Met General Flashcards

1
Q

The part of the earth’s atmosphere where most of the clouds and precipitation are found is:

A) the insolation zone
B) the mesosphere
C) the troposphere
D) the terrestrial radiation zone

A

C) the troposphere

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2
Q

Pick the false statement with respect to the tropopause

A) the tropopause is lower over the poles
B) the tropopause is higher over the equator
C) the temperature at the tropopause is colder over the poles
D) the temperature at the tropopause is colder over the equator

A

C) the temperature at the tropopause is colder over the poles

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3
Q

Is the height of the tropopause higher over the poles or equator?

A) Poles - the density of the air in this region is greater and therefore higher
B) Equator - the density of the air in this region is greater and therefore higher
C) Poles - the density of the air in this region is less and therefore higher
D) Equator - the density of the air in this region is less and therefore higher

A

D) Equator - the density of the air in this region is less and therefore higher

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4
Q

The height of the tropopause will tend to be higher in:

A) in a warmer air mass
B) when the MSL pressure is high
C) at a lower level in a warmer air mass
D) both A and B are correct

A

D) both A and B are correct

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5
Q

That region of the atmosphere between the stratopause and the mesopause is known as:

A) the exosphere
B) the thermosphere
C) the ionosphere
D) the mesosphere

A

D) the mesosphere

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6
Q

The sun emits large amounts of ultraviolet radiation and is largely absorbed by a colorless gas that is found at varying amounts throughout the atmosphere. This gas is known as:

A) carbon monoxide
B) nitrogen pentoxide
C) ozone
D) methane

A

C) ozone

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7
Q

The earth’s surface is heated by:

A) short wave solar (ultraviolet) radiation
B) kinetic activity in the lower troposphere
C) long wave solar (infrared) radiation
D) conduction

A

A) short wave solar (ultraviolet) radiation

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8
Q

What is the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)?

A) it is the area on the earth where solar radiation is at its weakest
B) it is the area on the earth where solar radiation is at its strongest
C) it is where two highs converge together
D) it is where two lows converge together

A

B) it is the area on the earth where solar radiation is at its strongest

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9
Q

Why does the ITCZ move south during the winter months?

A) The relationship between the earth, the sun and the moon slightly shifts earth’s orbit causing the maximum solar radiation to shift south
B) where the cold air and warm air meet shifts the ITCZ southwards during the winter months
C) the northern hemisphere tilts towards the sun during winter forcing the cold air southwards along with the ITCZ
D) the northern hemisphere becomes tilted away from the sun during winter meaning the point of maximum solar radiation striking the earth moves southward

A

D) the northern hemisphere becomes tilted away from the sun during winter meaning the point of maximum solar radiation striking the earth moves southward

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10
Q

The lower atmosphere is heated by:

A) short wave solar ( ultra violet) radiation
B) conduction
C) long wave solar (infrared) radiation
D) both A and B are correct

A

D) both A and B are correct

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11
Q

Temperatures in the lower stratosphere approximate those:

A) that exist at the 300 hpa pressure surface
B) of the stratopause
C) that are observed at the midpoint of the earth’s laminar boundary layer.
D) of the tropopause

A

D) of the tropopause

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12
Q

In the international standard atmosphere (ISA) the temperature at sea level is 15C and the pressure at the level is 1013.2 hpa. What would be the ISA temperature for FL300?

A) -75C
B) -45C
C) -60C
D) -56.5C

A

B) -45C

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13
Q

The actual temperature at FL280 is -48C. How would this temperature expressed in terms of an ISA deviation?

A) ISA -10C
B) ISA +7C
C) ISA -7C
D) ISA +8C

A

C) ISA -7C

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14
Q

If you are flying at 3,4000’ with a SAT of -50C and the tropopause was actually at 30,000’ where SAT was -51C, what is the deviation from ISA?

A) ISA -3C
B) ISA +3C
C) ISA +1C
D) ISA -1C

A

B) ISA +3C

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15
Q

If you are fling at 38,000’ with a SAT of -50C and the tropopause was actually at 44,000’ where SAT was -65C, what is the deviation from ISA?

A) ISA +6C
B) ISA -6C
C) ISA +23C
D) ISA +15C

A

A) ISA +6C

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16
Q

As air moves horizontally over the earth in the N. Hemisphere, the air is deflected to the right. This is known as the Coriolis and it is caused by the:

A) rotation of the earth
B) vorticity in the lower atmosphere
C) mesoscale gravity waves
D) geostrophic acceleration

A

A) rotation of the earth

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17
Q

Which of the following statements with respect to Coriolis is correct?

A) Coriolis is stronger closer to the equator
B) Coriolis is weaker at the higher latitudes
C) Coriolis is stronger nearer to the poles
D) Coriolis does not change with a change in latitude

A

C) Coriolis is stronger nearer to the poles

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18
Q

Vertical air currents are often created within the atmosphere by varying means. A process that will lead to rising air is known as:

A) advection of warm over a cold surface
B) convection
C) dispersion
D) convergence

A

B) convection

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19
Q

Which of the following would experience the least diurnal range in temperature?

A) tropical rain forest
B) temperate zone oceans
C) desert
D) mountain valleys

A

B) temperate zone oceans

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20
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

A) desert and open fields on the earth’s surface heat up and cool down relatively easy promoting rising air during the nighttime
B) lake and oceans will promote convection and rising air
C) convection is more likely to occur over water-free surfaces
D) A and B are false

A

D) A and B are false

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21
Q

The lifting process responsible for the choppy type of turbulence often encountered during flight within the lower 3000 feet of the troposphere is:

A) orographic lift
B) convergence
C) mechanical turbulence
D) advectional cooling

A

C) mechanical turbulence

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22
Q

Which of the following is not a lifting agent?

A) evaporation
B) convection
C) mechanical turbulence
D) convergence

A

A) evaporation

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23
Q

Meteorologists use the term convergence to depict air that is:

A) flowing along the earth’s surface from areas of higher pressure into and converging at an area of lower pressure
B) lifting orographically
C) spreading out from an area
D) becoming conditionally stable

A

A) flowing along the earth’s surface from areas of higher pressure into and converging at an area of lower pressure

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24
Q

Which of the following processes can result in expansional cooling, subsequent condensation and formation of cloud?

A) subsidence
B) divergence
C) frontolysis
D) overrunning

A

D) overrunning

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25
Q

Define “overrunning”

A) it refers to how fast the cold air rises vertically as it flows up along the frontal surface over the retreating warm air
B) It is a term used to describe how fast the warm front is moving
C) It is a term used to describe how fast the cold front is moving
D) It refers to how fast the warm air rises vertically as it flows up along the frontal surface over the retreating cold air

A

D) It refers to how fast the warm air rises vertically as it flows up along the frontal surface over the retreating cold air

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26
Q

The clouds and precipitation often associated with a cyclone are due to:

A) the presence of strong winds and associated mechanical turbulence
B) the associated cold outflow leads to a steep lapse rate and instability
C) surface convergence and ascending air
D) advectional heating of moist air that inflows across the surface isobars

A

C) surface convergence and ascending air

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27
Q

Which of the following would be used to describe the process whereby a rising, expanding parcel of air does not undergo any heat transfer in or out of the parcel as it ascends?

A) osmotic
B) diabatic
C) isentropic
D) adiabatic

A

D) adiabatic

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28
Q

subsiding air, even if it is initially saturated, will:

A) continue to warm at the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
B) warm at the dry adiabatic lapse rate
C) warm at the environmental lapse rate
D) increase in temperature at the ISA lapse rate

A

B) warm at the dry adiabatic lapse rate

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29
Q

With respect to air that is descending rapidly down the lee slopes of a mountain range, which of the following statements is true?

A) considerable cloud will be found near the end of its descent
B) this air will warm at the dry adiabatic lapse rate almost immediately after the start of its descent
C) the relative humidity of this air increases rapidly during its descent
D) warming of this air will be at the saturated adiabatic lapse rate during most of its descent

A

B) this air will warm at the dry adiabatic lapse rate almost immediately after the start of its descent

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30
Q

When air subsides, normally the:

A) pressure gradient steepens
B) moisture content increases
C) temperature decreases
D) relative humidity decreases

A

D) relative humidity decreases

31
Q

When air ascends, its ability to contain moisture:

A) increases
B) remains unchanged
C) initially increases, then decreases
D) decreases

A

D) decreases

32
Q

During the condensation process which of the following is true?

A) the relative humidity of the surrounding air decreases
B) latent heat is released to the surrounding air
C) latent heat is absorbed from the surrounding air
D) the condensed water vapor molecules will enter a higher energy state

A

B) latent heat is released to the surrounding air

33
Q

When condensation occurs in an unstable air mass, the stability of the air tends to become:

A) more unstable as heat is released to the surrounding air
B) more stable as heat is released to the surrounding air
C) more unstable as the surrounding air is cooled from absorption of latent heat
D) more stable as the surrounding air is cooled from absorption of latent heat

A

A) more unstable as heat is released to the surrounding air

34
Q

With a surface temperature of 28C and a dewpoint temperature of 16C reported at your airport, you would predict the base of any convection cloud that might form to be approximately:

A) 7600’ AGL
B) 6400’ AGL
C) 4900’ AGL
D) 2900’ AGL

A

C) 4900’ AGL

35
Q

With respect to a rising parcel of air which commences to ascend from a sea level airport where the temperature is 30C, what would be tis temperature at 14,000’ ASL if it become saturated at 6,000’ ASL?

A) +2C
B) +0C
C) -1C
D) +6C

A

B) +0C

36
Q

When discussing the stability / instability of the atmosphere, we are referring to:

A) the diurnal fluctuations in the height of pressure surfaces aloft
B) a property of the atmosphere that suppresses or promotes vertical motion
C) the varying speeds and slopes of frontal surfaces and their effect on the surface temperature field
D) the effects of macro-scale temperature distribution in the upper troposphere

A

B) a property of the atmosphere that suppresses or promotes vertical motion

37
Q

the stability of warm, dry air depends on the relationship between the:

A) saturated adiabatic lapse rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate
B) dry adiabatic lapse rate and the standard lapse rate
C) dry adiabatic lapse rate and the environmental lapse rate
D) saturated adiabatic lapse rate and the environmental lapse rate

A

C) dry adiabatic lapse rate and the environmental lapse rate

38
Q

Stable air is most likely to be associated with:

A) cold air advecting over a warm surface
B) showery precipitation
C) gusty winds
D) sustained low visibility

A

D) sustained low visibility

39
Q

haze layers, drizzle and fog are features of:

A) overrunning air
B) stable air
C) a convergence zone
D) advectional heating of cold air

A

B) stable air

40
Q

One weather condition that may affect visibility in unstable air is:

A) haze layer
B) snow showers
C) drizzle
D) fog

A

B) snow showers

41
Q

stable air becomes unstable as a result of:

A) subsidence
B) radiational cooling
C) addition moisture
D) heating from below

A

D) heating from below

42
Q

A good signpost of mid-level instability would be the presence of:

A) stratocumulus
B) cirrocumulus
C) altocumulus castellanus
D) cumulus fractus

A

C) altocumulus castellanus

43
Q

Which of the following effectively inhibits or blocks rising air?

A) a frontal depression
B) a supercooled layer aloft
C) an inversion
D) a convergence zone

A

C) an inversion

44
Q

The pilot of an aircraft would expect the smoothest low level flight during a hot summer afternoon when passing over which of the following surface feature?

A) a forest
B) a plowed field
C) a lake
D) a vineyard

A

C) a lake

45
Q

A pressure of 200 hPa is closest to which of the following levels in the ICAO standard atmosphere?

A) FL600
B) FL450
C) FL390
D) FL340

A

C) FL390

46
Q

FL450 is associated with which pressure level in the ICAO standard atmosphere?

A) 250 hPa
B) 150 hPa
C) 200 hPa
D) 300 hPa

A

B) 150 hPa

47
Q

The vertical distance between any two specific pressure levels is:

A) greater in cold air than in warm air
B) not affected by the temperature of the air
C) less in cold air than in warm air
D) solely determined by the adiabatic lapse rate

A

C) less in cold air than in warm air

48
Q

The height of a pressure level (ex. 500MB) will be tend to be found at:

A) at a higher level in a colder air mass
B) at a higher level when the MSL pressure is low
C) at a lower level in a warmer air mass
D) at a lower level in a colder air mass

A

D) at a lower level in a colder air mass

49
Q

the height of a pressure level will:

A) become lower when a low is deepening
B) become higher when a low is deepening
C) become lower when a low is filling
D) remain unchanged whether a low is deepening or filling

A

A) become lower when a low is deepening

50
Q

Flying in the lower levels towards the centre of an anticyclone which has a strong pressure gradient, a pilot would expect:

A) high winds and increasing barometric pressure
B) light winds and relatively constant barometric pressure
C) clear weather and relatively low barometric pressure
D) high winds and decreasing barometric pressure

A

A) high winds and increasing barometric pressure

51
Q

When flying towards a ridge of high pressure at FL200, what happens to the height of the pressure level and your true altitude?

A) pressure level goes up and your true altitude goes down
B) pressure level goes up and your true altitude goes up
C) pressure level goes down and your true altitude goes down
D) pressure level goes down and your true altitude goes up

A

B) pressure level goes up and your true altitude goes up

52
Q

When flying at FL200 towards an area of colder air on the surface of the earth, what happens to the height of the pressure level and your true altitude?

A) pressure level goes up and your true altitude goes down
B) pressure level goes up and your true altitude goes up
C) pressure level goes down and your true altitude goes down
D) pressure level goes down and your true altitude goes up

A

C) pressure level goes down and your true altitude goes down

53
Q

When flying at FL 370 towards a ridge of high pressure and an area of warmer air on the surface of the earth, what happens to your indicated altitude (shown on your altimeter) and your true altitude?

A) indicated altitude goes up, therefore your true altitude goes up
B) indicated altitude goes down, therefore your true altitude goes up
C) indicated altitude stays the same, therefore your true altitude goes down
D) indicated altitude stays the same, therefore your true altitude goes up

A

D) indicated altitude stays the same, therefore your true altitude goes up

54
Q

An aircraft is parked on the apron. You go home for the night. During the evening, cold air moves into the vicinity of the airport. When you return to your aircraft in the morning, what does the altimeter show?

A) it will over-read and indicate a higher than normal altitude
B) there will be no change in the altimeter’s reading
C) it will under-read and indicate a lower than normal altitude
D) it will over-read and indicate a lower than normal altitude

A

B) there will be no change in the altimeter’s reading

55
Q

Which of the following statements relating to an anticyclone is not true?

A) within this pressure region there is a general increase in relative humidity
B) fair weather and clear skies normally prevail within the region of an anticyclone
C) an anticyclone is generally characterized by a downward vertical movement
D) anticyclones can be described as strong or weak and strengthening or weakening

A

A) within this pressure region there is a general increase in relative humidity

56
Q

Surface Highs and Lows develop as a result of:

A) converging or diverging air at the surface
B) strong pressure gradients along the surface
C) unstable air masses
D) upper level convergence and divergence forcing air to sink or rise respectively

A

D) upper level convergence and divergence forcing air to sink or rise respectively

57
Q

A trough is:

A) a wedge-shaped extension of an anticyclone
B) an upper-troposphere contour pattern which is associated with warm air moving towards the North Pole
C) an elongated area of relatively low atmospheric pressure
D) an indefinite isobar configuration located between two highs and two lows

A

C) an elongated area of relatively low atmospheric pressure

58
Q

A neutral area, not bounded by any one isobar, within which light winds are blowing and the weather is changing very slowly, exists between two high and two low pressure systems. The name given to this indefinite pressure area is:

A) a secondary depression
B) a geostrophic divergence zone
C) a surface occlusion
D) a col

A

D) a col

59
Q

During descent from 3000 feet AGL to the surface, you would expect the wind to:

A) veer and increase
B) veer and decrease
C) back and increase
D) back and decrease

A

D) back and decrease

60
Q

The wind at 3000’ over the land is parallel to the isobars at 30kts. What would be the most probable angle to the isobars and speed of the surface wind assuming it is not affected by local topography?

A) 0°and 20 kts
B) 10° and 30kts
C) 30° and 20kts
D) 40° and 40kts

A

C) 30 degree and 20kts

61
Q

Given the same pressure gradient over the land and over the adjacent water, what is the most probable wind angle to the isobars and wind speed over the water if the surface wind over the land is blowing across the isobars at an angle of 30° and at a speed of 30kts?

A) 40° and 20kts
B) 30° and 30kts
C) 20° and 20kts
D) 20° and 40kts

A

D) 20° and 40kts

62
Q

A flight from Vancouver to Montreal at a constant pressure level experiences winds that gradually veer from the southwest to the northwest. The aircraft’s actual height above mean sea level will have:(hint: port drift-A/C true altitude is increasing; starboard drift-A/C true altitude is decreasing)

A) Increased steadily
B) Increased for a time and then decreased steadily thereafter
C) Decreased steadily
D) Decreased for a time and then increased steadily thereafter

A

B) Increased for a time and then decreased steadily thereafter

63
Q

If the temperatures to the southeast today are warmer than those to the northwest, the winds aloft would be blowing from the:(recall buys-ballot’s law -with your back to the winds, your left hand will point to the area of the lower pressure; for upper level winds, your left hand will point to area of lower temperatures…)

A) northeast
B) southeast
C) northwest
D) southwest

A

D) southwest

64
Q

From the statements listed below which relate to density altitude, select the one which is false:

A) the calculation of the density altitude at a given aerodrome consists of correcting the existing pressure altitude with the ISA temperature for that level
B) the density altitude is that altitude in the standard atmosphere which corresponds to a given density value
C) an increase in density altitude corresponds to a decrease in density
D) the density altitude for a given aerodrome is changing continually in response to changes in pressure and temperature

A

A) the calculation of the density altitude at a given aerodrome consists of correcting the existing pressure altitude with the ISA temperature for that level

65
Q

An aerodrome’s density altitude is calculated with a flight computer using the:

A) the aerodrome’s published elevation matched with the ambient air temperature
B) the aerodrome’s pressure altitude matched with the aerodrome’s outside air temperature corrected in terms of ASL
C) the aerodrome’s pressure altitude matched with the aerodrome’s outside air temperature corrected in terms of AGL
D) the aerodrome altitude above sea level matched with the average sea level temperature during the previous 12 hours

A

A) the aerodrome’s published elevation matched with the ambient air temperature

66
Q

An aircraft’s true altitude would be greater than its indicated altitude in conditions of:

A) warm air and high pressure
B) warm air and low pressure
C) cold air and high pressure
D) cold air and low pressure

A

A) warm air and high pressure

67
Q

Which of the following statements is true with respect to the term MSL pressure?

A) it is station pressure reduced to MSL assuming ISA conditions
B) it is station level pressure extracted from the appropriate synoptic chart
C) it is station pressure reduced to MSL using the average surface temperature for the last 12 hours
D) it is the average sea level pressure reading at a given station during the previous 3 hours period

A

C) it is station pressure reduced to MSL using the average surface temperature for the last 12 hours

68
Q

Altimeter setting is:

A) measured MSL pressure corrected for non-standard temperature
B) station pressure reduced to sea level with a 12 hour average temperature correction applied to it
C) measured MSL pressure with ISA deviation correction applied
D) station level pressure reduced to MSL assuming ISA conditions

A

D) station level pressure reduced to MSL assuming ISA conditions

69
Q

It is essential that a pilot flying in the Standard Pressure Region closely monitor terrain clearance, when:

A) pressures are high and temperatures are high
B) operating in an air mass having a variable pressure gradient
C) pressures are low and temperatures are low
D) the current altimeter setting is greater than 31.00 in(Hg)

A

C) pressures are low and temperatures are low

70
Q

An aircraft descends from FL380 for an approach to the Kelowna airport. During the descent, the pilot forgets to reset the altimeter subscale. If the published decision height (D.H) is 2060’ ASL, what would be the actual height of the aircraft on reaching the indicated D.H? (Refer to the following METAR)
[METAR CYLW 281700Z 18010KT 5SM -SHRA OVC015 10/06 A2962 RMK SF8 SLP150=]

A) 2060’ ASL
B) 2360’ ASL
C) 1760’ ASL
D) 1460’ ASL

A

C) 1760’ ASL

71
Q

Compare two aircraft on approach - the first aircraft is flying the approach in standard atmospheric conditions; the second aircraft in colder than standard conditions. Both aircraft arrive over the final approach point/fix at the altitude that is shown on the approach plate (no temperature corrections applied). What is the second aircraft’s altimeter reading in relation to the first, and what is the result(hint: HLHL)?

A) the second aircraft’s altimeter will be over-reading and therefore the aircraft will be lower than the published altitude
B) the second aircraft’s altimeter will be under-reading and therefore the aircraft will be lower than the published altitude
C) A) the second aircraft’s altimeter will be under-reading and therefore the aircraft will be higher than the published altitude
D) A) the second aircraft’s altimeter will be over-reading and therefore the aircraft will be higher than the published altitude

A

A) the second aircraft’s altimeter will be over-reading and therefore the aircraft will be lower than the published altitude

72
Q

Consider the same two aircraft in the question above on a RNAV/RNP style approach. What will happen to the slope of the approach flown by the second aircraft?

A) no difference
B) the second aircraft will fly a steeper approach path and touch down with zero temperature error on the altimeter
C) the second aircraft will fly a shallower approach path and touch down with a temperature error on the altimeter
D) the second aircraft will fly a shallower approach path and touch down with zero temperature error on the altimeter

A

D) the second aircraft will fly a shallower approach path and touch down with zero temperature error on the altimeter

73
Q
A