MESL 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Is a Cartesian coordinates system in which the axes are not perpendicular.

a. Rhombus coordinates system
b. Oblique coordinates system
c. Parallelogram coordinates system
d. Polar coordinates system

A

Oblique coordinates system

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2
Q

A horizontal line has a slope of ________.

a. Negative
b. Constant
c. Zero
d. Positive

A

Zero

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3
Q

The curved traced by a point moving in a plane is shown as the _______ of the point.

a. locus
b. formula
c. pattern
d. Parameter

A

Locus

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4
Q

If eccentricity of a certain conic is less than one, then the curve is _______.

a. Circle
b. Parabola
c. Ellipse
d. Hyperbola

A

Parabola

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5
Q

The flow of money into and out of a company due to project or activity. Revenues are cash inflows carry a positive (+) sign; expenses are outflows and carry a negative (—) sign.

a. Capital Flows
b. Economic flow
c. Cash Flow
d. Business transaction

A

Cash Flow

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6
Q

The interest rate incurred to obtain capital investment funds. It is usually a weighted average that involves the cost of debt capital (loans, bonds, and mortgages) and equity capital (stocks and retained earnings).

a. Rate of Capital
b. Investment rate
c. Cost of Capital
d. Minimum Attractive Rate of Return (MARR)

A

Cost of Capital

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7
Q

Expected trade-in, market, or scrap value at the end of the estimated life or the study period.

a. Salvage Value
b. Final cost
c. Trade value
d. Investment cost

A

Salvage Value

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8
Q

What is a term that refers to the number of atoms of a specific element? For example, Carbon has 12.

a. Avogadro’ s number
b. molar mass
c. atomic mass
d. mole

A

Avogadro’ s number

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9
Q

What is a special kind of dipole-dipole interaction formed when a hydrogen atom bonded to a highly electro-negative atom is attracted to the lone pair of a nearby electronegative atom?

a. hydro bond
b. hydrate bond
c. hydrogen bond
d. Hydride bond

A

hydrogen bond

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10
Q

When the maximum amount of solute is dissolved in the given solvent at a stated temperature, the solution formed is ________.

a. supersaturated
b. saturated
c. critical point
d. Unsaturated

A

saturated

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11
Q

What is the temperature at which the vapor pressure corresponds to the actual atmospheric pressure?

a. Boiling point
b. Saturation point
c. Critical point
d. Melting point

A

Boiling point

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12
Q

The momentum of a moving object is the product of its mass (m) and velocity (v). Newton’ s second law of motion says that the ratio of change of momentum with respect to the time is _______.

a. Energy
b. Momentum
c. Power
d. Passivity

A

Power

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13
Q

One horsepower is equal to _______.

a. 42.4 Btu/hr
b. 33000 ft-lb/sec
c. 424 Btu/hr
d. 746 N-m/s

A

746 N-m/s

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14
Q

When two mutually perpendicular principal stresses are unequal but like, the maximum shear stress is represented by _______.

a. one fourth the diameter of Mohr’ s circle
b. one eight the diameter of Mohr’ s circle
c. half the diameter of Mohr’ s circle
d. one third the diameter of Mohr’ s circle

A

half the diameter of Mohr’ s circle

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15
Q

Which of the statements is best to describe two shafts connected in series?

a. torsional stiffness of each shaft is same
b. torque in each shaft is the same
c. neither (a) and (d)
d. shear stress in each shaft is the same

A

torque in each shaft is the same

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16
Q

If the value of Poisson’s ratio is zero then it means _______.

a. the material is rigid
b. there is not longitudinal strain in the material
c. the longitudinal strain in the material is absolute
d. the material is perfectly elastic

A

the material is rigid

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17
Q

A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no goods substitute.

a. Monopsony
b. Oligopoly
c. Super market
d. Oligopsony

A

Monopsony

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18
Q

What is the reason why cracks in helical springs used in railway carriages usually start on the inner side of the coil?

a. it has a higher curvature than the outer side.
b. it has a lower curvature than the outer side.
c. it is subjected to a higher cyclic loading than the outer side
d. it is subjected to the higher stress than the outer side

A

it has a lower curvature than the outer side.

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19
Q

In thermodynamics, a control volume refers to ________.

a. open system
b. a closed system
c. a constant mass
d. an isolated system

A

open system

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20
Q

Internal energy of a perfect gas depends on ________.

a. specific heats and enthalpy
b. temperature and entropy
c. temperature and specific heats
d. temperature only

A

temperature only

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21
Q

For any reversible process, the change in entropy of the system and surroundings is ________.

a. zero
b. positive
c. infinite
d. negative

A

zero

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22
Q

Kind of obligation which has no condition attached.

a. tender
b. gratuitous
c. contract
d. Private

A

gratuitous

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23
Q

Isentropic flow is classified as _______.

a. frictionless irreversible flow
b. reversible adiabatic flow
c. frictionless reversible flow
d. irreversible adiabatic flow

A

reversible adiabatic flow

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24
Q

A homogeneous solid of any arbitrary shape floats upright in a homogeneous liquid with immersed volume V and is in stable equilibrium. If the solid is overturned and made to float upside down in a different homogeneous liquid with exactly same volume V ab

a. unstable
b. stable
c. inactive
d. may or may not be stable

A

may or may not be stable

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25
Q

Which property of mercury is the main reason why it is usually used in barometers?

a. Low compressibility
b. Very high vapor pressure
c. Very low vapor pressure
d. High compressibility

A

Very low vapor pressure

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26
Q

Which of the following is true for stability of a floating body under the influence of gravity alone?

a. Metacenter should be above center of gravity
b. Metacenter and center of gravity must lie on the same horizontal line
c. Metacenter and center of gravity must lie on the same vertical line
d. Metacenter should be below center of gravity

A

Metacenter should be above center of gravity

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27
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

a. The change in entropy may be regarded as a measure of the rate of the availability of heat for transformation into work
b. The entropy represents the maximum amount of work obtainable per degree drop in temperature
c. The increase in entropy is obtained from a given quantity of heat at a low temperature
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

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28
Q

A series of uniform accounts over an infinite period of time.

a. Depreciation
b. Annuity
c. Perpetuity
d. Inflation

A

Perpetuity

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29
Q

Consists of the actual counting or determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand in specific given date.

a. Physical inventory
b. Material update
c. Technological assessment
d. valuation

A

Physical inventory

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30
Q

Decrease in value of a physical property due to the passage of time. Example are cellphones, computers, motor bike, etc.

a. Depreciation
b. Inflation
c. Depletion
d. Recession

A

Depreciation

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31
Q

This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.

a. Perfect competition
b. Oligopoly
c. Monopoly
d. Elastic demand

A

Perfect competition

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32
Q

The unit of specific weight in SI system is _______.

a. Nm^3
b. Nm^-3
c. N/m^3
d. m^3/N

A

N/m^3

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33
Q

Fluid Static’ s deals with _______.

a. a combination of fluid
b. study of fluid in motion
c. study of fluid
d. study of fluid at rest

A

study of fluid at rest

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34
Q

Fluid kinematics deals with _______.

a. geometry of motion of fluids by considering cause for motion
b. geometry of motion of fluids without considering force
c. geometry of motion of fluids
d. All of the above

A

geometry of motion of fluids without considering force

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35
Q

Dry friction is mostly applicable in _______.

a. bearings operation
b. heat transmission
c. power transmission
d. heat generation

A

power transmission

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36
Q

Two forces of equal magnitude M, act at an angle Ɵ between each other. Their resultant is given by _______.

a. 2M cos Ɵ
b. 2M cos (Ɵ/2)
c. 2M cos - (Ɵ/2)
d. 2M cos (Ɵ-2)

A

2M cos (Ɵ/2)

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37
Q

In thermodynamics process, the quantity PV represents _______.

a. Flow work
b. work
c. kinetic energy
d. Enthalpy

A

work

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38
Q

The state at which the properties of a boiling liquid and its vapor become equal is known as _______.

a. critical state
b. reduced state
c. boiling state
d. triple point

A

critical state

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39
Q

A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product and that any action of one will lead to almost the same action of the others.

a. Oligopoly
b. Semi-monopoly
c. Monopoly
d. Perfect competition

A

Oligopoly

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40
Q

Liquid assets such as cash and other assets that can be converted quickly into cash, such as accounts receivable and merchandise are called ________.

a. Fixed assets
b. Total assets
c. Current assets
d. business fund

A

Current assets

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41
Q

The provision in the contract that indicates the possible adjustment of material cost and labor cost.

a. Secondary clause
b. Contingency clause
c. Escalatory clause
d. Main clause

A

Escalatory clause

42
Q

The absolute value of a non-zero number is ________.

a. Always zero
b. Always negative
c. Always positive
d. sometimes zero and sometimes positive

A

Always positive

43
Q

In any square matrix, when the elements of any rows are exactly the same, the determinant is ________.

a. Zero
b. negative integer
c. Positive integer
d. Unity

44
Q

This term connotes a statement with a simple proof and/or a theorem of no particular importance.

a. Postulate
b. Proposition
c. Conclusion
d. Hypothesis

A

Proposition

45
Q

The product of two orthogonal matrices is called ________.

a. unitary
b. unit matrix
c. unitary matrix
d. sole matrix

46
Q

Which of the following is false?

a. The determinant of a square is always defined.
b. The value of determinant can never be negative
c. If the element of a row (or column) are divided by 1/3, then the value of the new determinant is 3 times the value of the original determinant
d. If any two rows (or column) of a determinant are identical then the value of determinant will be zero

A

The value of determinant can never be negative

47
Q

Which of the following is true for center of mass and center of gravity of the body?

a. they always coincide with center of mass
b. Center of gravity can be above center of mass
c. Center of mass depends upon acceleration due to gravity of the place
d. Center of gravity can be slightly below the center of mass

A

Center of gravity can be slightly below the center of mass

48
Q

A line passing through the focus and perpendicular to the directrix of a parabola is called _________.

a. foci line
b. secant line
c. latus rectum
d. Axis of parabola

A

Axis of parabola

49
Q

It is a locus of points on a side of a circle which rolls along a fixed line.

a. hypocycloid
b. Cardioid
c. Cycloid
d. Epicycloids

50
Q

As applied to a capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic change to operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or irregular prearranged program is called ________.

a. Annuity
b. Capital recovery
c. Annuity factor
d. Amortization

A

Amortization

51
Q

A method of computing depreciation in which the annual charge is a fixed percentage of the depreciation book value at the beginning of the year to which the depreciation applies.

a. Straight lime method
b. Sinking fund method
c. SYD method
d. Declining balance method

A

Declining balance method

52
Q

What is the “identity number” of an atom?

a. Atomic number
b. mass number
c. atomic mass
d. atomic weight

A

Atomic number

53
Q

The distance between the nuclei of two bonded atoms is called _______.

a. Bond length
b. molecular length
c. atomic length
d. atomic radius

A

Bond length

54
Q

Which of the following is not a unit of work?

a. N-m
b. erg
c. kg-m^2/s^2
d. dyne

55
Q

The momentum of a moving object can change in all of the following ways except:

a. A change in the mass of the object.
b. A change in the speed of the object.
c. A change in the direction of the object’s mass.
d. A change in the shape of the object.

A

A change in the shape of the object.

56
Q

Linear momentum is a Product of mass and velocity and this can be expressed also as a function of ________.

a. force, acceleration and time
b. force, velocity and time
c. force and time
d. force and displacement

A

force and time

57
Q

Rankine-Gordon formula for buckling is valid for ________.

a. long column
b. short column
c. short and long column
d. very long column

A

very long column

58
Q

If failure is shear along 45° planes is to be avoided then a material subjected to uniaxial tension should have its shear strength equal to at least ________.

a. tensile strength
b. compressive strength
c. half the difference between tensile and compressive strength
d. half the tensile strength

A

half the difference between tensile and compressive strength

59
Q

If the Poisons for a material is 0.5, then the elastic modulus of the material is _______.

a. 3 times its shear modulus
b. 4 times its shear modulus
c. equal to its shear modulus
d. indeterminate

A

3 times its shear modulus

60
Q

Two shafts having same length and material are joined in series. If the ratio of their diameters is 2, then the ratio of their angles of twist shall be equal to ________.

a. 16
b. 12
c. 8
d. 4

61
Q

When a beam is loaded downwards, maximum compressive stress will be developed in ________.

a. top fibers
b. bottom fibers
c. neutral axis
d. both end of the beam

A

top fibers

62
Q

If the shear force acting at every section of a beam is of the same magnitude and of the same direction then it represents a ________.

a. Simply supported beam with a concentrated load at the center.
b. Overhung beam having equal overhung at both supports and carrying equal concentrated loads acting in the same direction at the free ends.
c. Cantilever subjected to concentrated load at the free end.
d. Simply supported beam having concentrated loads of equal magnitude and in the same direction acting to equal distances from the supports

A

Cantilever subjected to concentrated load at the free end.

63
Q

Is a thermodynamic process particularly useful for characterizing expansion and compression processes, which include heat transfer?

a. polytropic process
b. isothermal process
c. isometric process
d. isenthalpic process

A

polytropic process

64
Q

In Carnot cycle, what happen when the working substance gives heat to the sink?

a. temperature of the sink increase
b. temperature of the sink remains the same
c. temperature of the source decreases
d. temperatures of both the sink and the source decrease

A

temperature of the sink remains the same

65
Q

What is the effect on Carnot engine’s efficiency if the temperature of the source is increased?

a. decreases
b. increases
c. does not change
d. will be equal to the efficiency of a practical engine

66
Q

Which of the following is the correct statement?

a. All the reversible engines operating between the same temperature levels have the same efficiency
b. All the reversible and irreversible engines have the same efficiency
c. Irreversible engines have maximum efficiency
d. All engines are designed as reversible in order to obtain maximum efficiency

A

All the reversible engines operating between the same temperature levels have the same efficiency

67
Q

A fluid is substance which deforms continuously under the action of ________.

a. shearing force
b. tensile force
c. compressive force
d. none of these

A

shearing force

68
Q

At atmospheric pressure, the maximum density of water occurs at ________.
a. 0°C

b. 3°C
c. 4°C
d. -4°C

69
Q

In System International (SI) unit, the physical unit of dynamic viscosity is _______.

a. Pa-s
b. Pa/s
c. Poise
d. Stokes

70
Q

In CGS unit, dynamic viscosity is expressed in _______.

a. Poise
b. Pa-s
c. Stokes
d. Pa/s

71
Q

Which of the following functions is not differentiable in the domain (-1,1)?

a. f(x)=x^2
b. f(x)=x-1
c. f(x)=2
d. f(x)=maximum (x, -x)

72
Q

It is a measure of how a function changes as its input changes.

a. Antiderivative
b. Logarithm
c. Derivative
d. Integral

A

Derivative

73
Q

A function whose range consist of only one number is called ________.

a. Variable function
b. Constant function
c. Step function
d. Signum function

A

Constant function

74
Q

The ratio of tension on the tight side to that on the slack side in a flat belt drive is ________.

a. proportional to the product of coefficient of friction and lap angle
b. an exponential function of the product of coefficient of friction and lap angle
c. proportional to the lap angle
d. proportional to the coefficient of friction

A

an exponential function of the product of coefficient of friction and lap angle

75
Q

This is the point where the concavity of a curve changes of when the slope of the curve is either increasing or decreasing. What is this point?

a. Maximum point
b. Minimum point
c. Point of tangency
d. point of inflection

A

point of inflection

76
Q

During in elastic collision of two particles, which one of the following is conserved?

a. Total linear momentum only
b. Total kinetic energy only
c. Both linear momentum and kinetic energy
d. Neither linear momentum nor kinetic energy

A

Total linear momentum only

77
Q

Any pair of elements (x, y) having a first element x and a second element y is called ________.

a. Range
b. coordinates
c. domain
d. ordered pair

A

ordered pair

78
Q

A different equation is considered to be ordinary if ________.

a. one independent variable
b. more than one dependent variable
c. one dependent variable
d. more than one independent variable

A

one dependent variable

79
Q

This is the measures of central tendency defined as the most frequent score. How do you call this measure of central tendency?

a. Median
b. Mode
c. Mean
d. Deviation

80
Q

It is an arrangement of objects in a definite order.

a. Probability
b. permutation
c. mathematical expression
d. expression

A

Permutation

81
Q

The relation F = μN is used for ________.

a. belt friction
b. fluid friction
c. rolling friction
d. for incipient motion of bodies with dry contact surfaces

A

for incipient motion of bodies with dry contact surfaces

82
Q

The dimensional relation for angular momentum is ________.

a. ML^-2T^-1
b. ML^2T^-1
c. MLT^-1
d. ML^-2T^-2

83
Q

A spherical shell initially rolls and then finally slips while moving down an inclined plane, the ratio of acceleration is ________.

a. 2:5
b. 5:2
c. 10:3
d. 3:5

84
Q

If a sphere of moment of inertia I rolls down and inclined plane then what is the percentage of rotation kinetic energy.

a. 23%
b. 28%
c. 70%
d. 40%

85
Q

Two bodies of moment of inertia I1 and I2 where I1 is more than I2, and have same angular momentum, the body having higher kinetic energy is ________.

a. First body
b. Both have same kinetic energy
c. Data insufficient
d. Second body

A

Second body

86
Q

If center of mass lies at origin of coordinate system then the sum of the first mass moments of the system about the center of mass is ________.

a. Greater than zero
b. is always zero
c. Can be equal to zero
d. Less than zero

A

is always zero

87
Q

Which of the following is true for center of mass and center of gravity of the body?

a. they always coincide with center of mass
b. Center of gravity can be above center of mass
c. Center of mass depends upon acceleration due to gravity of the place
d. Center of gravity can be slightly below the center of mass

A

Center of gravity can be slightly below the center of mass

88
Q

If there are as many equations as unknowns, the matrix of the coefficient is a ________.

a. Row matrix
b. Column matrix
c. square matrix
d. rectangular matrix

A

square matrix

89
Q

An array of m x n quantities which represent a single number and is composed of elements in rows and columns is known as ________.

a. Transpose of a matrix
b. Determinant
c. co-factor of a matrix
d. matrix

90
Q

If a, b, c are three consecutive integers, then log (ac+1) is equal to _______.

a. log (2b)
b. log (3b + a)
c. 2 log b
d. b log 3

91
Q

Is half of a great circle terminated by the North pole and South Pole?

a. Longitude
b. declination
c. latitude
d. Meridian

92
Q

A skew-symmetric matrix cannot be of rank ________.

a. 2
b. 1
c. greater than 1
d. 0

93
Q

A polygon with equal sides is called _______.

a. square
b. triangle
c. Rhombus
d. Trapezoid

94
Q

If the determinant of coefficient of the system of homogeneous linear equation is zero, then the system has _______.

a. infinite solutions
b. non-trivial solution
c. trivial solution
d. No solution

A

non-trivial solution

95
Q

If a square matrix A is real and symmetric, then the Eigen values are _______.

a. always real and negative
b. always real and positive
c. always real and zero
d. occur in complex conjugate pairs

A

always real and positive

96
Q

What is the value of slope m in line equation y = mx + b if the slope is downwards from left to right?

a. Less than zero
b. Greater than zero
c. equal to 1
d. equal to 1

A

Less than zero

97
Q

In hyperbola or ellipse, what is the ratio of the distance between the foci to the distance between the vertices?

a. Eccentricity
b. Latus rectum
c. focus
d. foci

A

Eccentricity

98
Q

Is a line such that the distance between the curve and the line approaches zero as they tend to infinity.

a. latus rectum
b. Asymptote
c. Directrix
d. line segment

99
Q

The standard equation of a straight-line y – y1 = m (x – x1) is called _______.

a. Point - slope form
b. Slope form
c. Slope - intercept form
d. Two - point form

A

Point - slope form

100
Q

Is characterized by a locus of points are equidistant from a fixed point called focus and a fixed line called the directrix.

a. Ellipse
b. Parabola
c. circle
d. hyperbola