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Md-80 Limitations > Memory Items > Flashcards

Memory Items Flashcards

1
Q

Maximum limits instrument markings

A

Red Radial Line

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2
Q

Maximum Limits for Normal Takeoff (N1, N2 and EGT)

A

Orange Radial Line

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3
Q

Precautionary Ranges

A

Amber Arc

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4
Q

Normal Operating Ranges

A

Green Arc

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5
Q

Oil Temp Max limit (TWA)

A

Red Annunciator Light

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6
Q

Maximum Limit Oil Press Didgets (TWA)

A

Flashing Digits

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7
Q

Minimum Limits Oil Press (TWA)

A

Red Annunciatior Light

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8
Q

Precautionary Ranges Oil temp, press and Hyd quantity (TWA)

A

Amber Annunciatior Light

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9
Q

Max tailwind

A

10 Kts

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10
Q

Crosswind max demo

A

30 Kts

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11
Q

Turb penetration speed above 10, 000

A

275 to 285 kts or .75 to .79 mach

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12
Q

Turbpentration speed below 10,000

A

250 kts or min maneuvering speed whichever is greater

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13
Q

In turbulence do not fly less than _______ for existing configuration

A

mim maneuvering speed

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14
Q

Maximum landing weight

A

130,000

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15
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel weight

A

122,000

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16
Q

Max altitude for unpressurized flight following a rapid decompression is

A

14,000 ft May be exceeded for terrain

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17
Q

APU air switch but be in the off position for all

A

flight operations

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18
Q

____ must be disconnected if engine stall (serge) is detected during takeoff

A

autothrottle

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19
Q

Minimum altitude for use of the autopilot excluding approaches

A

500 ft

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20
Q

Minimum altitude for use of autopilot for automatic landings

A

none

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21
Q

Minimum altitude for use of autopilot for ILS coupled approaches IFR

A

70 ft AGL

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22
Q

Minimum altitude for use of autopilot for ILS coupled approaches VFR

A

50 ft AGL

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23
Q

Minimum altitude for use of autopilot for Non ILS/RNAV

A

50 ft below MDA

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24
Q

No auto landings if:

A

AAAREL
Align mode is not displayed on FMA by 100 ft radio altitude
Automatic Ground Spoilers are not armed and operational
Any unusual control position or other abnormal condictions in manual flight control system
Rudder Control = Manual
Either engine becomes inop at an altitude > 50ft AGL
Landing overweight

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25
Q

Max starting EGT ground

A

500 C

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26
Q

Max starting EGT inflight

A

625

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27
Q

Max EGT takeoff reserve thrust _____ for ____ min or _______ radial line for ___ min

A

625; 5; red; 2

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28
Q

Max EGT for Maximum thrust ______ C for ____ min or ____ radial line for _____ min

A

590; 5; orange; 2 min

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29
Q

Max continuous EGT for climb is below ____ arc or _______ deg

A

amber; 580 deg

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30
Q

Max cruise EGT ____ C

A

540 C

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31
Q

Minimum oil quantity for 4 hour or greater flight

A

12 qts

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32
Q

Minimum oil quantity for flight less than four hours

A

4 qts plus 2 qts per hour

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33
Q

Can thrust reversers be operated inflight

A

No

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34
Q

When using reverse thrust for push back do not exceed ____ EPR

A

1.3

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35
Q

When conduting a second engine start attempt ensure ____ has decreased to ___ before attempt

A

N2; zero

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36
Q

Eng Stater duty cycle (first attempt)

A

90 sec on, five minutes off

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37
Q

Eng Starter duty cycle susequent attempts

A

30 sec on; five min off

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38
Q

Do not use flap settings between___ and ___ deg

A

13; 15

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39
Q

Do not arm spoiler lever prior to ______

A

gear extension

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40
Q

Use speed brakes only in __/___ or ___/____ configuration

A

UP/RET; 0/EXT

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41
Q

Can you operate the gear (up or down) with speed brakes deployed

A

No

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42
Q

Full aft speed brake position is for _________ use only

A

ground

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43
Q

Max fuel imbalance in wing tanks is

A

1500 lbs

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44
Q

Max fuel imbalance in aux tanks is

A

400 lbs

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45
Q

Ground Icing conditions are when RAT is __ deg or below and _________

A

6; visable moisture is present (clouds or surface snow, water etc.

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46
Q

Ground Icing conditions are defined as _____ deg C and temp - dew point spread is ____ deg or less

A

6; 3

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47
Q

Inflight icing conditions are defined as __ deg or less and ____ moisture is present

A

6; visable

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48
Q

For ground, takeoff and flight operations engine _____ must be on when icing conditions exist or are _____

A

anti-ice; anticipated

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49
Q

Inflight, aifoil anti-ice should be used when icing condtions exist or are _____________

A

anticipated

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50
Q

Do not use airfoil anti-ice until reaching _____ feet AFL after takeoff

A

1,000

51
Q

Minimum duct pressure for airfoil anti-ice is ___ psi

A

20

52
Q

To keep the ice protect time low light estinguished maintain ________

A

sufficient thrust

53
Q

Application of tail de-ice is required every ____ min; _____min prior to extension of landing flaps or after leaving __________

A

20; one; icing conditions

54
Q

Do not take off if any brake temp exceeds ____ deg C

A

205

55
Q

The max tire speed is

A

195 kts

56
Q

Max EGT Reserve Thrust T/O and time limit. Or _____ for ____ min

A

625 for 5 min; red radial line for 2 min

57
Q

VMO/MMO =

A

340/.84M

58
Q

Flaps limiting speed 13/mid slats

A

280

59
Q

Flaps limiting speed 15 -20

A

240

60
Q

Flaps limiting speed flaps 23

A

220

61
Q

Flaps limiting speed flaps 28

A

195

62
Q

Flaps limiting speed flaps 40

A

195

63
Q

Max speed landing gear extend

A

300kts/ .70M

64
Q

Max speed landing gear retract

A

250kts/.70M

65
Q

Max speed landing gear extended (out)

A

300kts/.70M

66
Q

APU Starter duty cycle

A

1 try/5 off/1 try/ 5 off/ 1 try/ 60 min off

67
Q

Max APU rotor speed

A

108%

68
Q

Eng gen load limits Normal ___; normal max ____; peak

A

1.0; 1.5 for 5 min/ >1.5 for 5 sec

69
Q

Systems on left hyd system

A

LIE Left T/R; L&R inboard spoilers; elevator aug

70
Q

Systems on right Hyd system

A

GRROS gear; rudder; right T/R; Outboard spoilers; stairs

71
Q

Systems on both hyd systems

A

(key systems for stopping and directional control)steering; flaps/slats; brakes& ground spoilers

72
Q

Systems with an accumulator

A

BEARR brakes; elevator boost; aft stairs/rudder; reversers

73
Q

Eng start idle readings

A

N2-50-61%; EGT-300-500; FF 800-1100

74
Q

Optimum air pressure for start

A

15-21

75
Q

When does ART activate

A

N1 30%<;

76
Q

Max pressurization differential is _______

A

8.07

77
Q

Rudder travel unrestricted light goes out at what airspeed?

A

180/200

78
Q

Tail deice timer is a _____ min cycle

A

2.5

79
Q

Rudder throw limter limits rudder from ____ degrees to ______ degrees at 300 kts

A

22; 2.5

80
Q

Max brake temp to set parking brake

A

300 deg

81
Q

APU burns ____# per hour

A

300

82
Q

Fire protection is on what bus

A

DC Transfer Bus

83
Q

If you get a DC bus off light, how can you confirm it?

A

Check TRs for load on suspected bus

84
Q

How can you confirm a DC Transfer Bus off light

A

check standby horizon for flags

85
Q

How can you confirm an AC Emergency Bus off light

A

Check Capt instruments

86
Q

A/C packs will shut down on engine failure on T/O until about ______ ft or _______cabin differential pressure

A

3,000; 1.3

87
Q

Pressurization Flow light indicates what?

A

outflow valve is closed and cabin is climbing

88
Q

Flap/Stab extend light indicates what?

A

Flaps selected greater than 6 and speed brakes out

89
Q

Parking Brake light comes on inflight, what could you suspect

A

An antiskid fail light when gear is put down

90
Q

What is max take-off weight?

A

149,500#

91
Q

Max take off temp? Min?

A

+50; -54

92
Q

What type fluid is normally used for deicing

A

Type I

93
Q

What bus powers the #1 VHF Radio

A

Emergency DC Bus

94
Q

When do the emergency lights activate?

A

When power is lost to Emergency DC Bus

95
Q

When battery switch is turned on what busses are powered?

A

Battery bus and DC transfer Bus. Battery direct bus always powered

96
Q

Does the cabin alt red light have an associated sound?

A

Modulating horn

97
Q

When does yellow ART system light on panel mean?

A

ART has activated

98
Q

What must be set up for ART ready light to activate?

A

NOGAS = N1 signal; Operational system (ART), Ground (on it); Auto selected on ART; Slats T/O.

99
Q

Amber ART light means it has activated. What will cause it to activate

A

30% N1 difference; power interruption to FGP; wind shear encounter; or system has failed internally

100
Q

Will the throttles move if ART activates?

A

No

101
Q

When are you authorized to do a reserve power take off?

A

When TPS requires max power T/O and ART is inop

102
Q

What does a no mode light mean

A

no power selected or uncertified bleed air configuration

103
Q

What does eng anti ice and fuel anti ice lights indicate

A

all valves have moved to position

104
Q

What do airfoil and tail anti ice lights indicate

A

switch position only

105
Q

Is it normal to see both amber and blue engine anti ice right after system activation

A

yes

106
Q

What light might you see when tail deice cycle ends and airfoil resumes

A

airfoil ice protect pressure abnormal until tail valve fully closes

107
Q

What does ice protect pressure high light indicate?

A

airfoil anti ice pressure regulator valve has failed

108
Q

What does ice protect temp hi mean

A

indicates 13th stage valve failure

109
Q

What does ice protect temp low light indicate

A

You need to add power to get additional 13th stage air

110
Q

What heaters have failed when pitot/stall heater fail light comes on

A

One of first six on rotor have failed

111
Q

What conditions must be met for ATR system to be active?

A

ATR= Autothrottles on; Take off in FMLA window and radar alt > 350’; both engines below go-around thrust

112
Q

When will ART activate?

A

One engine drops .25 EPR AND 7% N1 drop or vertical speed negative for 5 sec

113
Q

What do zeros on TPS runway data indicate

A

Data for that runway/flap setting has not been loaded

114
Q

What does N/A on TPS tailwind indicate

A

takeoff not authorized

115
Q

What do zeros in tailwind mean

A

up to authorized tailwind (10 kts) OK

116
Q

What is calculated based on the assume temp

A

Standard thrust EPR, N1

117
Q

MEL bannered items on TPS, is it included on which runways?

A

All runways and all data on TPS. If done manualy then only on primary.

118
Q

When do spoilers deploy landing. Ground spoilers?

A

Spoilers main gear spin or weigh on nose weight on wheels. Ground soilers on weight on mains and idle pwr

119
Q

When do spoilers and ground spoiler deploy on abort

A

ALL Spoilers on T/R activation with throttles in idle.

120
Q

Doppler turbulance is available in _____mile range

A

within 40 mile range and in weather turbulance mode

121
Q

DC EMERGENCY BUS OFF light, how do you confirm

A

Capt Pitot heat and GFMS fail

122
Q

Doppler turbulance is available in _____mile range

A

within 40 mile range and in weather turbulance mode

123
Q

DC EMERGENCY BUS OFF light, how do you confirm

A

Capt Pitot heat and GFMS fail

Md-80 Limitations (2 decks)

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