Med Surg - Exam 2 - Ch 47 (AKI and CKD) Flashcards
What are intrarenal causes of acute kidney injury (AKI) (select all that apply)?
a. Anaphylaxis
b. Renal stones
c. Bladder cancer
d. Nephrotoxic drugs
e. Acute glomerulonephritis
f. Tubular obstruction by myoglobin
d. Nephrotoxic drugs
e. Acute glomerulonephritis
f. Tubular obstruction by myoglobin
Intrarenal causes of acute kidney injury (AKI) include conditions that cause direct damage to the kidney tissue, including nephrotoxic drugs, acute glomerulonephritis, and tubular obstruction by myoglobin, or prolonged ischemia. Anaphylaxis and other prerenal problems are frequently the initial cause of AKI. Renal stones and bladder cancer are among the postrenal causes of AKI.
An 83-year-old patient was found lying on the bathroom floor. She said she fell 2 days ago and has not been able to take her heart medicine or eat or drink anything since then. What conditions could be causing prerenal AKI in this patient (select all that apply)?
a. Anaphylaxis
b. Renal calculi
c. Hypovolemia
d. Nephrotoxic drugs
e. Decreased cardiac output
c. Hypovolemia
e. Decreased cardiac output
Because the patient has had nothing to eat or drink for 2 days, she is probably dehydrated and hypovolemic. Decreased cardiac output (CO) is most likely because she is older and takes heart medicine, which is probably for heart failure or hypertension. Both hypovolemia and decreased CO cause prerenal AKI. Anaphylaxis is also a cause of prerenal AKI but is not likely in this situation. Nephrotoxic drugs would contribute to intrarenal causes of AKI and renal calculi would be a postrenal cause of AKI.
Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is the most common cause of intrarenal AKI. Which patient is most likely to develop ATN?
a. Patient with diabetes mellitus
b. Patient with hypertensive crisis
c. Patient who tried to overdose on acetominophen
d. Patient with major surgery who required a blood transfusion
d. Patient with major surgery who required a blood transfusion
Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is primarily the result of ischemia, nephrotoxins, or sepsis. Major surgery is most likely to cause severe kidney ischemia in the patient requiring a blood transfusion. A blood transfusion hemolytic reaction produces nephrotoxic injury if it occurs. Diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and acetaminophen will not contribute to ATN.
A dehydrated patient is in the Injury stage of the RIFLE staging of AKI. What would the nurse first anticipate in the treatment of this patient?
a. Assess daily weight
b. IV administration of fluid and furosemide (Lasix)
c. IV administration of insulin and sodium bicarbonate
d. Urinalysis to check for sediment, osmolality, sodium, and specific gravity
b. IV administration of fluid and furosemide (Lasix)
Injury is the stage of RIFLE classification when urine output is less than 0.5 mL/kg/hr for 12 hours, the serum creatinine is increased times two or the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is decreased by 50%. This stage may be reversible by treating the cause or, in this patient, the dehydration by administering IV fluid and a low dose of a loop diuretic, furosemide (Lasix). Assessing the daily weight will be done to monitor fluid changes but it is not the first treatment the nurse should anticipate. IV administration of insulin and sodium bicarbonate would be used for hyperkalemia. Checking the urinalysis will help to determine if the AKI has a prerenal, intrarenal, or postrenal cause by what is seen in the urine but with this patient’s dehydration, it is thought to be prerenal to begin treatment.
What indicates to a nurse that a patient with oliguria has prerenal oliguria?
a. Urine testing reveals a low specific gravity
b. Causative factor is malignant hypertension
c. Urine testing reveals a high sodium concentration
d. Reversal of oliguria occurs with fluid replacement
d. Reversal of oliguria occurs with fluid replacement
In prerenal oliguria, the oliguria is caused by a decrease in circulating blood volume and there is no damage yet to the renal tissue. It can be reversed by correcting the precipitating factor, such as fluid replacement for hypovolemia. Prerenal oliguria is characterized by urine with a high specific gravity and a low sodium concentration, whereas oliguria of intrarenal failure is characterized by urine with a low specific gravity and a high sodium concentration. Malignant hypertension causes damage to renal tissue and intrarenal oliguria.
In a patient with AKI, which laboratory urinalysis result indicates tubular damage?
a. Hematuria
b. Specific gravity fixed at 1.010
c. Urine sodium of 12 mEq/L (12 mmol/L)
d. Osmolality of 1000 mOsm/kg (1000 mmol/kg)
b. Specific gravity fixed at 1.010
A urine specific gravity that is consistently 1.010 and a urine osmolality of about 300 mOsm/kg is the same specific gravity and osmolality as plasma. This indicates that tubules are damaged and unable to concentrate urine. Hematuria is more common with postrenal damage. Tubular damage is associated with a high sodium concentration (greater than 40 mEq/L).
Metabolic acidosis occurs in the oliguric phase of AKI as a result of impairment of
a. ammonia synthesis.
b. excretion of sodium.
c. excretion of bicarbonate.
d. conservation of potassium.
a. ammonia synthesis.
Metabolic acidosis occurs in AKI because the kidneys cannot synthesize ammonia or excrete acid products of metabolism, resulting in an increased acid load. Sodium is lost in urine because the kidneys cannot conserve sodium. Impaired excretion of potassium results in hyperkalemia. Bicarbonate is normally generated and reabsorbed by the functioning kidney to maintain acid-base balance.
What indicates to a nurse that a patient with AKI is in the recovery phase?
a. A return to normal weight
b. A urine output of 3700 mL/day
c. Decreasing sodium and potassium levels
d. Decreasing blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
d. Decreasing blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels
The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels remain high during the oliguric and diuretic phases of AKI. The recovery phase begins when the glomerular filtration returns to a rate at which BUN and creatinine stabilize and then decrease. Urinary output of 3 to 5 L/day, decreasing sodium and potassium levels, and fluid weight loss are characteristic of the diuretic phase of AKI.
While caring for the patient in the oliguric phase of AKI, the nurse monitors the patient for associated collaborative problems. When should the nurse notify the health care provider?
a. Urine output is 300 mL/day.
b. Edema occurs in the feet, legs, and sacral area.
c. Cardiac monitor reveals a depressed T wave and elevated ST segment.
d. The patient experiences increasing muscle weakness and abdominal cramping.
d. The patient experiences increasing muscle weakness and abdominal cramping.
Hyperkalemia is a potentially life-threatening complication of AKI in the oliguric phase. Muscle weakness and abdominal cramping are signs of the neuromuscular impairment that occurs with hyperkalemia. In addition, hyperkalemia can cause the cardiac conduction abnormalities of peaked T wave, prolonged PR interval, prolonged QRS interval, and depressed ST segment. Urine output of 300 mL/day is expected during the oliguric phase, and is the development of peripheral edema.
In caring for the patient with AKI, what should the nurse be aware of?
a. The most common cause of death in AKI is irreversible metabolic acidosis.
b. During the oliguric phase of AKI, daily fluid intake is limited to 1000 mL plus the prior day’s fluid loss.
c. Dietary sodium and potassium during oliguric phase of AKI are managed according to the patient’s urinary output.
d. One of the most important nursing measures in managing fluid balance in the patient with AKI is taking accurate daily weights.
d. One of the most important nursing measures in managing fluid balance in the patient with AKI is taking accurate daily weights.
Measuring daily weights with the same scale at the same time each day allows for the evaluation and detection of excessive body fluid gains or losses. Infection is the leading cause of death in AKI, so meticulous aseptic technique is critical. The fluid limitation in the oliguric phase is 600 mL plus the prior day’s measured fluid loss. Dietary sodium and potassium intake are managed according to the plasma levels.
A 68-year-old man with a history of heart failure resulting from hypertension has AKI as a result of the effects of nephrotoxic diuretics. Currently his serum potassium is 6.2 mEq/L (6.2 mmol/L) with cardiac changes, his BUN is 108 mg/dL (38.6 mmol/L), his serum creatinine is 4.1 mg/dL (362 mmol/L), and his serum HCO3- is 14 mEq/L (14 mmol/L). He is somnolent and disoriented. Which treatment should the nurse expect to be used for him?
a. Loop diuretics
b. Renal replacement therapy
c. Insulin and sodium bicarbonate
d. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
b. Renal replacement therapy
This patient has at least three of the six common indications for renal replacement therapy (RRT), including (1) high potassium level, (2) metabolic acidosis, and (3) changed mental status. The other indications are (4) volume overload, resulting in compromised cardiac status (this patient has a history of hypertension), (5) BUN greater than 120 mg/dL, and (6) pericarditis, pericardial effusion, or cardiac tamponade. Although the other treatments may be used, they will not be as effective as RRT for this older patient. Loop diuretics and increased fluid are used if the patient is dehydrated. Insulin and sodium bicarbonate can be used to temporarily drive the potassium into the cells. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to actually decrease the amount of potassium in the body.
Prevention of AKI is important because of the high mortality rate. Which patients are at an increased risk for AKI (select all that apply)?
a. An 86-year-old woman scheduled for cardiac catheterization
b. A 48-year-old man with multiple injuries from a motor vehicle incident
c. A 32-year-old woman following a C-section delivery for abruptio placentae
d. A 64-year-old woman with chronic heart failure admitted with bloody stools
e. A 58-year-old man with prostate cancer undergoing preoperative workup for prostatectomy
(all of the above)
a. An 86-year-old woman scheduled for cardiac catheterization
b. A 48-year-old man with multiple injuries from a motor vehicle incident
c. A 32-year-old woman following a C-section delivery for abruptio placentae
d. A 64-year-old woman with chronic heart failure admitted with bloody stools
e. A 58-year-old man with prostate cancer undergoing preoperative workup for prostatectomy
High-risk patients include those exposed to nephrotoxic agents and advanced age (a), massive trauma (b), prolonged hypovolemia or hypotension (possibly b and c), obstetric complications (c), cardiac failure (d), preexisting chronic kidney disease, extensive burns, or sepsis. Patients with prostate cancer may have obstruction of the outflow tract, which increases risk of postrenal AKI (e).
A patient on a medical unit has a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. What is the priority action that the nurse should take?
a. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor.
b. Check the patient’s blood pressure (BP).
c. Instruct the patient to avoid high-potassium foods.
d. Call the lab and request a redraw of the lab to verify results.
a. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor.
Dysrhythmias may occur with an elevated potassium level and are potentially lethal. Monitor the rhythm while contacting the physician or calling the rapid response team. Vital signs should be checked. Depending on the patient’s history and cause of increased potassium, instruct the patient about dietary sources of potassium; however, this would not help at this point. The nurse may want to recheck the value but until then the heart rhythm needs to be monitored.
A patient with AKI has a serum potassium level of 6.7 mEq/L (6.7 mmol/L) and the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.28, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 86 mm Hg, HCO3- 18 mEq/L (18 mmol/L). The nurse recognizes that treatment of the acid-base problem with sodium bicarbonate would cause a decrease in which value?
a. pH
b. Potassium level
c. Bicarbonate level
d. Carbon dioxide level
b. Potassium level
During acidosis, potassium moves out of the cell in exchange for H+ ions, increasing the serum potassium level. Correction of the acidosis with sodium bicarbonate will help to shift the potassium back into the cells. A decrease in pH and the bicarbonate and PaCO2 levels would indicate worsening acidosis.
In replying to a patient’s questions about the seriousness of her chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse knows that the stage of CKD is based on what?
a. Total daily urine output
b. Glomerular filtration rate
c. Degree of altered mental status
d. Serum creatinine and urea levels
b. Glomerular filtration rate
Stages of chronic kidney disease are based on the GFR. No specific markers of urinary output, mental status, or azotemia classify the degree of chronic kidney disease (CKD).
The patient with CKD is receiving dialysis, and the nurse observes excoriations on the patient’s skin. What pathophysiologic changes in CKD can contribute to this finding (select all that apply)?
a. Dry skin
b. Sensory neuropathy
c. Vascular calcifications
d. Calcium-phosphate skin deposits
e. Uremic crystallization from high BUN
a. Dry skin
b. Sensory neuropathy
d. Calcium-phosphate skin deposits
Pruritis is common in patients receiving dialysis. It causes scratching from dry skin, sensory neuropathy, and calcium-phosphate deposition in the skin. Vascular calcifications contribute to cardiovascular, not to itching skin. Uremic frost rarely occurs without BUN levles greawter than 200 mg/dL, which should not occur in a patient on dialysis; urea crystallizes on the skin and also causes pruritis.
What causes the gastrointestinal (GI) manifestation of stomatitis in the patient with CKD?
a. High serum sodium levels
b. Irritation of the GI tract from creatinine
c. Increased ammonia from bacterial breakdown of urea
d. Iron salts, calcium-containing phosphate binders, and limited fluid intake
c. Increased ammonia from bacterial breakdown of urea
Uremic fetor, or the urine odor of the breath, is caused by high urea content in the blood. Increased ammonia from bacterial breakdown of urea leads to stomatitis and mucosal ulcerations. Irritation of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract from urea in CKD contributes to anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. Ingestion of iron salts and calcium-containing phosphate binders, limited fluid intake, and limited activity would cause constipation.
The patient with CKD is brought to the emergency department with Kussmaul respirations. What does the nurse know about CKD that could cause the patient’s Kussmaul respirations?
a. Uremic pleuritis is occurring.
b. There is decreased pulmonary macrophage activity.
c. They are caused by respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis.
d. Pulmonary edema from heart failure and fluid overload is occurring.
c. They are caused by respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis.
Kussmaul respirations occur with severe metabolic acidosis when the respiratory system is attempting to compensate by removing carbon dioxide with exhalations. Uremic pleuritis would cause a pleural friction rub. Decreased pulmonary macrophage activity increases the risk of pulmonary infection. Dyspnea would occur with pulmonary edema.
Which serum laboratory value indicates to the nurse that the patient’s CKD is getting worse?
a. Decreased BUN
b. Decreased sodium
c. Decreased creatinine
d. Decreased calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
d. Decreased calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
As GFR decreases, BUN and serum creatinine levels increase. Although elevated BUN and creatinine indicate that waste products are accumulating, the calculated GFR is considered a more accurate indicator of kidney function than BUN or serum creatinine.
What is the most serious electrolyte disorder associated with kidney disease?
a. Hypocalcemia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hyponatremia
d. Hypermagnesemia
b. Hyperkalemia
Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening dysrhythmias. Hypocalcemia leads to an accelerated rate of bone remodeling and potentially to tetany. Hyponatremia may lead to confusion. Elevated sodium levels lead to edema, hypertension, and heart failure. Hypermagnesemia may decrease reflexes, mental status, and blood pressure.
For a patient with CKD the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis for risk of injury: fracture related to alteration in calcium and phosphorus metabolism. What is the pathologic process directly related to the increased risk for fractures?
a. Loss of aluminum through the impaired kidneys
b. Deposition of calcium phosphate in soft tissues of the body
c. Impaired vitamin D activation resulting in decreased GI absorption of calcium
d. Increased release of parathyroid hormone in response to decreased calcium levels
c. Impaired vitamin D activation resulting in decreased GI absorption of calcium
The calcium-phosphorus imbalances that occur in CKD result in hypocalcemia, from a deficiency of active vitamin D and increased phosphorus levels. This leads to an increased rate of bone remodeling with a weakened bone matrix. Aluminum accumulation is also believed to contribute to the osteomalacia. Osteitis fibrosa involves replacement of calcium in the bone with fibrous tissue and is primarily a result of elevated levels of parathyroid hormone resulting from hypocalcemia.
What is the most appropriate snack for the nurse to offer a patient with stage 4 CKD?
a. Raisins
b. Ice cream
c. Dill pickles
d. Hard candy
d. Hard candy
A patient with CKD may have unlimited intake of sugars and starches (unless the patient is diabetic) and hard candy is an appropriate snack and may help to relieve the metallic and urine taste that is common in the mouth. Raisins are a high-potassium food. Ice cream contains protein and phosphate and counts as fluid. Pickled foods have high sodium content.
Which complication of chronic kidney disease is treated with erythropoietin (EPO)?
a. Anemia
b. Hypertension
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Mineral and bone disorder
a. Anemia
Erythropoietin is used to treat anemia, as it stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells.
The patient with CKD asks why she is receiving nifedipine (Procardia) and furosemide (Lasix). The nurse understands that these drugs are being used to treat the patient’s
a. anemia.
b. hypertension.
c. hyperkalemia.
d. mineral and bone disorder.
b. hypertension.
Nifedipine (Procardia) is a calcium channel blocker and furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic. Both are used to treat hypertension.
Which drugs will be used to treat the patient with CKD for mineral and bone disorder (select all that apply)?
a. Cinacalcet (Sensipar)
b. Sevelamer (Renagel)
c. IV glucose and insulin
d. Calcium acetate (PhosLo)
e. IV 10% calcium gluconate
a. Cinacalcet (Sensipar)
b. Sevelamer (Renagel)
d. Calcium acetate (PhosLo)
Cinacalcet (Sensipar), a calcimimetic agent to control secondary hyperparathyroidism; sevelamer (Renagel), a noncalcium phosphate binder; and calcium acetate (PhosLo), a calcium-based phosphate binder are used to treat mineral and bone disorder in CKD. IV glucose and insulin and IV 10% calcium gluconate along with sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) are used to treat the hyperkalemia of CKD.
What accurately describes the care of the patient with CKD?
a. A nutrient that is commonly supplemented for the patient on dialysis because it is dialyzable is iron.
b. The syndrome that includes all of the signs and symptoms seen in the various body systems in CKD is azotemia.
c. The use of morphine is contraindicated in the patient with CKD because accumulation of its metabolites may cause seizures.
d. The use of calcium-based phosphate binders in the patient with CKD is contraindicated when serum calcium levels are increased.
d. The use of calcium-based phosphate binders in the patient with CKD is contraindicated when serum calcium levels are increased.
In the patient with CKD, when serum calcium levels are increased, calcium-based phosphate binders are not used. The nutrient supplemented for patients on dialysis is folic acid. The various body system manifestations occur with uremia, which includes azotemia. Meperidine is contraindicated in patients with CKD related to possible seizures.
During the nursing assessment of the patient with renal insuffiency, the nurse asks the patient specifically about a history of
a. angina.
b. asthma.
c. hypertension.
d. rheumatoid arthritis.
c. hypertension.
The most common causes of CKD in the United States are diabetes mellitus and hypertension. The nurse should obtain information on long-term health problems that are related to kidney disease. The other disorders are not closely associated with renal disease.
The patient with chronic kidney disease is considering whether to use peritoneal dialysis (PD) or hemodialysis (HD). What are advantages of PD when compared to HD (select all that apply)?
a. Less protein loss
b. Rapid fluid removal
c. Less cardiovascular stress
d. Decreased hyperlipidemia
e. Requires fewer dietary restrictions
c. Less cardiovascular stress
e. Requires fewer dietary restrictions
Peritoneal dialysis is less stressful for the cardiovascular system and requires fewer dietary restrictions. Peritoneal dialysis actually contributes to more protein loss and increased hyperlipidemia. The fluid and creatinine removal are slower with peritoneal dialysis than hemodialysis.
What does the dialysate for PD routinely contain?
a. Calcium in a lower concentration than in the blood
b. Sodium in a higher concentration than in the blood
c. Dextrose in a higher concentration than in the blood
d. Electrolytes in an equal concentration to that of the blood
c. Dextrose in a higher concentration than in the blood
Dextrose or icodextrin or amino acid is added to dialysate fluid to create an osmotic gradient across the membrane to remove excess fluid from the blood. The dialysate fluid has no potassium so that potassium will diffuse into the dialysate from the blood. Dialysate also usually contains higher calcium to promote its movement into the blood. Dialysate sodium is usually less than or equal to that of blood to prevent sodium and fluid retention.
Number the following in the order of the phases of exchange in PD. Begin with 1 and end with 3.
____ a. Drain
____ b. Dwell
____ c. Inflow
1 - c. Inflow
2 - b. Dwell
3 - a. Drain
In which type of dialysis does the patient dialyze during sleep and leave the fluid in the abdomen during the day?
a. Long nocturnal hemodialysis
b. Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD)
c. Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH)
d. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)
b. Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD)
Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD) is the type of dialysis in which the patient dialyzes during sleep and leaves the fluid in the abdomen during the day. Long nocturnal hemodialysis occurs while the patient is sleeping and is done up to six times per week. Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH) is a type of continuous renal replacement therapy used to treat AKI. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) is a dialysis that is done with exchanges of 1.5 to 3 L of dialysate at least four times daily.
To prevent the most common serious complication of PD, what is important for the nurse to do?
a. Infuse the dialysate slowly.
b. Use strict aseptic technique in the dialysis procedures.
c. Have the patient empty the bowel before the inflow phase.
d. Reposition the patient frequently and promote deep breathing.
b. Use strict aseptic technique in the dialysis procedures.
Peritonitis is a common complication of peritoneal dialysis (PD) and may require catheter removal and termination of dialysis. Infection occurs from contamination of the dialysate or tubing or from progression of exit-site or tunnel infections and strict sterile technique must be used by health professionals as well as the patient to prevent contamination. Too-rapid infusion may cause shoulder pain and pain may be caused if the catheter tip touches the bowel. Difficulty breathing, atelectasis, and pneumonia may occur from pressure of the fluid on the diaphragm, which may be prevented by elevating the head of the bed and promoting repositioning and deep breathing.
A patient on hemodialysis develops a thrombus of a subcutaneous arteriovenous (AV) graft, requiring its removal. While waiting for a replacement graft or fistula, the patient is more likely to have what done for treatment?
a. Peritoneal dialysis
b. Peripheral vascular access using radial artery
c. Silastic catheter tunneled subcutaneously to the jugular vein
d. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line inserted into subclavian vein.
c. Silastic catheter tunneled subcutaneously to the jugular vein
A more permanent, soft, flexible Silastic double-lumen catheter is used for long-term access when other forms of vascular access have failed. These catheters are tunneled subcutaneously and have Dacron cuffs that prevent infection from tracking along the catheter.
A man with end-stage kidney disease is scheduled for hemodialysis following healing of an arteriovenous fistula (AVF). What should the nurse explain to him that will occur during dialysis?
a. He will be able to visit, read, sleep, or watch TV while reclining in a chair.
b. He will be placed on a cardiac monitor to detect any adverse effects that might occur.
c. The dialyzer will remove and hold part of his blood for 20 to 30 minutes to remove the waste products.
d. A large catheter with two lumens will be inserted into the fistula to send blood to and return it from the dialyzer.
a. He will be able to visit, read, sleep, or watch TV while reclining in a chair.
While patients are undergoing hemodialysis, they can perform quiet activities that do not require the limb that has the vascular access. Blood pressure is monitored frequently and the dialyzer monitors dialysis function but cardiac monitoring is not usually indicated. The hemodialysis machine continuously circulates both the blood and dialysate past the semipermeable membrane in the machine. Graft and fistula access involve the insertion of two needles into the site: one to remove blood from and the other to return blood to the dialyzer.
What is the primary way that a nurse will evaluate the patency of an AVF?
a. Palpate for pulses distal to the graft site.
b. Auscultate for the presence of a bruit at the site.
c. Evaluate the color and temperature of the extremity.
d. Assess for the presence of numbness and tingling distal to the site.
b. Auscultate for the presence of a bruit at the site.
A patent arteriovenous fistula (AVF) creates turbulent blood flow that can be assessed by listening for a bruit or palpated for a thrill as the blood passes through the graft. Assessment of neurovascular status in the extremity distal to the graft site is important to determine that the graft does not impair circulation to the extremity but the neurovascular status does not indicate whether the graft is open.
A patient with AKI is a candidate for continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). What is the most common indication for use of CRRT?
a. Azotemia
b. Pericarditis
c. Fluid overload
d. Hyperkalemia
c. Fluid overload
Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) is indicated for the patient with AKI as an alternative or adjunct to hemodialysis to slowly remove solutes and fluid in the hemodynamically unstable patient. It is especially useful for treatment of hyperkalemia, pericarditis, or other serious effects of uremia.
A patient rapidly progressing toward end-stage kidney disease asks about the possibility of a kidney transplant. In responding to the patient, the nurse knows that what is a contraindication to kidney transplantation?
a. Hepatitis C infection
b. Coronary artery disease
c. Refractory hypertension
d. Extensive vascular disease
d. Extensive vascular disease
Extensive vascular disease is a contraindication for renal transplantation, primarily because adequate blood supply is essential for the health of the new kidney. Other contraindications include disseminated malignancies, refractory or untreated cardiac disease, chronic respiratory failure, chronic infection, or unresolved psychosocial disorders. Coronary artery disease (CAD) may be treated with bypass surgery before transplantation and transplantation can relieve hypertension. Hepatitis B or C infection is not a contraindication.
During immediate postoperative care of a recipient of a kidney transplant, what should the nurse expect to do?
a. Regulate fluid intake hourly based on urine output.
b. Monitor urine-tinged drainage on abdominal dressing.
c. Medicate the patient frequently for incisional flank pain.
d. Remove the urinary catheter to evaluate the ureteral implant.
a. Regulate fluid intake hourly based on urine output.
Fluid and electrolyte imbalance is critical in the transplant recipient patient, especially because diuresis often begins soon after surgery. Fluid replacement is adjusted hourly based on kidney function and urine output. Urine-tinged drainage on the abdominal dressing may indicate leakage from the ureter implanted into the bladder and the health care provider should be notified. The donor patient may have a flank or laparoscopic incision(s) where the kidney was removed. The recipient has an abdominal incision where the kidney was placed in the iliac fossa. The urinary catheter is usually used for 2 to 3 days to monitor urine output and kidney function.
A patient received a kidney transplant last month. Because of the effects of immunosuppressive drugs and CKD, what complication of transplantation should the nurse be assessing the patient for to decrease the risk of mortality?
a. Infection
b. Rejection
c. Malignancy
d. Cardiovascular disease
a. Infection
Infection is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality after transplantation because the surgery, the immunosuppressive drugs, and the effects of CKD all suppress the body’s normal defense mechanisms, thus increasing the risk of infection. The nurse must assess the patient as well as use aseptic technique to prevent infections. Rejection may occur but for other reasons. Malignancy occurrence increases later due to immunosuppressive therapy. Cardiovascular disease is the leading cause of death after renal transplantation but this would not be expected to cause death within the first month after transplantation.
Which descriptions characterize acute kidney injury (select all that apply)?
a. Primary cause of death is infection.
b. It almost always affects older people.
c. Disease course is potentially reversible.
d. Most common cause is diabetic nephropathy.
e. Cardiovascular disease is most common cause of death.
a. Primary cause of death is infection.
c. Disease course is potentially reversible.
Acute kidney injury (AKI) is potentially reversible. AKI has a high mortality rate, and the primary cause of death in patients with AKI is infection; the primary cause of death in patients with chronic kidney failure is cardiovascular disease. Most commonly, AKI follows severe, prolonged hypotension or hypovolemia or exposure to a nephrotoxic agent. Older adults are more susceptible to AKI as because the number of functioning nephrons decreases with age, but AKI can occur at any age.
