MET Flashcards

1
Q

clinical uses of MET

A
  • lengthen a shortened, contracted or spastic muscle/fascia
  • strengthen a physiological weakened muscle or groupe of muscle -> balance neuromuscular relationship to alter muscle tone
  • reduce local edema and relieve passive congestion
  • mobilizes an articulation with restricted mobility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

why can MET help with reductio in local edema and relieve passive congestion

A

because muscle are the pump of the lymphatic and venous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which barrier is the first sense of resistance that we met and where do we want to start MET

A

pathological barriers and it’s where we want to start MET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

muscle spindle are intra or extrafusal fiber

A

intra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

role of muscle spindle

A

sensitive to length change, rate of length change, change in tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

muscle spindle is located where and provide what

A

throughout the muscle and provides continuous feedback that enable CNS to control muscle activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what gives the status of the muscle at every instant

A

muscle spindles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

stretching increase/decrease rate of impulse ( _ impulse) that are sent to CNS. Whereas shortening increase/decrease the rate of impulse ( _ impulse)

A

increase, positive, decrease, negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

static response of muscle spindle involve which afferent

A

primary and secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

dynamic response of muscle spindle involve which afferent

A

only primary afferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

static responses is what

A

a muscle that is stretched slowly is proportional to the signal that is sent

  • last as long as the stretch is applied
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

dynamic responses is what

A
  • responds powerfully to a rapid rate in length change
  • last only while length is increasing, once it is stopped it returns almost back to normal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

GTO are intra or extrafusal fiber and is sensitive to

A

extra, muscle tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

location of GTO

A

tendon of muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

GTO is sensitive and stimulated by

A

tension developed by muscle fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what happen if tension of muscle is too great it can cause _ from GTO

A

relaxation of entire muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

GTO prevent what

A

tearing of muscle or avulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

hypertonicity is typically found in the _ during vertebral somatic dysfunction

A

multifidi, rotatores, intertranversarii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when multifid, rotators and intertranversari are in dysfunction what can it causes

A

alter joint mechanics locally and alter the behaviour of larger muscles of the erector spine group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what Is post-isometric relaxation (Principle of MET)

A

after an isometric contraction, a hypertonic muscle can be passively lengthened to a new length (autogenic inhibition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how long is the latency period after an isometric contraction and what does it do

A

10-15s and allow easier movement toward the new resistance barrier of a joint or a muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

indication of isotonic concentric contraction

A

toning weakened muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

indication of isolytic contraction

A

stretching thighs fribotic musculature inducing a controlled micro trauma

-> practitioner force is greater than the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how can you work a muscle that is so severely injured that you can directly work on it

A

use crossed extensor reflex -> contraction in left tricep stimulated contraction in R bicep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
what is occulocephalogyric reflex
using eyes movement to augment muscle contraction -> if we want more flexion we will look downward
25
why can patient experience soreness within 12-36h after MET
because muscle contraction required energy and metabolic process results in CO2, lactic acid that must be transport and metabolized
26
indication for MET
- lengthen shortened, contracted or spastic muscle - strenghtne weekend muscle - malpositioning of a bony element - restoration of a joint motion associated with articular dysfunction
27
precaution while doing MET
- unknown pathology - stress fracture - strain, infection or disease causing musculoskeletal pain - osteoporosis
28
good result of MET depend on
accurate diagnosis appropriate levels of force sufficient localization
29
error commonly made by patients during MET
- too hard of contraction - contract in wrong direction - sustain a contraction for too short a time - do not relax appropriately after a muscle contraction
30
explain method 1 MET
put patient into restriction et contract into the ease
31
explain method 2 MET
contract weak muscle concentrically against therapist
32
explain method 3 and why to use this instead of method 1
put patient into restriction, contract into restriction -> if someone have pain or have an injury that prevent you to do method 1.
33
what are the 8 essential step of muscle energy
1. accurate diagnosis 2. localise restrictive barrier 3. therapist force=patietn force 4. appropriate patient muscle effort (20-40% for 3-7s) 5. complete relaxation 6. repositioning 7. repeat 3-5 times 8. Retest
34
The  effectiveness of MET is dependent on getting the  
proper muscle to contract
35
what can cripple the ability of the hands to read the dysfunction with the subject
tension in the intrinsic muscle of the therapist
36
primary muscle of the pelvic region
intrinsic muscle of pelvic diaphragm
37
secondary muscle of pelvic region
muscle with partial attachement to pelvis/sacrum, abdominal muscle, lower extremities muscle
38
ant. pelvic rotation is associated with
iliac out flare, ischial tuberosity inward
39
post. pelvic rotation is associated with
iliac inflare, ischial tuberosity outward
40
with and upslip, which ligament become softer
sacrotuberous
41
which ligament will be tender and tense with a inf or sup pubic symphysis
inguinal
42
pubic symphysis dysfunction is often associated with an imbalances where
abdominal and adductor
43
pubic dysfunction restrict what
symmetric motion of hip bones during the walking cycle and interferes with all other motions of pelvic
44
chronic single leg standing is often associated with which condition
pubic symphysis dysfunction
45
the most common dysfunction of pubic symphysis are where and why
right inferior or left superior because we like to stand on the right leg when standing
46
what is the recommended treatment sequence
symphysis pubis, hip bone out flare/inflare, sacroiliac dysfunction, iliosacral dysfunction
47
muscle that influence SI dysfunction
psoas, piriformis, glut max, lat dorsi
48
what provide sacroiliac stability
glutes, lat dorsi and strength of posterior sacroiliac ligament
49
what happen to glut max with the presence of SI joint and lower joint dysfunction
become inhibited
50
imbalance in piriformis length and strength strongly influence what
movement of the sacrum between the hip bone
51
with NRS SB and rot are opposite or same direction
opposite
52
with FRS or ERS SB and rotation are opposite or same direction
same direction
53
if L4 is stuck in extension, right side bend and r rotation what is the condition and what is your treatment goal
ERS right -> want to increase flexion, L rotation and L side bending so you will put patient in lumbar flexion, L side bend and L rotation and ask to contract to return to neutral so into the ease
54
with L1-L4 NSrightRleft what does it means and what is the treatment goal
3tp or more and stuck in right SB and L rotation, curve is convex to the left -> treatment goal: L SB and R rotation
55
T-spine area consist of
12 vertebra, 12 pairs of ribs, sternum
56
facet of t-spine are angled
backward, upward and lateral
57
T-spine is hypo mobile due to
costotransverse articulation and disk height to vertebral body ration (1:5)
58
why is the flexion and extension of T-spine limited
due to attachement on sternum of ribs
59
what is the primary motion of T1-T10 and which one is the secondary motion
P: rotation S: SB
60
which rib attach to sternum and which ribs are considered true ribs and which one floating
1-10 to sternum, 1-7 true, 11-12 floating
61
which rib is the flattest shorter and broadest and has the sharpest curve
1
62
rib one has grooves for and are susceptible to compression from which muscle
subclavian artery, cervical plexus -> from ant. and middle scalene
63
rib 2 articulate with
manubrosternal joint
64
which muscle attach to manubrosternal joint
pec major, serratus ant, post scalene, levatorcostae, iliocostal cervicalisk iliocostal dorsi, serratus post sup, int/ext intercostal
65
pump handle movement are done with the higher or lower rib
higher
66
bucket handle movement are done more by the upper or lower rib
lower
67
method 1 use which MET principle
autogenic inhibition or post-isometric relaxation
68
movement of rib 11-12 during breathing
pincer/caliper motion
69
during inhalation ribcage expands in
AP and lateral direction
70
MET methods 3 uses which MET principle
reciprocal inhibition
71
what is reciprocal inhibition
This technique uses the principle that when one muscle contracts, its antagonist (opposing muscle) is inhibited. The patient is asked to contract the muscle opposite to the shortened muscle, which causes relaxation in the target muscle.
72
what is autogenic inhibition
patient contracting the target muscle isometrically against resistance, but it’s aimed at increasing the relaxation response within the muscle due to the Golgi tendon organ (GTO) reflex. When the muscle contracts strongly enough, the GTO sends a signal to the brain to relax the muscle, allowing for a deeper stretch.
73
what is the order of the barrier
anatomical, elastic, physiological, pathological
74
defined a restrictive barrier
when motion is lost within a range -> that lost is known has restrictive barrier MET is used to decrease this barrier