete double circulatory system?

A

Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood are mixed in the single ventricle in the heart. This reduces efficiency as the tissue blood is not completely oxygenated

138
Q

How many times does blood pass through the heart in a complete double circulatory system?

A

Blood passes through the heart twice

139
Q

How many chambers does the complete double circulatory system have?

What are they?

A

Four chambers

Two atria and two ventricles

140
Q

Unlike the ventricles in an incomplete double circulatory system what feature do the ventricles in a complete double circulatory system have that they don’t?

A

The ventricles are completely separated by a septum.

141
Q

What type of blood returns from the body tissue to the right atrium of the heart in a complete double circulatory system?

A

Deoxygenated blood

142
Q

In a complete double circulatory system blood is passed from where?

Which is then pumped to where?

A

Blood is passed into the right ventricle which pumps it to the lungs.

143
Q

What type of blood returns from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart and is passed into the the left ventricle?

A

Oxygenated blood

144
Q

In a complete double circulatory system oxygenated blood is passed from the left ventricle. After this it is then pumped at what type of pressure and to where in the body?

A

Oxygenated blood is pumped at a high blood pressure to the body tissue.

145
Q

How efficient is a complete double circulatory system?

Why is that?

A

It is very efficient

This is because it is pumped at a higher pressure and the tissue blood is completely oxygenated

146
Q

An organism ability to maintain its metabolic rate is affected by what?

A

It is affected by external abiotic factors

147
Q

What type of fluctuations can occur in an organisms environment?

A

Temperature, salinity or ph

148
Q

What are conformers?

A

They are organisms that are unable to alter their normal metabolic rate

149
Q

What are regulators?

A

They are organisms that are able to alter their normal metabolic rate and maintain a steady state

150
Q

How do conformers work?

A

Their internal environment is dependent on their external environment.

151
Q

Conformers live in what type of environment?

What type of metabolic cost do they have?

A

Environments that remain relatively stable

They have low metabolic costs

152
Q

What type of behavioural response do they have?

What do they help maintain?

A

Behavioural responses which allow them to tolerate variation in their external environment to maintain an optimum metabolic rate

153
Q

What are conformers restricted to?

A

They are restricted to a narrow range of ecological niches

154
Q

How do regulators work?

A

Regulators maintain their internal environment regardless of their external environment

155
Q

How do regulators use their metabolism?

What does it help increase?

A

They use their metabolism to control their internal environment.

which increases the range of possible ecological niches

156
Q

What does regulation require?

Why does this requirement achieve?

A

Energy

To achieve homeostasis

157
Q

What does homeostasis help increase in regulators?

A

Helps increase their metabolic costs.

158
Q

What is an adverse condition?

A

Adverse conditions are environmental conditions which vary beyond the tolerable limits for normal metabolic activity.

159
Q

Organisms have adapted how to adverse conditions?

A

Organisms have adapted to either avoid or survive adverse conditions.

160
Q

What ways can an animal adapt to these adverse conditions?

A

Animals can reduce their metabolic activity through dormancy

161
Q

What is dormancy?

A

Dormancy is part of some organisms life cycle to allow survival during a period when the costs of continued normal metabolic activity would be too high.

162
Q

An organisms metabolic rate can be reduced during dormancy to save energy. Which leads to a decrease in what?

A

Heart rate
Breathing rate
Body temperature

163
Q

What are the two types of dormancy?

A

Predictive dormancy

Consequently dormancy

164
Q

What is predictive dormancy?

A

Occurs before the onset of adverse conditions

165
Q

What is consequential dormancy?

A

Occurs after the onset of adverse conditions

166
Q

What are examples of dormancy?

A

Hibernation

Aestivation

Daily torpor

167
Q

What is hibernation?

A

Hibernation allows some animals to survive during winter/low temperature.

168
Q

Is hibernation predictive or consequential?

A

It can be either predictive or consequential

169
Q

What is aestivation?

A

Aestivation allows survival in periods of high temperature or drought

170
Q

Is aestivation consequential or predictive?

A

Consequential dormancy

171
Q

What is daily torpor?

A

Daily torpor is a period of reduced activity in some animals with high metabolic rates.

It only lasts a few hours and can be seen as a short-term hibernation

172
Q

What is migration?

A

Migration is the regular movement by the members of a species from one place to another over a relatively long distance.

173
Q

What can migration help avoid?

A

Can be used to avoid metabolic adversity

174
Q

How does migration help avoid metabolic adversity?

A

It helps as it involves using energy to relocate to a more suitable environment.

175
Q

What is innate behaviour?

A

Innate behaviour is inherited from parents to offspring and is likely to be the biggest influence on successful migration.

176
Q

What is learned behaviour?

A

Learned behaviour is gained by experience. It may come from parents or other members of a social group

177
Q

4 important facts about innate behaviour?

A

Inherited and inflexible

Primary role in migratory behaviour

Performed in same way by every member of species

Occurs in response to an external stimulus

178
Q

3 important facts about learned behaviour?

A

Begins after birth and is gained by experience

Is flexible and a result of trail and error and relearning from members of a social group

Plays a secondary role in migratory behaviour

179
Q

What is it that scientists want to find out when studying migration?

A

When the animal migrates

Where they migrate to

If they return to their original territory

How long they live for

180
Q

How can scientists find out all the information they want to know about migration?

A

By marking or tracking

181
Q

How does marking work?

A

Marking an animal requires you to capture and then tag it with a marker.

The animal will migrate and will be recaptured to gather data.

182
Q

How does tagging work?

A

Tracking involves a transmitter being attached to the animal.

A recover picks up the single being transmitted and the animal can be tracked to a precise location

Allows for the animals migratory path to be plotted and days can be transmitted without having to recover the transmitter

183
Q

What are the three domains of life that microorganisms come from?

A

Archaea
Bacteria
And some species of eukaryotes

184
Q

How are microorganisms useful to humans?

A

Due to their:

Adaptability

Ease of cultivation

Speed of growth

185
Q

Properties of microorganisms are?

A

They are highly adaptable

Wide variety of substrates for their metabolism

Produce a range of products from their metabolic pathways.

186
Q

What are microorganisms grown in?

A

Grown in Petri dishes

Flasks

bottles

Huge stainless steel fermenters in large industrial processes

187
Q

What do microorganisms need to grow?

A

Chemical substrates

Light in photosynthetic microorganisms

188
Q

What are the complex molecules required for biosynthesis?

A

Vitamins, amino acids and fatty acids.

189
Q

What can growth media be composed of?

A

Either specific substances or can contain complex ingredients such as beef extract

190
Q

What are the certain conditions needed to be controlled when microorganisms are cultured?

A

Sterility

Temperature

Oxygen levels

pH

191
Q

Why have sterile conditions?

A

Having sterile conditions reduce competition with desired microorganisms for nutrients and reduce the risk of spoiling of the product

192
Q

Why must aseptic techniques be followed?

A

Must be followed when preparing and inoculating the growth media

193
Q

In industry microorganisms are grown in a fermenter how are the conditions controlled?

A

Sensors detect any changes and send information to computers which control the conditions.

194
Q

How do you define growth?

A

Growth occurs when the rate of synthesis of organic materials by an organism exceeds the rate of their breakdown.

195
Q

What is growth?

A

An irreversible increase in dry biomass.

196
Q

Why is growth measured using dry biomass?

A

Due to it being a more reliable indicator of growth than gain in fresh mass because an organisms fresh biomass varies depending on water availability which is independent of growth.

197
Q

How can growth be measured in unicellular organisms?

A

By measuring increase in cell number over a period of time.

198
Q

What is a viable cell count?

A

Gives the number of cells that are alive and capable of reproduction

199
Q

What is a total cell count?

A

Refers to all cells dead or alive

200
Q

What are the 4 phases of bacterial growth?

A

Lag

Log/exponential

Stationary

Death

201
Q

What is the lag phase and what happens?

A

Where enzymes are induced to metabolise substrates.

Little or no increase in cell number as cells adjust to the growth medium and metabolic increases

202
Q

What is the log/ exponential phase and what happens?

A

Contains the most rapid growth of microorganisms due to plentiful nutrients.

203
Q

What is mean generation time?

A

The time needed when the population doubles its number with each cell division

204
Q

What is stationary phase and what happens?

A

Stationary phase occurs due to nutrients in the culture becoming depleted and the production of toxic metabolites.

Also death rate and new cells produced are equal

205
Q

When are secondary metabolites produced?

A

During the stationary phase

206
Q

What are secondary metabolites?

A

Antibiotics

207
Q

In the wild what do secondary metabolites help do and how do they help do that?

A

Help confer an ecological advantage by allowing microorganisms which produce them to our compete other microorganisms.

208
Q

What is the death phase and what happens?

A

Death phase occurs due to toxic accumulation of metabolites or the lack of nutrients in the culture.

Number of cells dying greatly exceeds number of new cells being produced

209
Q

When improving a microorganism what are features that the selected strains may still lack?

A

Genetic stability

Ability to grow on low cost-nutrients

Ability to overproduce target compound for which selected

Ability to allow easy harvest of the target product following the fermentation process

210
Q

Why may scientists want to change the dna of wild strains of microorganisms?

A

So that they can produce useful substances or produce useful substances more efficiently

211
Q

How can scientists improve strains of microorganisms?

A

By mutagenesis

Recombinant DNA technology

212
Q

What is mutagenesis?

A

The process of changing a microorganisms genetic material using mutagenic agents

213
Q

What is a mutation?

A

A random change to genetic information

214
Q

What does a mutagenic agent do?

A

A mutagenic agent increases the rate of mutations

215
Q

What are the two main types of mutagenic agents?

A

Uv light and chemical mutagenic agent

216
Q

What does exposure to uv light or mutagenic chemicals result in?

A

Mutations which may produce an improved strain of microorganisms

217
Q

Mutant strains of microorganism are usually what?

A

Genetically unstable

218
Q

What happens to mutant strain that are cultured over generations?

A

They can revert back to the original wild type

219
Q

Because mutant strains can revert back to their original wild type what must scientists do to make sure this doesn’t happen?

A

Monitor them regularly

220
Q

What is recombinant dna technology?

A

It is a technology which involves the use of recombinant plasmids and artificial chromosomes as vectors

221
Q

What does recombinant dna technology enable scientists to do?

A

To transfer gene sequences from one organism to another/one species to another

222
Q

What are restriction endonuclease?

A

Enzymes that cut open plasmids and cut specific genes out of chromosomes.

223
Q

Restriction endonuclease cut what into fragments?

A

Restriction sites into fragments with sticky ends

224
Q

What are sticky ends?

A

Sticky ends are pieces of dna that have unpaired nucleotides and the end of them.

225
Q

What are ligase?

A

They are an enzyme used to seal the gene into the plasmid

226
Q

Ligase are able to do what?

A

Able to join two different fragments dna together

227
Q

Why are ligase able to bind to bind the sticky ends of the dna fragments together?

A

Because the same restriction endonuclease was used the sticky ends are complementary to each other.

228
Q

The plasmid is inserted back into bacterial body cell and the inserted gene is what?

A

Expressed

229
Q

The products produced by the expressed gene will be what?

A

Produced in large quantities and can be harvested and purified

230
Q

What is a vector?

A

A dna molecule used to carry foreign genetic information into another cell

231
Q

What materials can be used as vectors?

A

Recombinant plasmids and artificial chromosomes

232
Q

What do vectors contain?

A

Marker genes, restriction sites and an Irving in of replication

233
Q

What do marker genes do?

A

Ensure that only microorganisms that have taken up the vector grow in the presence of the selective agent

234
Q

What is the selective agent that marker genes detect?

A

Antibiotic resistance or fluoresce

235
Q

Origins of replication consists of genes that control what?

A

Self replication of plasmid dna

Regulatory sequences that control the expression of existing genes and inserted gene

236
Q

In expressing genes form eukaryote in prokaryote what are the limitations of prokaryotes ?

A

Prokaryote dna does not have introns so is not spliced

Proteins do not undergo post-translational modification

237
Q

A gene from a eukaryote expressed by a prokaryote may produce an inactive polypeptide due to what?

A

Incorrect folding

Lack of post translational modification

238
Q

Recombinant Yeats cells can’t be used as vectors to produce what?

A

Proteins that would normally be found in animals or plants

239
Q

The use of eukaryote, such as yeast do what?

A

Overcome issues with incorrect folding and lack of post-translation modifications

240
Q

What are some arguments in favour for recombinant dna technology?

A

Might improve nutrition and food security by increasing quantity and quality of food.

Might improve the environment by allowing reduction of the use of pesticides of fertilisers.

Might improve health by the production of drugs that are otherwise difficult to produce

241
Q

What are arguments against recombinant dna technology?

A

Potential impact of the technology is unknown and many aspects of it such as the safety of foods or drugs remain to be understood.

Risks of the organism k’s or the gene they contain escaping are too great and could not be reversed.

Genes are self-perpetuating, and the risks that they might bring in the future are unknown

Higher Biology (3 decks)

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