MESL 5 Flashcards

1
Q

An association of two or more persons for a purpose of engaging in a profitable business.

a. Trading
b. Enterprise
c. Partnership
d. Corporation

A

Partnership

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2
Q

What is the minimum number of incorporators in order that a corporation be organized?

a. 2
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7

A

5

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3
Q

Land, buildings, plant and machinery are examples of ________.

a. Current assets
b. Trade investments
c. Fixed assets
d. hidden assets

A

Fixed assets

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4
Q

An increase in the value of a capital asset due to business transaction is called ________.

a. Profit
b. Capital gain
c. Capital expenditure
d. Capital stock

A

Capital gain

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5
Q

It denotes the fall in the exchange rate of one currency against others. The term usually applies to floating exchange rates.

a. Currency shortage
b. Currency devaluation
c. Currency float
d. Currency depreciation

A

Currency depreciation

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6
Q

The amount of company’ s profit that the board of directors of the corporation decides to distribute to ordinary shareholders.

a. investment opportunity
b. Dividend
c. Return
d. Share stock

A

Dividend

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7
Q

A form of fixed interest security issued by central or local government, companies, banks or other institutions. They are usually a form of long-term security, buy may be irredeemable, secured or unsecured.

a. Bond
b. T-bills
c. Certificate of deposit
d. All of these

A

Bond

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8
Q

The strong bond between hydrogen atoms is known as _______.

a. Ionic bond
b. Ionic and metallic bond
c. metallic bond
d. covalent bond

A

covalent bond

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9
Q

The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid at same temperature level is called ________.

a. Condensation
b. Cold fusion
c. Latent heat of fusion
d. Solid fusion

A

Latent heat of fusion

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10
Q

According to this law, “the force between two charges varies directly as the magnitude of each charge and inversely as the square of the distance between them”.

a. Law of universal gravitation
b. Coulombs law
c. Newton’ s Law
d. D’ Alembert law

A

Coulombs law

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11
Q

A free-falling body is a body in a rectilinear motion with constant ________.

a. Acceleration
b. Speed
c. Deceleration
d. Velocity

A

Acceleration

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12
Q

Momentum is a product of mass and ________.

a. Velocity
b. Acceleration
c. gravity
d. Force

A

Velocity

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13
Q

When a close coiled helical spring is subjected to a couple about its axis, the stress induced in the wire material of the spring is ________.

a. bending stress only
b. direct shear stress only
c. a combination of torsional shear stress and bending stress
d. a combination of bending stress and direct shear stress

A

bending stress only

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14
Q

During a tensile testing of a specimen using a universal testing machine the parameters actually measured includes _______.

a. deformation
b. Poisson’ s ratio and young’ s modulus
c. actual stress and strain
d. load and elongation

A

actual stress and strain

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15
Q

The strain energy stored by the body within elastic limit when loaded externally is called ________.

a. modulus of resilience
b. proof stress
c. modulus of elasticity
d. resilience

A

resilience

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16
Q

The maximus shear stress in I-beam is located at ________.

a. middle of web
b. top of flange
c. junction of flange and web
d. bottom of the flange

A

middle of web

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17
Q

In case of a circular section, the maximum shear stress is _______ percent more than the mean shear stress.

a. 50
b. 10
c. 66
d. 33

A

33

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18
Q

Which of the following condition will describe a pure bending of a beam?

a. shear force in beam is zero
b. shear force in the beam is uniform throughout
c. bending moment in the beam is uniform throughout
d. bending moment in beam is zero

A

shear force in beam is zero

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19
Q

In thermodynamics, isentropic process is always ________.

a. reversible and adiabatic
b. irreversible and adiabatic
c. reversible and isothermal
d. no energy loss

A

reversible and adiabatic

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20
Q

Which of the following will best describe the first law of thermodynamics for steady flow?

a. is primarily concerned with heat transfer
b. deals with all energy entering and leaving a control volume
c. is an energy balance for a specified mass of fluid
d. is an expression of the conservation of linear momentum

A

deals with all energy entering and leaving a control volume

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21
Q

The second law of thermodynamics statement that “it is impossible to devise a cyclically operating device, the sole effect of which is to absorb energy in the form of heat from a single thermal reservoir and to deliver an equivalent amount of work.”

a. Kelvin-Planck’s
b. Clausius
c. Carnot
d. Conservation of energy

A

Kelvin-Planck’s

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22
Q

The efficiency of an ideal Carnot engine depends mainly on _________.

a. the temperatures of both the source and the sink
b. the working substance
c. heat rejected and work done by the system
d. the temperature of the sink only

A

the temperatures of both the source and the sink

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23
Q

The efficiency of the Carnot cycle may be increased by ________.

a. increasing the highest temperature
b. decreasing the highest temperature
c. increasing the lowest temperature
d. decreasing the lowest temperature

A

decreasing the lowest temperature

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24
Q

What is the effect on entropy when heat is absorbed by the gas?

a. increase
b. decrease
c. stays the same
d. constant

A

increase

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25
Q

1 m^2/s is equal to ________.

a. 10^4 Stoke
b. 10^3 Stoke
c. 10^2 Stoke
d. 10 Stoke

A

10^4 Stoke

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26
Q

What is the effect of heating a gas in a container?

a. gas becomes heavy
b. Molecular interchange between adjacent layers increases
c. Viscosity of the gas increases
d. Viscosity of the gas decreases

A

Molecular interchange between adjacent layers increases

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27
Q

Which of the following describes real fluid?

a. display viscosity and so are capable of being subjected to low levels of shear stress
b. non-viscous and compressible
c. viscous and incompressible
d. viscous only

A

display viscosity and so are capable of being subjected to low levels of shear stress

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28
Q

A fluid characterized by “stress is directly proportional to rate of strain”.

a. Non-newtonian
b. Newtonian
c. Navier-stoke
d. Viscous fluid

A

Non-newtonian

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29
Q

What is the equivalent water head of standard atmospheric pressure?

a. 10.3 m
b. 101.325 m
c. 14.696 m
d. 0.103 m

A

10.3 m

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30
Q

Sewage sludge is an example of ________.

a. Dilatant fluid
b. Bingham plastic
c. Pseudo-plastic
d. Viscoelastic

A

Bingham plastic

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31
Q

Cleaning of clothes using soap is due to ________.

a. increase in the surface tension of the solution
b. chemical reaction with the cloth
c. decrease in the surface tension of the solution
d. friction between soap and clothes

A

decrease in the surface tension of the solution

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32
Q

A solution which resists change in its pH value in addition of acid/alkali is called ________.

a. neutral solution
b. ideal solution
c. buffer solution
d. zero pH

A

buffer solution

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33
Q

Consider a company that assembles computers. The probability of a faulty assembly of any computer is P. The company therefore, subjects each computer to a testing process. This testing process gives the correct result for any computer with a probability

a. pq + (1 -p) (1 -q)
b. (1-q) p
c. (1-p) q
d. pq

A

pq + (1 -p) (1 -q)

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34
Q

Impulse is the product of ________.

a. F and d
b. m and a
c. F and t
d. F and m

A

F and t

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35
Q

The moment the inertia of a rectangular whose base is A and height B about its base is equal to ________.

a. AB^3/12
b. AB^2/4
c. AB^3/3
d. AB^3/36

A

AB^3/3

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36
Q

If a ring is rolled down in an inclined plane, the ratio of rotational and linear kinetic energy is _______.

a. 1:2
b. 1:1
c. 1:3
d. 1:4

37
Q

A cylinder of mass m and radius r rolls down an inclined plane of inclination Ɵ. The linear acceleration of the axis of cylinder is _______.

a. g sin Ɵ
b. 1/3 g sin Ɵ
c. 2/3 g sin Ɵ
d. Any of the above

A

2/3 g sin Ɵ

38
Q

Center of mass of a system of particles in independent of ________.

a. volume of the particles
b. Forces acting on the particles
c. Position of particles
d. Relative distance amongst the particles

A

Forces acting on the particles

39
Q

When the total kinetic energy of system is the same as before and after collision of two bodies, it is called ________.

a. Plastic collision
b. Inelastic collision
c. Elastic collision
d. Static collision

A

Elastic collision

40
Q

It is a statement that has been proven on the basis of previously established statements.

a. Theorem
b. Postulate
c. Conclusion
d. Axiom

41
Q

A polynomial which is exactly divisible by two or more polynomials is called ________.

a. common logarithm
b. Least common denominator
c. Common multiple
d. natural logarithm

A

common logarithm

42
Q

A logarithmic operation using 10 as base is called ________.

a. common logarithm
b. Decimal logarithm
c. Scientific logarithm
d. Any of the above

A

common logarithm

43
Q

A system of equations is said to be consistent in there is existing _______ solution/s for the system.

a. zero
b. at least one
c. two
d. three

A

at least one

44
Q

The angle which the line of sight to the object makes with the horizontal measured above.

a. Angle of depression
b. Angle of elevation
c. acute angle
d. bearing

A

Angle of elevation

45
Q

Defined as the future value minus the present value.

a. Interest
b. Discount
c. Rate of return
d. Capital

46
Q

Which of the following logarithmic relationship is correct?

a. log (xy) = logx + logy
b. log (xy) = logx x logy
c. log (xy) = logx - logy
d. log (xy) = logx / logy

A

log (xy) = logx + logy

47
Q

A straight line from the vertex of a triangle to the midpoint to the opposite side is known as ________.

a. Median
b. center
c. Altitude
d. Chord

48
Q

What do you call the axis of hyperbola that passes through the center, the foci and vertices?

a. Major axis
b. Transverse axis
c. Conjugate axis
d. Asymptotic axis

A

Transverse axis

49
Q

If the eccentricity is less than one, then the curve is _______.

a. hyperbola
b. parabola
c. circle
d. Ellipse

50
Q

What do you call the present worth of the property which is equals to the original cost less depreciation?

a. Appraised value
b. Book value
c. Scrap value
d. Market value

A

Book value

51
Q

Which of the following is common to both the fixed and operating cost of an enterprise?

a. Depreciation
b. Interest
c. Taxes
d. Profit

52
Q

An “annuity” is defined as ________.

a. A series of equal payments occurring at equal periods of time.
b. Earned interest due at the end of each interest period.
c. Cost of producing a product or rendering a service.
d. Amount paid for any debit or credit

A

A series of equal payments occurring at equal periods of time.

53
Q

What happens to the atomic size of the elements from top to bottom in a group within Period table of Elements?

a. It remains the same
b. It increases
c. It decreases
d. it is always one

A

It increases

54
Q

What bond is formed when electrons are shared between atoms?

a. Ionic bond
b. metallic bond
c. Covalent bond
d. electronic bond

A

Covalent bond

55
Q

The interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a project is zero of the interest earned by an investment.

a. Nominal rate
b. Effective rate
c. Rate of return
d. Yield

A

Rate of return

56
Q

When can we say that a molecule is polar?

a. When the centers of positive and negative charge coincide
b. When there is no positive nor negative charge
c. When there is only one charge, either negative or negative.
d. When a center of positive and negative charge does not coincide

A

When a center of positive and negative charge does not coincide

57
Q

Change in kinetic energy in a system takes place by _______.

a. Both internal and external forces
b. Only internal forces
c. Only external forces
d. it is always constant

A

Both internal and external forces

58
Q

Which of the following equations apply in determining the amount of energy needed to freeze water from 0°C (liquid) to 0°C Ice? Note: Lf and Lv are the latent heat of fusion and vaporization, respectively.

a. Q = -mLv
b. Q = mLv
c. Q = mLf
d. Q = -mLf

59
Q

A beam is subjected to a constant moment along its length, then what will happen to the shear force?

a. also have a constant value everywhere along its length
b. be maximum at the center along the beam
c. be maximum at the center and zero at the ends
d. zero at the center and maximum at the ends

A

be maximum at the center along the beam

60
Q

In a simple bending theory, one of the assumptions is that the material of the beam is isotropic. Which of the following will further describe this assumption?

a. normal stress remains constant in all directions
b. normal stress varies linearly in the material
c. elastic constants are same in all the directions
d. elastic constants vary linearly in the material

A

elastic constants are same in all the directions

61
Q

Whenever a material is loaded within elastic limit, stress is _______ strain.

a. equal to
b. directly proportional to
c. inversely proportional to
d. equal to 1

A

directly proportional to

62
Q

Compression members under load always tend to buckle in the direction of the ________.

a. perpendicular to the axis of load
b. minimum cross section
c. axis of load
d. strongest location

A

axis of load

63
Q

A concentrated load P acts at the middle of a simply supported beam of span L and flexural rigidity El. Another simply supported beam of identical material, geometry and span is being acted upon by equivalent distributed load [W=P/L] spread over the entire beam.

a. True
b. False
c. Both True and False
d. Statement is incomplete

64
Q

Which of the following are the statically determinate beams?

a. Cantilever beam
b. Overhanging beam
c. Simply supported beam
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

65
Q

Bending moment at supports in case of simply supported beams is always ________.

a. zero
b. less than unity
c. more than unity
d. always equal to 1

66
Q

Proof resilience is the mechanical property of materials which indicates their capacity to carry ________.

a. static tensile loads
b. shocks
c. static compressive load
d. bending load

67
Q

The characteristic equation of gases PV=mRT Is used only for ________.

a. monoatomic gases
b. diatomic gas
c. real gases
d. ideal gases

A

ideal gases

68
Q

Which of the following statements is correct according to Clausius statement of second law of thermodynamics?

a. It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature
b. It is impossible transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature, without the aid of an external source
c. It is possible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature by using refrigeration cycle
d. All of the above

A

It is impossible transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature, without the aid of an external source

69
Q

The property of a working substance which increases or decreases in the system once heat is supplied or removed in a reversible manner is known as ________.

a. enthalpy
b. internal energy
c. entropy
d. external energy

70
Q

The main cause for the irreversibility in thermodynamic system is ________.

a. mechanical and fluid friction
b. unrestricted expansion
c. heat transfer with a finite temperature difference
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

71
Q

Capillarity is defined as the phenomenon of ________.

a. adhesion of liquid particles to the surface
b. combined action of adhesion and cohesion
c. cohesion of liquid droplets to the surface
d. none of these

A

combined action of adhesion and cohesion

72
Q

The angle of contact (Ɵ) between water and glass tube in case of capillary rise is ________.

a. 180°
b. 45°
c. 0°
d. 128°

73
Q

The vertical component force directed to a submerged body is equal to ________.

a. Weight of the fluid vertical below the curved surface
b. Weight of the fluid vertically above the curved surface
c. Force on a vertical projection plane of the curved surface
d. Force on a horizontal projection plane of the curve surface

A

Weight of the fluid vertically above the curved surface

74
Q

Which of the following statement is true when the hypotenuse of a right spherical triangle is less than 90°?

a. two legs are on the same quadrant
b. The two legs are on the different quadrant
c. one leg is on the first quadrant and the other on the second quadrant
d. Any of the above

A

two legs are on the same quadrant

75
Q

What is the best scenario that a solid body will float in a liquid?

a. weight of the liquid displaced by the body is greater than the weight of the body
b. weight of the liquid displaced < weight of the body
c. density of the body material < density of liquid
d. none of these

A

weight of the liquid displaced by the body is greater than the weight of the body

76
Q

At t=0, then the function f(t)=sint/t has ________.

a. a minimum
b. a discontinuity
c. a point of inflection
d. a maximum

77
Q

Stokes theorem connects _______.

a. A line integral and a surface integral
b. A surface integral and a volume integral
c. A line integral and a volume integral
d. Gradient of a function and its surface integral

A

A line integral and a surface integral

78
Q

Which one of the following statements is not true?

a. The measure of skewness is dependent upon the amount of dispersion
b. In a negative skewed distribution, mode>mean>median
c. In a positive skewed distribution mean>median> mode
d. In a symmetric distribution, the value of mean, mode and median are the same

A

In a negative skewed distribution, mode>mean>median

79
Q

If P and Q are two random events, then which of the following is true?

a. Probability (P∩Q) ≤ Probability (P)
b. Independence of P and Q implies that probability (P∩Q) = 0
c. Probability (P∩Q) = 0 ≥ Probability (P) + probability (Q)
d. If P and Q are mutually exclusive, then they must be independent

A

Probability (P∩Q) ≤ Probability (P)

80
Q

A ball A is projected horizontally with a velocity v from one point. Another ball B is dropped vertically from the same point. Which of the following is true?

a. Both balls will reach the ground simultaneously
b. Ball A will reach the ground first
c. Ball B will reach the ground first
d. Balls A and B will not reach the ground

A

Ball B will reach the ground first

81
Q

The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1-year period is known as:

a. expected return
b. Interest
c. Nominal interest
d. Effective interest

A

Effective interest

82
Q

The value which is disinterested third party, different from the buyer and seller, will determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties.

a. Market value
b. Goodwill value
c. Fair value
d. Franchise value

A

Fair value

83
Q

The coefficient of friction for dry surfaces ________.

a. Does not depend on the materials
b. Depends on the materials and the finish condition of the surfaces
c. Depends only on the finish condition of the surfaces
d. Depends on the composition of the materials only

A

Depends on the materials and the finish condition of the surfaces

84
Q

A set of linear equations is represented by the matrix equation Ax = b. The necessary condition for the existence of a solution for this system is ________.

a. A must be invertible
b. b must be linearly dependent on the columns of A
c. b must be linearly independent of the columns of A
d. A must be equal to B

A

b must be linearly dependent on the columns of A

85
Q

It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal intervals of time where the first payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment.

a. Deferred payment
b. Progressive annuity
c. Delayed annuity
d. Simple annuity

A

Deferred payment

86
Q

In the matrix equation PX = q, which of the following is a necessary condition for the existence of at least one solution for the unknown vector x?

a. Augmented [pq] must have the same rank a matrix p
b. Vector q must have only non-zero element
c. Matrix p must be singular
d. Matrix p must be square

A

Augmented [pq] must have the same rank a matrix p

87
Q

What is the study of the properties of figures of three dimensions?

a. Physics
b. Solid geometry
c. Plane geometry
d. Trigonometry

A

Solid geometry

88
Q

As applied to a capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic change to operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or irregular prearranged program is called ________.

a. annuity
b. Annuity factor
c. Capital recovery
d. Amortization

A

Amortization

89
Q

An index of short-term paying ability is called _______.

a. receivable turn over
b. current ratio
c. profit margin ratio
d. acid-test ratio

A

acid-test ratio