Mental Health - Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

When planning care for a specific client, of what significance to the psychiatric nurse is the fact that the DSM-IV-TR is multiaxial?
A. Pertinent aspects of client functioning and problems are reported.
B. Standardized treatment plans are available for each diagnosis.
C. Nursing diagnoses are included for each medical diagnosis.
D. No particular significance exists.

A

A. Pertinent aspects of client functioning and problems are reported.

The DSM-IV-TR axis system, by requiring judgments to be made on each of the five axes, forces the diagnostician to consider a broad range of information. The North American Nursing Diagnosis Association describes a nursing diagnosis as a clinical judgment about individual, family, or community responses to actual or potential health problems and life processes. Therefore the DSM-IV-TR is used to diagnose a psychiatric disorder, whereas a well-defined nursing diagnosis provides the framework for identifying appropriate nursing interventions for dealing with the phenomena a client with a mental health disorder is experiencing, such as hallucinations, low self-esteem issues, and ability to function (job/family).
Text pages: 12, 13

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2
Q
A nurse conducting research is seeking data about outcomes for depressed patients who have been treated with electroconvulsive therapy. The nurse is engaged in the field of
A. experimental epidemiology.
B. descriptive epidemiology.
C. clinical epidemiology. 
D. analytic epidemiology.
A

C. clinical epidemiology.

Clinical epidemiology represents a broad field that addresses what happens to people with illnesses who are seen by providers of clinical care. Studies use traditional epidemiological methods and are conducted in groups that are usually defined by illness or symptoms or by diagnostic procedures or treatments given for the illness or symptoms.
Text page: 10

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3
Q
A client tells the mental health nurse "I am terribly frightened! I hear whispering that someone is going to kill me." Which criterion of mental health can the nurse assess as lacking?
A. Control over behavior
B. Appraisal of reality
C. Effectiveness in work
D. Healthy self-concept
A

B. Appraisal of reality

The appraisal of reality is lacking for this client. The client does not have a picture of what is happening around himself or herself.
Text page: 3

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4
Q

A 14-year-old who belongs to a neighborhood gang is found by her parents to lie and engage in sexually promiscuous behavior. They bring her to the mental health center. The nurse performing the assessment is told by the 14-year-old that she is happy, does well in school, and sees herself as popular and well regarded by her group. She states her parents are just old fashioned and don’t understand her. The assessment the nurse will most likely make is that she
A. is displaying deviant behavior.
B. cannot accurately appraise reality.
C. is seriously and persistently mentally ill.
D. should be considered for group home placement.

A

A. is displaying deviant behavior.

This client is demonstrating deviant behavior. This client demonstrates undersocialized, aggressive behavior such as a repetitive and persistent pattern of aggressive conduct in which the basic rights of others are violated.
Text page: 3

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5
Q

An important concept for nurses to remember when planning care for mentally ill clients is that each client:
A. has areas of strength on which to build.
B. has right that must be respected.
C. comes with experiences that contribute to their problem.
D. share the same fears as mentally healthy individuals.

A

A. has areas of strength on which to build.

We are taught to evaluate our clients with mental health issues for their strengths and their areas of high functioning. You will find many attributes of mental health in some of your clients with mental health issues. These strengths should be built upon and encouraged.
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6
Q
A nurse suspects that a client has a personality disorder in addition to displaying symptoms of a mood disorder. To determine whether these observations are correct, the nurse could look in the client's medical record on the DSM-IV-TR
A. axis I.
B. axis II. 
C. axis III.
D. axis IV.
A

B. axis II.

Axes I and II were separated to ensure that the possible presence of long-term disturbance is considered when attention is directed to the current one. For example, a heroin addict would be diagnosed on axis I as having a substance-related disorder; this client might also have a longstanding antisocial personality disorder, which would be noted on axis II.
Text page: 13

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7
Q

A man frequently bursts out by loudly singing operatic arias. The neighbors in the next apartment find the noise disturbing. They go to his apartment to confront him and find that in he is wearing only his bathrobe and his apartment is messy. He acts outraged and tells them he must sing several hours daily and will not promise to be quieter. The conclusion that can be drawn is:
A. The man is demonstrating symptoms of bipolar disorder.
B. The man is socially deviant.
C. The man is egocentric.
D. The man may or may not be mentally ill.

A

D. The man may or may not be mentally ill.

One myth about mental illness is that to be mentally ill is to be different and odd. Another misconception is that to be healthy, a person must be logical and rational. Everyone dreams “irrational” dreams at night, and “irrational” emotions are universal human experiences and are essential to a fulfilling life. Some people show extremely abnormal behavior and are characterized as mentally ill who are far more like the rest of us than different from us. No obvious and consistent line between mental illness and mental health exists.
Text page: 3, 4

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8
Q

A nursing diagnosis for a client with a psychiatric disorder serves the purpose of
A. justifying the use of certain psychotropic medication.
B. providing data essential for insurance reimbursement.
C. providing a framework for selecting appropriate interventions.
D. identifying information to be placed on DSM-IV-TR axis III.

A

C. providing a framework for selecting appropriate interventions.

Nursing diagnoses provide the framework for identifying appropriate nursing interventions for dealing with the phenomena a client with a mental health disorder is experiencing.
Text page: 17

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9
Q
A client has begun to neglect her appearance, is withdrawn and stays in her room. Her mother hears her seemingly talking to others, but no one is in the room with her. Last night she threw a chair and broke the window of her bedroom. She tells the nurse nothing is wrong. The nurse rating her current global assessment of functioning would probably assign the code
A. 100.
B. 70.
C. 40. 
D. 0.
A

C. 40.

According to the global assessment of functioning scale (Box 1-2), this client exhibits some impairment in reality testing or communication (speech is at times illogical, obscure, or irrelevant, as demonstrated by talking when no one was with her) or major impairment in several areas, such as work or school, family relations (neglects her appearance, stays in her room) and demonstrates impairment in mood (throwing a chair and breaking a window).
Text page: 15

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10
Q

The mental health or mental illness of a particular client can best be assessed by considering
A. the degree of conformity of the individual to society’s norms.
B. the degree to which an individual is logical and rational.
C. placement on a continuum from healthy to psychotic.
D. the rate of intellectual and emotional growth.

A

C. placement on a continuum from healthy to psychotic.

Many (but not all) of the most prevalent and disabling mental disorders have been found to have strong biological influences. Therefore these disorders can be regarded as “diseases.” Visualizing these disorders along the mental health continuum is helpful.
Text page: 4

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11
Q
As a result of Harry Stack Sullivan, the nurse in virtually all residential and day hospital settings is involved in providing clients with:
A. Security operations
B. Psychoanalysis
C. Analysis of behavior patterns
D. A psychotherapeutic environment
A

D. A psychotherapeutic environment

Sullivan demonstrated that a psychotherapeutic environment, revolving around an accepting atmosphere that provides numerous opportunities for practicing interpersonal skills and developing relationships, is an invaluable treatment tool. This method is used today in virtually all residential and day hospital settings.
Text page: 30

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12
Q

The nurse is working with a severely depressed client who has very low self-esteem and is distrustful of unit staff. The client is facing role transition from wife to wife and mother. The nurse’s priority is to:
A. establish trust with the client.
B. teach the client effective mothering skills.
C. identify positive traits the client possesses.
D. teach about the client the importance of her medication.

A

A. establish trust with the client.

Maslow describes safety as a basic need as meaning that it is so basic to existence that it must be resolved to reduce the tension associated with them. These needs have the greatest strength and must be satisfied before a person turns his attention to higher-level needs.
Text page: 39

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13
Q

The nurse uses Maslow’s model of needs to direct the identification of an anxious client’ priority intervention to be:
A. assessing the client’s success at fulfilling her appropriate developmental level tasks.
B. assessing the client for her strengths upon which a nurse-client relationship can be based.
C. planning one-on-one time with the client to assist in identify the fears behind her anxiety.
D. evaluating the client’s ability to learn and retain essential information regarding her condition.

A

B. assessing the client for her strengths upon which a nurse-client relationship can be based.

The value of Maslow’s model in nursing practice is twofold. First, the emphasis on human potential and the client’s strengths is key to successful nurse-client relationships. The second value lies in establishing what is most important in sequencing of nursing actions in the nurse-client relationship.
Text page: 40

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14
Q
A client comes to the clinic asking for help because his third fiancée has broken their engagement. He states "I don't know what is wrong with me, but my friends tell me I am too possessive." The type of therapy that might address his interpersonal deficit is
A. psychoanalysis.
B. cognitive therapy. 
C. behavioral therapy.
D. interpersonal psychotherapy.
A

D. interpersonal psychotherapy.

Interpersonal psychotherapy is considered to be effective in resolving problems of grief, role disputes, role transition, and interpersonal deficit.
Text page: 30

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15
Q
Role playing is associated with which type of therapy?
A. Psychoanalysis
B. Modeling 
C. Operant conditioning
D. Systematic desensitization
A

B. Modeling

In modeling, the therapist provides a role model for specific identified behaviors, and the client learns through imitation. The therapist may do the modeling, provide another person to model the behaviors, or present a video for the purpose. Some behavior therapists use role playing in the consulting room for modeling therapy.
Text page: 33

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16
Q
Which of the following is considered a primary behavioral theorist?
A. Freud
B. Skinner
C. Sullivan
D. Peplau
A

B. Skinner

B.F. Skinner (1904-1990) represented the second wave of behavioral theorists and is recognized as one of the prime movers behind the behavioral movement.
Text page: 32

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17
Q

Diathesis-stress model

A

Diathesis – biological predisposition
Stress – environmental stress or trauma

Most accepted explanation for mental illness

Combination of genetic vulnerability and negative environmental stressors

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18
Q

The DSM-IV-TR Multiaxial System

A

Axis I: Mental disorder that is the focus of treatment
Axis II: Personality disorders and mental retardation
Axis III: General medical disorder relevant to the mental disorder in axis I
Axis IV: Psychosocial and environmental problems
Axis V: Global Assessment of Functioning (GAF)

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19
Q

Freud’s personality structure

A

Id
Pleasure principle
Reflex action
Primary process

Ego
Problem solver
Reality tester

Superego
Moral component

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20
Q

Erikson’s Eight Stages of Development

A

Infancy (0-1.5 yr): Trust vs. Mistrust
Forming attachment to mother, which lays foundations for later trust in others

Early childhood (1.5-3 yr): Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
Gaining some basic control of self and environment (e.g., toilet training, exploration)
Late childhood (3-6 yr): Initiative vs. guilt
Becoming purposeful and directive
School age (6-12 yr): Industry vs. inferiority
Developing social, physical, and school skills

Adolescence (12-20 yr): Identity vs. role confusion
Making transition from childhood to adulthood; developing sense of identity

Early adulthood (20-35 yr): Intimacy vs. isolation
Establishing intimate bonds of love and friendship
Middle adulthood (35-65 yr): Generativity vs. self-absorption
Fulfilling life goals that involve family, career, and society; developing concerns that embrace generations
Later years (65 yr-death): Integrity vs. despair
Looking back over one's life and accepting its meaning
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21
Q

Hildegard Peplau

A
  • Author of Interpersonal Relations in Nursing (1952)
  • First nurse theorist to describe the nurse-patient relationship as the foundation of nursing practice
  • Engineered a major paradigm shift from a model focused on medical treatments to an interpersonal relational model of nursing practice
  • Nurse-patient relationship phases (orientation, working, termination)
  • Levels of anxiety
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22
Q

Common Cognitive Distortions

A

All-or-nothing thinking - thinking in black and white, reducing complex outcomes into absolutes
Overgeneralization - using a bad outcome (or a few bad outcomes) as evidence that nothing will ever go right again
Labeling - a form of overgeneralization where a characteristic or event becomes definitive and results in an overly harsh label for self or others
Mental filter - focusing on negative detail or bad event and allowing it to taint everything else
Disqualifying the positive - maintaining a negative view by rejecting information that supports a positive view as being irrelevant, inaccurate, or accidental
Jumping to conclusions - making a negative interpretation despite the fact that there is little or no supporting evidence
Magnification or minimization - exaggerating the importance of something
Emotional reasoning - drawing a conclusion based on an emotional state
“Should” and “must” statements - rigid self-directives that presume an unrealistic amount of control over external events
Personalization - assuming responsibility for an external event or situation that was likely outside personal control

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23
Q

Resilience, the capacity to rebound from stressors via adaptive coping, is associated with positive mental health. Your friend has just been laid off from his job. Which of the following responses on your part would likely contribute to enhanced resilience?

  1. Using your connections to set up an interview with your employer.
  2. Connecting him with a friend of the family who owns his own business.
  3. Supporting him in arranging, preparing for, and completing multiple interviews.
  4. Helping him to understand that the layoff resulted from troubles in the economy and is not his fault.
A
  1. Supporting him in arranging, preparing for, and completing multiple interviews.

Resilience develops from the process of resolving distress through adaptive coping. It
is enhanced when a person experiences success as a result of his own efforts, which gives the
person an increased sense of control or mastery over stressful events. This is illustrated in the
choice involving helping your friend to obtain and succeed in interviewing for a replacement job.
In the other choices, you are helping the person deal with his situation and/or find a replacement
job but not in a manner that leads him to experience success via his own efforts. As a result,
these approaches do not provide your friend with an opportunity to experience a sense of mastery
over stress, so they are less likely to contribute to increased resiliency.

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24
Q

Which of the following situations best supports the stress-diathesis model of mental illness development?

  1. The rate of suicide increases during times of national disaster and despair.
  2. Four of five siblings in the Jones family develop bipolar disorder by the age of 30.
  3. A man with no prior mental health problems experiences sadness after his divorce.
  4. A man develops schizophrenia, but his identical twin remains free of mental illness.
A
  1. A man develops schizophrenia, but his identical twin remains free of mental illness.

The stress-diathesis theory states that some persons are born with a biological
predisposition to mental illness, but that mental illness does not necessarily develop unless those
susceptible persons are exposed to stressors which trigger the illness. Thus for two persons with
the same genetic profile, one might develop a mental illness due to stressful life experiences,
whereas his counterpart, despite having the same genetic makeup, has a different life experience
and fails to develop the illness. This scenario is best demonstrated in the case of the man who
develops schizophrenia, while his identical twin, with the same genetic makeup, remains free of the disorder. The remaining choices do not necessarily involve a combination of a common
biological predisposition and exposure to a stressor working together to trigger a mental disorder.

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25
Q

Identify all of the correct statements about mental illness which are correct:

  1. In any given year, about 20% of adults experience a mental disorder.
  2. Mental health is best represented as a continuum of levels of functioning.
  3. Mental disorders and diagnoses occur very consistently across cultures.
  4. Most serious mental illnesses are psychological rather than biological in nature.
  5. The President’s New Freedom Commission highlighted significant gaps in care.
  6. “Parity” refers to relating to mentally ill persons the same as to the non-mentally ill.
A
  1. In any given year, about 20% of adults experience a mental disorder.
  2. Mental health is best represented as a continuum of levels of functioning.
  3. The President’s New Freedom Commission highlighted significant gaps in care.

About 21% of the U.S. population experiences a diagnosable mental illness in any one
year. “Mental health” is not an absolute that one either has or does not have. As with physical
health, persons vary in how mentally fit and able to function they are, and mental illnesses vary
in their impact at different times and in different patients. Although providers of mental health
care strive to make diagnoses in a culturally neutral manner, there are significant variations in the
prevalence of some mental illnesses in certain cultures. For example, anorexia nervosa is usually
diagnosed less frequently outside the United States, whereas some cultures have identified
mental disorders that are not prevalent in the United States. Most serious mental illnesses such as
schizophrenia and mood disorders are believed to have a biological basis. The President’s New
Freedom Commission noted that mental health care delivery was fragmented and not meeting the
needs of many persons with mental illness and called for major changes in the delivery of care to
persons with mental illnesses. “Parity” as it relates to mental health refers to insurance and other
third-party payers reimbursing for mental health care in a manner comparable to reimbursement
for the care of physical illnesses, without restrictions or limitations specific to mental disorders.

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26
Q

Which of the following disorders would be included on Axis I of the DSM IV-TR?

  1. Major depression, dementia, and alcoholism
  2. Diabetes type I or II, Parkinson’s disease, and seizure disorders
  3. Narcissistic, borderline, and paranoid personality disorders
  4. Mental retardation and psychosocial stressors such as divorce
A
  1. Major depression, dementia, and alcoholism

Axis I disorders include disorders of thought (cognition), feeling, and/or behavior
which are not developmental in nature. Examples include most of the major mental disorders such as mood disorders, psychotic disorders, substance use disorders, and cognitive disorders
(such as dementia). Disorders which are developmental in nature (i.e., occur very early in life
and persist thereafter), such as mental retardation and personality disorders, are grouped on Axis
II. Concurrent or contributing medical conditions such as cardiovascular disease or diabetes,
when present, are listed on Axis III. Contributing psychosocial stressors are listed on Axis IV.

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27
Q

Which of the following actions represent the primary focus of psychiatric nursing for a basic-level registered nurse? Select all that apply.

  1. Determining a patient’s diagnosis according to the DSM-IV-TR
  2. Ordering diagnostic tests such as EEGs or CT or MRI scans
  3. Identifying how a patient is coping with a symptom such as hallucinations
  4. Guiding a patient to learn and use a variety of stress-management techniques
  5. Helping a patient without transportation find a way to his treatment appointments
  6. Collecting petition signatures seeking the removal of stigmatizing images on television
A
  1. Identifying how a patient is coping with a symptom such as hallucinations
  2. Guiding a patient to learn and use a variety of stress-management techniques
  3. Helping a patient without transportation find a way to his treatment appointments
  4. Collecting petition signatures seeking the removal of stigmatizing images on television

The focus of psychiatric nursing involves using the nursing process to promote mental
health and/or facilitate constructive responses to mental health problems or psychiatric disorders.
Although advanced practice registered nurses may prescribe diagnostic examinations or
medications or identify DSM IV-TR diagnoses for treatment, these functions typically require
advanced educational preparation and certification.

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28
Q

The nurse is working with a patient who lacks the ability to problem solve and seeks ways to
self-satisfy without regard for others. The nurse understands that which system of the patient’s
personality is most pronounced?

  1. Id
  2. Ego
  3. Conscience (superego)
  4. Ego ideal (superego)
A
  1. Id

Freud’s distinct yet interactive systems of the personality include the id, the ego, and
the superego. The id cannot tolerate frustration and seeks to discharge tension and return to a
more comfortable level of energy, lacks the ability to problem solve, is not logical, and operates
according to the pleasure principle. The ego is able to differentiate subjective experiences,
memory images, and objective reality; it is logical and operates based in reality. The superego,
comprising the conscience and the ego ideal, is the moral component of the personality; it seeks
perfection rather than pleasure or reason. This patient is seeking self-satisfaction without regard
for others and cannot problem solve, which is reflective of the id.

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29
Q

Which behavior, seen in a 30-year-old patient, would alert the nurse to the fact that the
patient is not in his appropriate developmental stage according to Erikson?

  1. States he is happily married
  2. Frequently requests to call his brother “just to check in”
  3. Looks forward to visits from a co-worker
  4. Says “I’m still trying to find myself.”
A
  1. Says “I’m still trying to find myself.”

A 30-year old patient should be in Erikson’s stage of intimacy versus isolation.
Acknowledging meaningful interpersonal relationships reflects that the patient has successfully
resolved this crisis. The statement “I’m still trying to find myself” reflects that the patient has not
successfully resolved this crisis and is actually still in the stage of identity versus role confusion,
when the individual experiences confusion about who he is.

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30
Q

A patient has difficulty sitting still and listening to others during group therapy. The therapist
plans to use operant conditioning as a form of behavioral modification to assist the patient.
Which action would the nurse expect to see in group therapy?

  1. The therapist will act as a role model for the patient by sitting still and listening.
  2. The patient will receive a token from the therapist for each session in which she sits still
    and listens.
  3. The patient will be required to sit in solitude for 30 minutes after each session in which
    she does not sit still or listen.
  4. The therapist will ask that the patient sit still and listen for only 2 minutes at a time to
    begin and will increase the time incrementally until the patient can sit and listen 10
    minutes at a time.
A
  1. The patient will receive a token from the therapist for each session in which she sits still
    and listens.

This “token economy” is reflective of operant conditioning, where positive
reinforcement increases desired behaviors. By sitting still and listening herself, the therapist uses
the strategy of modeling. Requiring the patient to sit in solitude is reflective of aversion therapy,
which is akin to punishment; aversion therapy can involve a punishment that is applied after the
patient has exhibited the undesired behavior. The process whereby a patient’s fear is broken
down into components and addressed incrementally (in a step-by-step fashion) is called
systematic desensitization.

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31
Q

The nurse is planning care for a patient with anxiety who will be admitted to the unit shortly.
Which nursing action is most important?

  1. Consider ways to assist the patient to feel valued during his stay on the unit.
  2. Choose a roommate for the patient so that a friendship can develop.
  3. Identify a room where the patient will have comfortable surroundings, and order a
    balanced meal plan.
  4. Plan methods of decreasing stimuli that could cause heightened anxiety in the patient.
A
  1. Identify a room where the patient will have comfortable surroundings, and order a
    balanced meal plan.

Identifying comfortable surroundings and ordering a balanced meal plan involves
physiological needs. Based on Maslow’s hierarchy, food, oxygen, water, and sleep are among the
most basic needs of each human. These needs take priority because they are on the lowest plane
of the pyramid. Once these needs are met, higher needs are able to emerge. According to
Maslow’s hierarchy, considering ways to assist the patient to feel valued involves esteem needs,
and encouraging friendship involves belongingness and love needs. There are more important
processes that must first be addressed. Decreasing stimuli addresses safety needs, according to
Maslow’s hierarchy. Although safety is a priority, there is a more important process that must
first be addressed.

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32
Q

An experienced nurse is monitoring a new nurse. Which action of the new nurse would cause
the experienced nurse to intervene?

  1. Considering ways to decrease suicide risk of a suicidal patient
  2. Referring an abused patient to a shelter
  3. Providing a safe environment for a patient with Alzheimer’s disease
  4. Asking a patient to justify her behaviors
A
  1. Asking a patient to justify her behaviors

The therapeutic milieu exists to provide a safe and effective environment for patients.
Pressing a patient to justify her behaviors does not encourage this milieu. The other nursing
actions are appropriate within the therapeutic milieu.

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33
Q

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

A
  • Human motivation is a hierarchy of dynamic processes or needs that are critical for the development of all humans
  • Physiological needs - physiological drives (food, oxygen, water, sleep, sex, and a constant body temperature)
  • Safety needs - security, protection, freedom from fear/anxiety/chaos, need for law, order and limits.
  • Love and belonging needs - people have a need for intimate relationships, love, affection, and belonging and will seek to overcome feelings of aloneness and alienation
  • Esteem - people need to have a high self-regard and have it reflected to them from others. If self-esteem needs are met, we feel confident, valued, and valuable.
  • Self-actualization - preset to strive to be everything we are capable of becoming.
  • Self-transcendence
34
Q

Milieu therapy

A

Use of total environment

People, setting, structure, and emotional climate all important to healing

35
Q

Function of cerebellum

A

Regulates skeletal muscle

  • Coordination and contraction
  • Maintains equilibrium
36
Q

The incoherent thought and speech patterns of the client with schizophrenia are related to the brain’s inability to

  1. regulate conscious mental activity.
  2. retain and recall past experience.
  3. regulate social behavior.
  4. maintain homeostasis.
A
  1. regulate conscious mental activity.

When the brain cannot regulate conscious mental activity, the individual’s speech patterns demonstrate incoherence and lack of reality orientation.
Text page: 48

37
Q

Homeostasis is promoted by interaction between the brain and internal organs mediated by

  1. conscious behavior.
  2. the autonomic nervous system.
  3. the sympathetic nervous system.
  4. the parasympathetic nervous system.
A
  1. the autonomic nervous system.

The function of the autonomic nervous system is to transmit messages between the brain and the internal organs. This linkage promotes the maintenance of homeostasis.
Text page: 47

38
Q

Cells that respond to stimuli, conduct electrical impulses, and release neurotransmitters are called

  1. neurons.
  2. synapses.
  3. dendrites.
  4. receptors.
A
  1. neurons.

Neurons are the basic functional unit of the nervous system responsible for sending and receiving messages as electrochemical events.
Text page: 49

39
Q

Which imaging technique can provide information about brain function?

  1. Computed tomography scan
  2. Positron emission tomography scan
  3. Magnetic resonance imaging scan
  4. Skull radiograph
A
  1. Positron emission tomography scan

The positron emission tomography scan provides information about function; the other imaging techniques provide information about structure.
Text pages: 55, Tabe 3-2, 56

40
Q

When a tumor of the cerebellum is present, the nurse should expect that the client would initially demonstrate

  1. disequilibrium.
  2. abnormal eye movement.
  3. impaired social judgment.
  4. blood pressure irregularities.
A
  1. disequilibrium.

The cerebellum is the organ primarily responsible for balance.
Text page: 53, Fig. 3-3

41
Q

Which organs secrete hormones that are a normal component of the body’s general response to stress?

  1. Brain, thyroid gland, pancreas
  2. Brain, pituitary gland, adrenal glands
  3. Pituitary gland, pancreas, thyroid gland
  4. Adrenal glands, parathyroid glands
A
  1. Brain, pituitary gland, adrenal glands

The hypothalamus, pituitary, and adrenal glands act as a system that responds to mental and physical stress. The three hormones secreted—corticotropin-releasing hormone, corticotropin, and cortisol—influence the function of nerve cells of the brain.
Text page: 47

42
Q

The behavior of an individual who seems unable to learn right from wrong and who repeatedly violates norms and laws demonstrates problems related to the brain’s inability to

  1. regulate conscious mental activity.
  2. retain and recall past experience.
  3. regulate social behavior.
  4. maintain homeostasis.
A
  1. regulate social behavior.

The inability to regulate social behavior usually results in antisocial behaviors such as lying, cheating, taking advantage of others, and breaking laws.
Text page: 49

43
Q

Function of brainstem

A

Core – regulates internal organs and vital functions
Hypothalamus – basic drives and link between thought and emotion and function of internal organs
Brainstem – processing center for sensory information

44
Q

Function of cerebrum

A
Mental activities
Conscious sense of being
Emotional status
Memory
Control of skeletal muscles –  movement
Language and communication
45
Q

Antianxiety and Hypnotic Drugs

A

Benzodiazepines - potentiate (promote) the activity of GABA by binding to a specific receptor on the GABA receptor complex

  • Diazepam (Valium)
  • Clonazepam (Klonopin)
  • Alprazolam (Xanax)
  • Lorazepam (Ativan)
  • Flurazepam (Dalmane)
  • Temazepam (Restoril)
  • Triazolam (Halcion)
  • Estazolam (ProSom)
  • Quazepam (Doral)

Short-Acting Sedative-Hypnotic Sleep Agents (“Z-hypnotics”)

  • Zolpidem (Ambien)
  • Zaleplon (Sonata)
  • Eszopiclone (Lunesta)

Melatonin Receptor Agonist
- Ramelteon (Rozerem)

Buspirone (BuSpar)

46
Q

Neurotransmitters - Monoamines

A

Dopamine
- Involved in fine muscle movement
- Involved in integration of emotions and thoughts
- Involved in decision making
- Stimulates hypothalamus to release hormones (sex, thyroid, adrenal)
Decrease: Parkinson’s, depression
Increase: Schizophrenia, mania

Norepinephrine
- Levels in brain affects mood
- Attention and arousal
- Stimulates sympathetic branch of autonomic nervous system for “fight or flight” in response to stress
Decrease: depression
Increase: Mania, anxiety states, schizophrenia

Serotonin
- Plays a role in sleep regulation, hunger, mood states, and pain perception
- Hormonal activity
- Plays a role in aggression and sexual behavior
Decrease: depression
Increase: anxiety states

Histamine
- Involved in alertness
- Involved in inflammatory response
- Stimulates gastric secretion
Decrease: sedation, weight gain
47
Q

Neurotransmitters - Amino acids

A

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
- Plays a role in inhibition; reduces aggression, excitation, and anxiety
- May play a role in pain perception
- Anticonvulsant and muscle relaxing properties
- May impair cognition and psychomotor functioning
Decrease: anxiety disorders, schizophrenia, mania, huntington’s disease
Increase: reduction of anxiety

Glutamate (NMDA, AMPA)
- Is excitatory
- AMPA plays a role in learning and memory
Decrease (NMDA): Psychosis
Increase (NMDA): Prolonged increased state can be neurotoxic, neurodegeneration in Alzheimer’s disease
Increase (AMPA): improvement of cognitive performance in behavioral tasks

48
Q

Neurotransmitters - Cholinergics

A

Acetylcholine
- Plays a role in learning, memory
- Regulates mood: mania, sexual aggression
- Affects sexual and aggressive behavior
- Stimulates parasympathetic nervous system
Decrease: alzheimer’s disease, Huntington’s disease, parkinson’s disease
Increase: depression

49
Q

A client’s communication is marked by loose associations and word salad. Dysfunction of which portion of the brain is responsible for these symptoms?

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Brainstem
  4. Basal ganglia
A
  1. Cerebrum

The ability to think and speak logically is controlled by the cerebrum.
Text page: 54

50
Q

On the basis of the current understanding of neurotransmitters, the nurse can view a client’s symptoms of profound depression as likely related in part to

  1. increased dopamine level.
  2. decreased serotonin level.
  3. increased norepinephrine level.
  4. decreased acetylcholine level.
A
  1. decreased serotonin level.

A lowered serotonin level is highly supported as being related to depression; however, depression is more probably influenced by a number of neurotransmitter abnormalities.
Text pages: 58, 59

51
Q

A nursing assistant shares with the nurse that a client with schizophrenia is as difficult to communicate with as,” someone with Alzheimer’s.” The nurse offers the following advice:

  1. “Try talking to him early in the day to get the best results. Fatigue disorganizes his thinking.”
  2. “Schizophrenia and Alzheimer’s disease both cause irreversible brain damage, so keep your conversations short when you talk to a client with either disorder.”
  3. “His medication targets his disturbed thought and speech patterns. To maximize improvement he will need positive interactions and support.”
  4. “Make sure he eats the comfort foods he is served because they increase serotonin production and will help normalize his thoughts and speech.”
A
  1. “His medication targets his disturbed thought and speech patterns. To maximize improvement he will need positive interactions and support.”

This response will help the nursing assistant understand that improvement can be expected in the client’s condition, and that this improvement can be maximized by therapeutic interactions with staff. It establishes the expectation that the nursing assistant will interact in a therapeutic manner.
Text page: 46

52
Q

The nurse responsible for the care of a client prescribed clonazepam (klonopin) would evaluate treatment as being successful when the client demonstrates:

  1. less anxiety.
  2. normal appetite.
  3. improved sleep pattern.
  4. reduced auditory hallucinations.
A
  1. less anxiety.

γ-Aminobutyric acid is thought to modulate neuronal excitability and anxiety. A drug that increases the effectiveness of γ-aminobutyric acid would result in anxiety reduction.
Text pages: 58, 59, 61

53
Q

The medication prescribed for a client acts by blocking reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine. The nurse evaluates the treatment as successful when observing:

  1. Laughing at a joke
  2. Exercising a sore shoulder
  3. Writes down his telephone number
  4. Going to his room to ‘calm down’
A
  1. Laughing at a joke

Depression is thought to be at least in part caused by lowered levels of serotonin and norepinephrine. Increasing the amount of these transmitters in the brain by blocking reuptake may result in mood elevation.
Text page: 63

54
Q

The physician tells a client who demonstrates use of many rituals “We want to do an imaging study that will tell us which parts of your brain are particularly active. We believe the study will help us determine how to treat your symptoms.” From this explanation, the nurse can determine that the physician will order a(n)

  1. computed tomography scan.
  2. positron emission tomography scan.
  3. ventriculogram.
  4. electroencephalogram.
A
  1. positron emission tomography scan.

A positron emission tomography scan detects brain activity. The other imaging studies are limited to visualization of structures.
Text page: 55 and Table 3-2

55
Q

A client is admitted to the hospital with severe depression. The nurse recognizes the possibility that depression may be related to a stress induced hormonal imbalance associated with:

  1. Luteinizing hormone
  2. Cortisol
  3. Gronadotropin
  4. Clomipramine
A
  1. Cortisol

Cortisol is a hormone released during periods of stress.
Text page: 47

56
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing a crisis. Which symptoms would
indicate that the patient is in the stage of alarm?

  1. Constricted pupils
  2. Dry mouth
  3. Decrease in heart rate
  4. Sudden drop in blood pressure
A
  1. Dry mouth

During the stage of alarm, sympathetic nervous system activity increases. Heart rate,
respirations, and blood pressure increase to enhance strength and speed, while pupils dilate to
provide a broad view of the environment. Blood is shunted away from the digestive tract to the
more essential organs, which results in a slowing in digestion and dry mouth.

57
Q

If it is determined that a patient will benefit from guided imagery, what teaching should the
nurse provide?

  1. Focus on a visual object or sound.
  2. Become acutely aware of your breathing pattern.
  3. Envision an image of a place that is peaceful.
  4. Develop deep abdominal breathing
A
  1. Envision an image of a place that is peaceful.

: Guided imagery is a process in which a person envisions images that are calm and
peaceful. Focusing on a visual object or sound while becoming acutely aware of one’s breathing
pattern are associated with meditation. Development of deep abdominal breathing, also known as
diaphragmatic breathing, is a form of breathing exercise.

58
Q

A patient is going to undergo biofeedback. Which patient statement requires further teaching
by the nurse?

  1. “This will measure my muscle activity, heart rate, and blood pressure.”
  2. “It will help me recognize how my body responds to stress.”
  3. “I will feel a small shock of electricity if I tell a lie.”
  4. “The instruments will know if my skin temperature changes.”
A
  1. “It will help me recognize how my body responds to stress.”

Biofeedback is accomplished through the use of sensitive instruments that provide
immediate and exact information about muscle activity, brain waves, skin temperature, heart
rate, blood pressure, and other bodily functions. The patient will not feel any type of electrical
stimulation during the process of biofeedback.

59
Q

A patient has told the nurse that she knows she is going to lose her job, which scares her
because she needs to work to pay her bills. Which nursing response reflects the positive stress
response of problem solving?

  1. “What are your plans to find a new job?”
  2. “Can you call your parents to support you during this time?”
  3. “Is it possible that this job loss is an opportunity to find a better paying job?”
  4. “I’m sure everything will turn out just fine.”
A
  1. “What are your plans to find a new job?”

Problem solving involves figuring out how to deal with the situation. Asking what the
patient’s plans are to find a new job allows the patient to contemplate how to solve this problem.
Calling others who are caring and may be helpful reflects the use of using social support.
Redefining the situation to see the positive side and using it to one’s advantage reflects the use of
reframing. Discounting the situation by stating that it will be just fine reflects the negative stress
response of wishful thinking.

60
Q

The nurse is caring for four patients. Which patient would be at highest risk for psychosocial
compromise? The patient who has experienced:

  1. the death of a friend.
  2. a divorce.
  3. a recent job layoff.
  4. the death of a spouse.
A
  1. the death of a spouse.

The life stressor situation perceived most difficult is the death of a spouse. All other
losses, despite the fact that they still impact the patient, are perceived as less difficult than that of
a spouse.

61
Q

Since learning that he will have a trial pass to a new group home tomorrow, Bill’s usual
behavior has changed. He has started to pace rapidly, has become very distracted, and is
breathing rapidly. He has trouble focusing on anything other than the group home issue and
complains that he suddenly feels very nauseated. Which initial nursing response is most
appropriate for Bill’s level of anxiety?

  1. “You seem anxious. Would you like to talk about how you are feeling?”
  2. “If you do not calm down, I will have to give you prn medicine to calm you.”
  3. “Bill, slow down. Listen to me. You are safe. Take a nice, deep breath.”
  4. “We can delay the visit to the group home if that would help you calm down.”
A
  1. “Bill, slow down. Listen to me. You are safe. Take a nice, deep breath.”

In this situation, the patient is demonstrating a severe level of anxiety as evidenced by
his hyperventilation, increased purposeless motor activity, inability to focus to respond to his
environment, and intensified somatic complaints. Patients at a severe level of anxiety are usually
unable to focus sufficiently to engage in a conversation or process complex information. They
respond better to short, direct statements or commands. Although the patient might benefit from
sedating medication, as presented here, this intervention is more likely to be perceived as an
ultimatum or a threat than a form of assistance and is likely to worsen his anxiety rather than
calm him. Delaying the trial pass to the group home might also calm the patient but is not an
appropriate first response; given that doing so would delay the patient’s discharge, it would be
better to withhold this response until less disruptive calming measures had been tried.

62
Q

A patient, who seems to be angry when his family again fails to visit as promised, tells the
nurse that he is fine and that the visit wasn’t important to him anyway. When the nurse suggests
that perhaps he might be disappointed or even a little angry that the family has again let him
down, the patient responds that it is his family that is angry, not him, or else they would have
visited. What defense mechanism(s) is this patient using to deal with his feelings? Select all that
apply.

  1. Rationalization
  2. Introjection
  3. Projection
  4. Regression
  5. Denial
  6. Dissociation
A
  1. Rationalization
  2. Projection
  3. Denial

Rationalization involves justifying one’s illogical or maladaptive responses by
developing acceptable explanations for them; this is evident in the patient’s supporting his claim
that he is not upset by stating that the visit was unimportant to him. Projection involves taking
the unacceptable feelings that are within oneself and projecting them onto others, so that others
(in the patient’s view) possess them instead of the patient; this is in evidence here in the patient
saying that he is not the angry one but that his family is angry with him instead. Denial is
escaping anxiety by ignoring or denying its existence; an example of this is the patient’s
reporting that he is not angry. Introjection involves incorporating within oneself some distressing
element from one’s environment (e.g., a person who was raised by excessively critical parents
assumes a very critical view of herself in adulthood). Regression involves coping by returning to
an earlier developmental or functional stage (e.g., a patient who has been criticized by a peer
assumes a fetal position and begins to rock back and forth). Dissociation involves responding to
stress by separating oneself from one’s reality (e.g., during an episode of abuse, a child
psychologically detaches herself from the present and enters a fantasy state wherein she feels
safe and is able to defend herself from abusers).

63
Q

John, a construction worker, is on duty when a wall under construction suddenly falls,
crushing a number of co-workers. Shaken initially, he seems to be coping well with the tragedy
but later begins to experience tremors, nightmares, and periods during which he feels numb or
detached from his environment. He finds himself frequently thinking about the tragedy and
feeling guilty that he was spared while many others died. Which statement about this situation is
most accurate?

  1. John is experiencing posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and requires therapy.
  2. John has acute stress disorder and should be treated with antianxiety medications.
  3. John is experiencing anxiety and grief and should be monitored for PTSD symptoms.
  4. John is experiencing mild anxiety and a normal grief reaction; no intervention is needed.
A
  1. John is experiencing anxiety and grief and should be monitored for PTSD symptoms.

John is grieving for his lost co-workers and experiencing survivor’s guilt, a common
reaction when events cost some their lives while sparing others. He is also evidencing some
symptoms associated with anxiety, such as tremor and being sometimes preoccupied with the
stressful event. However, he is not experiencing key features of PTSD such as re-experiencing
the tragedy, avoidance of focusing on or talking about the event, or emotional numbing. Acute
stress disorder is characterized by the presence of at least three dissociative elements in response
to a stressor, such as feeling unreal, being less aware of one’s surroundings, or feeling a sense of
unreality relative to oneself or one’s environment. In this case, John is experiencing only two
such symptoms and has others that are not part of acute stress disorder. As noted, John is
experiencing grief and mild-to-moderate anxiety in response to the tragedy he witnessed;
however, given the intensity of this tragedy, it is important to monitor John for signs of PTSD,
because he is at risk for developing this disorder (which usually manifests within 3 months of the traumatic event). Failure to monitor for PTSD would place John at risk of developing this
potentially disabling anxiety disorder, which in some patients can even lead to suicidal behavior.
Therefore, although his levels of anxiety and grief are not pathological at this time, because he is
at risk for PTSD, he does requirement further intervention in the form of periodic reassessment
and support.

64
Q
A variety of medications are used in the treatment of severe anxiety disorders. Which class of 
medication used to treat anxiety is potentially addictive? 
  1. Benzodiazepines
  2. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
  3. Beta-blockers
  4. Antihistamines
  5. Buspirone
A
  1. Benzodiazepines

All of the medications listed can be used to treat anxiety disorders, but
benzodiazepines are the only type that are potentially addictive.

65
Q

An older adult in the outpatient internal medicine clinic complains of feeling a sense of dread
and fearfulness without apparent cause. It has been growing steadily worse and is to the point
where it is interfering with the patient’s sleep and volunteer work. After a brief interview and
cursory physical exam, the APRN diagnoses the patient with generalized anxiety disorder and
suggests a referral to the mental health clinic. Which response(s) by the clinic nurse would be
appropriate? Select all that apply.

  1. Complete a neurological history and neurological examination.
  2. Examine the patient’s extremities for edema, and listen to her lungs.
  3. Observe the patient’s respirations, and obtain a pulse oximetry reading.
  4. Review the patient’s current medications, and observe the patient’s gait.
  5. Suggest that a battery of blood tests, including a CBC, be ordered and reviewed.
  6. Ask the APRN to review the nurse’s findings before ordering the referral.
A

All of the above.

  1. Complete a neurological history and neurological examination.
  2. Examine the patient’s extremities for edema, and listen to her lungs.
  3. Observe the patient’s respirations, and obtain a pulse oximetry reading.
  4. Review the patient’s current medications, and observe the patient’s gait.
  5. Suggest that a battery of blood tests, including a CBC, be ordered and reviewed.
  6. Ask the APRN to review the nurse’s findings before ordering the referral.

Many medical conditions can cause or mimic anxiety. In an older adult, who would be
more likely to have medical illnesses than a younger person (both diagnosed and undiscovered),
it is especially important to rule out contributing medical conditions before assuming that
symptoms resembling anxiety are of a mental health origin. Since disorders of the respiratory, circulatory, endocrine, metabolic, and neurological systems can all mimic anxiety or cause
anxiety symptoms, further assessment of all these body systems is indicated. A professional in
the role of patient advocate would use assertive communication techniques to alert the APRN to
consider other possible causes for the patient’s presentation before concluding that primary
anxiety is behind the patient’s symptoms.

66
Q

Levels of anxiety

A

Mild - normal experience of every day living, allows individual to perceive reality in sharp focus. Sees, hears, and grasps more information, and problem solving becomes more effective. Symptoms: slight discomfort, restlessness, irritability, mild tension-relieving behaviors (e.g., nail biting, foot or finger tapping, fidgeting).

Moderate anxiety - perceptual field narrows as anxiety increases, some details are excluded from observation. Sees, hears, and grasps less information and may demonstrate selective inattention. Ability to think hampered, but learning and problem solving can still take place. Physical - tension, pounding heart ,increased pulse and resp rate, perspiration, and some mild somatic symptoms.

Mild or moderate anxiety can be constructive, because anxiety may be a signal that something in the person’s life needs attention or is dangerous.

Severe anxiety - difficulty noticing what is going on in the environment, learning and problem solving are not possible, person may be dazed or confused. Somatic symptoms (headache, nausea, dizziness, insomnia) often increase; trembling and a pounding heart are common, and person may experience hyperventilation and sense of impending doom or dread.

Panic - most extreme level of anxiety and markedly disturbed behavior. Unable to process what is going on in the environment and may lose touch with reality. Behavior manifests - pacing, running, shouting, screaming, or withdrawal. Hallucinations may be experienced. Behavior may become erratic, uncoordinated, and impulsive.

67
Q
K has been getting mediocre grades in school. When she applies for admission at the upper division level, she is rejected on the basis of inadequate grades. Thereafter, K studies harder and receives better grades. K's behavioral change is rooted in
A. a rude awakening.
B. normal anxiety.
C. trait anxiety.
D. altruism.
A

B. normal anxiety.

Normal anxiety is a healthy life force needed to carry out the tasks of living and striving toward goals. It prompts constructive actions.
Text page: 213

68
Q
A client approaches a nurse and blurts "You have got to help me! Something terrible is happening. I am falling apart. I can't think. My heart is pounding and my head is throbbing." The nurse should assess the client's level of anxiety as
A. mild.
B. moderate.
C. severe.
D. panic.
A

C. severe.

Severe anxiety is characterized by feelings of falling apart and impending doom, impaired cognition, and severe somatic symptoms such as headache and pounding heart.
Text page: 213

69
Q

A client is displaying symptomology reflective of a panic attack. In order to help the client regain control the nurse responds:
A. “You need to calm yourself.”
B. “What is it that you would like me to do to help you?”
C. “Can you tell me what you were feeling just before your attack?”
D. “I will get you some medication to help calm you.”

A

C. “Can you tell me what you were feeling just before your attack?”

A response that helps the client identify the precipitant stressor is most therapeutic.
Text page: 219

70
Q

A client is demonstrating a moderate level of anxiety. She tells the nurse “I am so anxious that I could fly! I do not know what to do.” A helpful response for the nurse to make would be
A. “What things have you done in the past that helped you feel more comfortable?”
B. “Let’s try to focus on that adorable little granddaughter of yours.”
C. “Why don’t you sit down over there and work on that jigsaw puzzle?”
D. “Try not to think about the feelings and sensations you’re experiencing.”

A

A. “What things have you done in the past that helped you feel more comfortable?”

Because the client is not able to think through the problem and arrive at an action that would lower anxiety, the nurse can assist by asking what has worked in the past. Often what has been helpful in the past can be used again.
Text page: 219

71
Q
A client is noted to have a high level of non-goal-directed motor activity, running from chair to chair in the solarium. He is wide eyed and seems terror stricken. He repeats "They are coming! They are coming!" He neither follows staff direction nor responds to verbal efforts to calm him. The level of anxiety can be assessed as
A. mild.
B. moderate.
C. severe.
D. panic.
A

D. panic.

Panic level anxiety results in markedly disorganized, disturbed behavior, including confusion, shouting, and hallucinating. Individuals may be unable to follow directions and may need external limits to ensure safety.
Text page: 213

72
Q
A cultural characteristic that may be observed in a teenage, female Hispanic client in times of stress is to:
A. suddenly tremble severely 
B. Exhibit stoic behavior
C. Report both nausea and vomiting
D. Laugh inappropriately Incorrect
A

A. suddenly tremble severely

Ataque de nervios (attack of the nerves) is a culture-bound syndrome that is seem in undereducated, disadvantaged females of Hispanic ethnicity.
Text page: 227

73
Q
The nurse anticipates that the nursing history of a client diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) will reveal:
A. a history of childhood trauma
B. a sibling with the disorder
C. an eating disorder
D. a phobia as well
A

B. a sibling with the disorder

Research shows that first-degree biological relatives of those with OCD have a higher frequency of the disorder than exists in the general population.
Text page: 225

74
Q

A client is diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). The nursing assessment supports this diagnosis when the client reports:
A. that his symptoms started right after he was robbed at gun point
B. being so worried he hasn’t been able to work for the last 12 months
C. that eating in public makes him extremely uncomfortable
D. repeatedly verbalizing his prayers helps him feel relaxed

A

B. being so worried he hasn’t been able to work for the last 12 months

GAD is characterized by symptomology that lasts 6 months or longer.
Text page: 220

75
Q
Panic attacks in Latin American individuals often involve
A. repetitive involuntary actions.
B. blushing.
C. fear of dying.
D. offensive vebalizations.
A

C. fear of dying.

Panic attacks in Latin Americans and Northern Europeans often involve sensations of choking, smothering, numbness or tingling, as well as fear of dying.
Text page: 226

76
Q

The plan of care for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder who has elaborate washing rituals specifies that response prevention is to be used. Which scenario is an example of response prevention?
A. Having client repeatedly touch “dirty” objects
B. Not allowing client to seek reassurance from staff
C. Not allowing the client to wash hands after touching a “dirty” object
D. Telling the client that he or she must relax whenever tension mounts

A

C. Not allowing the client to wash hands after touching a “dirty” object

Response prevention is a technique by which the client is prevented from engaging in the compulsive ritual. A form of behavior therapy, response prevention is never undertaken without physician approval.
Text page: 238

77
Q

A client is experiencing a panic attack. The nurse can be most therapeutic by
A. telling the client to take slow, deep breaths.
B. verbalizing mild disapproval of the anxious behavior.
C. asking the client what he means when he says “I am dying.”
D. offering an explanation about the role of the sympathetic nervous system in symptom formation.

A

A. telling the client to take slow, deep breaths.

Slow diaphragmatic breathing can induce relaxation and reduce symptoms of anxiety. Often the nurse has to tell the client to “breathe with me” and keep the client focused on the task. The slower breathing also reduces the threat of hypercapnia with its attendant symptoms.
Text page: 238

78
Q

The nurse caring for a client with a panic attack might anticipate that the psychiatrist would order a stat dose of
A. standard antipsychotic medication.
B. tricyclic antidepressant medication.
C. anticholinergic medication.
D. a short-acting benzodiazepine medication.

A

D. a short-acting benzodiazepine medication.

A short-acting benzodiazepine is the only type of medication listed that would lessen the client’s symptoms of anxiety within a few minutes. Anticholinergics do not lower anxiety; tricyclic antidepressants have very little antianxiety effect and have a slow onset of action; and standard antipsychotic medication will lower anxiety but has a slower onset of action and the potential for more side effects.
Text page: 236

79
Q

A Gulf War veteran is entering treatment for posttraumatic stress disorder. An important facet of assessment is to
A. ascertain how long ago the trauma occurred.
B. find out if the client uses acting out behavior.
C. determine use of chemical substances for anxiety relief.
D. establish whether the client has chronic hypertension related to high anxiety.

A

C. determine use of chemical substances for anxiety relief.

Substance abuse often coexists with posttraumatic stress disorder. It is often the client’s way of self-medicating to gain relief of symptoms.
Text page: 223

80
Q

The physician orders lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg po qid for 1 week for a client with generalized anxiety disorder. The nurse should
A. question the physician’s order because the dose is excessive.
B. explain the long-term nature of benzodiazepine therapy.
C. teach the client to limit caffeine intake.
D. tell the client to expect mild insomnia.

A

C. teach the client to limit caffeine intake.

Caffeine is an antagonist of antianxiety medication.
Text page: 237

81
Q
A potential problem that should be investigated for a client with severe obsessive-compulsive disorder is
A. sleep disturbance. 
B. excessive socialization.
C. command hallucinations.
D. altered state of consciousness.
A

A. sleep disturbance.

Clients who must engage in compulsive rituals for anxiety relief are rarely afforded relief for any prolonged period. The high anxiety level and need to perform the ritual may interfere with sleep.
Text page: 220

82
Q
Which therapeutic intervention can the nurse independently use with a client with anxiety disorder?
A. Flooding
B. Modeling 
C. Thought stopping
D. Systematic desensitization
A

B. Modeling

Modeling calm behavior in the face of anxiety or unafraid behavior in the presence of a feared stimulus are interventions that can be independently used. The other options require agreement of the treatment team.
Text page: 238