Memory - ICU OSCE Flashcards

1
Q

Obstruction of blood flow through a major vein, often due to a tumor.

A

Superior vena cava syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A serious condition in which the inner layer of the aorta tears.

A

Aortic dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A potentially life-threatening heart rhythm disorder often associated with a characteristic pattern on an EKG, which may include ST-segment elevation in the right precordial leads (V1 to V3). The syndrome can lead to ventricular fibrillation and sudden cardiac death, particularly during sleep. The disorder is often genetic, with certain mutations affecting the sodium ion channels in the heart cells.

A

Brugada syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A hormone produced by your heart and blood vessels that is often measured to evaluate and manage heart conditions.

A

B type natriuretic peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A treatment for heart failure that involves the use of a type of pacemaker that can pace both the left and right ventricles so that they work together, more efficiently.

A

Cardiac resynchronization therapy (Biventricular pacing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A rare type of heart failure that occurs during the last month of pregnancy or up to five months after giving birth.

A

Peripartum cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The heart’s ventricles become rigid and don’t expand as they fill with blood, leading to reduced blood flow.

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A condition where the pericardium becomes thickened and calcified, preventing the heart from expanding and filling with blood properly.

A

Constrictive pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A condition characterized by simultaneous kidney and heart failure while the primarily failing organ may be either organ system.

A

Cardiorenal syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A type of pericarditis. Often occurs after heart surgery or a heart attack.

A

Dressler’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A classification system used to quantify the extent of heart failure, ranging from Class I (no limitation of physical activity) to Class IV (unable to carry out any physical activity without discomfort).

A

New York Heart Association classification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Medical devices that use electrical impulses to regulate the beating of the heart.

A

Pacemakers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An excess of fluid between the heart and the sac surrounding the heart.

A

Pericardial effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A serious medical condition in which blood or fluids fill the space between the sac that encases the heart and the heart muscle, leading to decreased cardiac output.

A

Pericardial tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Inflammation of the thin sac-like membrane surrounding the heart, often causing chest pain and other symptoms.

A

Pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Also known as variant angina or vasospastic angina, it is a type of angina (chest pain) caused by spasms in the coronary arteries, which supply blood to the heart muscle.

A

Prinzmetal’s angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Retinal hemorrhages with white or pale centers, often indicative of endocarditis.

A

Roth spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Specific form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia in patients with a long QT interval.

A

Torsades de pointes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A hole in the wall separating the ventricles of the heart.

A

Ventricular septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A rare autoimmune disorder characterized by the presence of circulating anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies, leading to rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis and often accompanied by pulmonary hemorrhage.

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A rare autoimmune condition that causes inflammation of small and medium-sized blood vessels in persons with a history of airway allergic hypersensitivity (atopy).

A

Churg Strauss syndrome; eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A rare disease causing inflammation of small and medium-sized blood vessels in various organs, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis.

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Now known as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, a rare disease causing inflammation of blood vessels.

A

Wegener’s granulomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Autoantibodies that target the genetic material within cells, often associated with lupus.

A

AntidsDNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Autoantibodies that target a specific structure in the kidneys, often associated with Goodpasture’s syndrome.

A

AntiGBM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Autoantibodies often present in certain types of vasculitis, also known as P-ANCA, associated with conditions like microscopic polyangiitis and Churg-Strauss syndrome (eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis).

A

AntiMPO

Mnemonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Autoantibodies often present in certain types of vasculitis.

A

Antineutrophil cytoplasmic (ANCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Autoantibodies that bind to contents of the cell nucleus, often present in various autoimmune diseases.

A

Antinuclear (ANA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A condition in which red blood cells are destroyed and removed from the bloodstream before their normal lifespan is over.

A

Hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A complication that can occur after a stem cell or bone marrow transplant in which the newly transplanted donor cells attack the transplant recipient’s body.

A

Graft versus host disease (GVHD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A condition that results from the abnormal premature destruction of red blood cells, leading to kidney failure and low platelet count.

A

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

An immune complication of heparin therapy that can cause low platelet count and increase the risk of blood clots.

A

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Conditions in which the blood has an increased tendency to clot.

A

Hypercoagulable states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A blood disorder characterized by an increased level of a specific form of hemoglobin that is unable to effectively release oxygen to tissues, often leading to cyanosis.

A

Methemoglobinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A disorder characterized by small blood clots throughout the body, low platelet count, hemolytic anemia, and organ damage. Often associated with a deficiency of ADAMTS13 enzyme.

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Acute lung injury following transfusion.

A

Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Metabolic abnormalities due to rapid cancer cell death, often after chemotherapy, can lead to renal failure

A

Tumor lysis syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Most common transfusion reaction, characterized by fever and chills post blood transfusion, not involving red cell hemolysis

A

Febrile Nonhemolytic Transfusion Reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Obstruction of venous flow, results in facial and upper extremity swelling, dyspnea, distended neck veins. Often a sign of thoracic malignancy

A

SVC Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A distinctive cellular inclusion in the cytoplasm of myeloid blast cells seen in certain forms of leukemia.

A

Auer rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Abnormal structures seen in red blood cells under certain conditions, often associated with G6PD deficiency, leading to a type of anemia.

A

Heinz bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Fragmented red blood cells, often seen in hemolytic anemias.

A

Schistocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A kidney disorder causing the spaces between the kidney tubules to become swollen and inflamed.

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A calculation used in the management of hypernatremia, indicating the amount of water needed to correct serum sodium concentration.

A

Free water deficit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Poisoning from ingestion, inhalation, or skin absorption of a specific type of alcohol, often associated with homemade or poorly made alcoholic beverages, can lead to serious health issues including blindness.

A

Methanol intoxication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

An inherited disorder causing clusters of abnormal growths to develop primarily within your kidneys, leading to enlargement and loss of function over time.

A

Polycystic kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Excessive release of a specific hormone leading to hyponatremia.

A

Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A kidney disorder resulting from damage to the renal tubular cells, often due to ischemia or exposure to nephrotoxins, leading to acute kidney injury.

A

Acute tubular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A type of renal replacement therapy for people with acute kidney failure, providing slower, continuous treatment compared to intermittent hemodialysis.

A

Continuous venovenous hemofiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A condition characterized by hypercalcemia and systemic alkalosis due to excessive intake of calcium and absorbable antacids.

A

Milk alkali syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

An equation used to assess the cause of low oxygen levels in the blood.

A

A-a gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A medical condition characterized by bleeding into the alveoli of the lung.

A

Diffuse alveolar hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A collapsed lung, which occurs when air leaks into the pleura

A

Pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A condition where the ratio of air flow to blood flow in the lungs is imbalanced, often seen in obstructive or restrictive lung diseases.

A

V/Q mismatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Dyspnea that worsens in the upright position, often related to cardiovascular or pulmonary abnormalities

A

Platypnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Airway device often a secondary option when endotracheal intubation fails or is not feasible

A

Supraglottic Airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A type of supraglottic airway device

A

Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Lung edema due to strong inspiratory effort against a closed airway, often post-obstruction

A

Negative Pressure Pulmonary Edema (NPPE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Graphs in mechanical ventilation, showing respiratory patterns and providing quantitative measurements.

A

Waveforms and Scalers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Damage to the brain due to lack of oxygen.

A

Anoxic brain injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

A type of traumatic brain injury where a buildup of blood occurs between the brain’s outer layer and the skull.

A

Epidural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A type of oculocephalic reflex where the eyes move contralaterally to head movement, indicating intact brainstem function.

A

Doll’s eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

A widely-used neurological scoring system for quantifying level of consciousness, evaluating eye, verbal, and motor responses.

A

Glasgow Coma Scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

An autoimmune disease, often precipitated by infections, resulting in acute ascending motor weakness due to inflammation of peripheral nerves.

A

Guillain-Barré syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

An accumulation of blood between the dura mater and arachnoid layer of the meninges, often resulting from head trauma. Appears as a crescent-shaped hyperdense or hypodense lesion on CT scan.

A

Subdural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

A type of intracranial hemorrhage, typically caused by aneurysm rupture and commonly presenting with ‘thunderclap’ headache.

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

A rare motility disorder of the esophagus, impeding the normal passage of food and liquids into the stomach.

A

Achalasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

A classification method used to determine the severity and prognosis of chronic liver diseases, including cirrhosis.

A

Child Turcotte Pugh scoring system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Bacterial infection of the biliary tract, commonly associated with obstructive gallstones in the common bile duct.

A

Cholangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Inflammatory condition of the gallbladder, frequently associated with obstruction of the cystic duct by a gallstone.

A

Cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Also known as Ogilvie syndrome, a condition characterized by dilatation of the colon without physical obstruction.

A

Colonic pseudo-obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

A condition in which small outpouchings form along the colon, typically without causing symptoms.

A

Diverticulosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A complication of diverticulosis where diverticula become inflamed or infected, causing abdominal discomfort, fever, and altered bowel habits.

A

Diverticulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Difficulty or discomfort during swallowing.

A

Dysphagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

A condition where stomach emptying is delayed due to impaired gastric motility.

A

Gastroparesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

A metabolic disorder characterized by excessive dietary iron absorption, leading to iron overload in the body.

A

Hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

A syndrome characterized by rapid worsening of kidney function, typically seen in individuals with severe liver disease, often related to cirrhosis.

A

Hepatorenal syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

An acute reduction of blood flow to the mesenteric arteries, which supply blood to the intestines.

A

Mesenteric ischemia acute

79
Q

A clinical sign characterized by pain upon release of palpation of the gallbladder, suggesting cholecystitis.

A

Murphy’s sign

80
Q

A condition, also known as acute colonic pseudo-obstruction, characterized by dilatation of the colon without mechanical obstruction.

A

Ogilvie’s syndrome

اوجولفيز

81
Q

Elevated pressure in the portal vein.

A

Portal hypertension

82
Q

A clot in the portal vein.

A

Portal vein thrombosis (PVT)

83
Q

A bacterial infection of the ascitic fluid, common in individuals with cirrhosis.

A

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

84
Q

Bleeding into the biliary tree, often presents with gastrointestinal bleeding and jaundice, frequently due to liver trauma or interventions

A

Haemobilia

85
Q

Small volume enteral nutrition, used to maintain gut integrity and stimulate motility, often in critically ill patients

A

Trophic Feeds

86
Q

A broader term for a condition in which the adrenal glands do not produce sufficient amounts of steroid hormones. While Addison’s disease refers to primary adrenal insufficiency (damage to the adrenal glands themselves), adrenal insufficiency can also be secondary, caused by a lack of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary gland.

A

Adrenal insufficiency

87
Q

A rare disorder that disrupts the balance of water in the body, leading to intense thirst and heavy urination.

A

Diabetes insipidus

88
Q

A more general term that describes a condition in which the adrenal gland releases excessive amounts of the hormone aldosterone. While Conn’s syndrome is one cause of this, it can also result from other causes such as adrenal hyperplasia. This condition can lead to high blood pressure and low potassium levels.

A

Hyperaldosteronism

89
Q

A condition in which the pituitary gland fails to produce adequate hormones due to severe blood loss during childbirth, resulting in symptoms such as fatigue, difficulty breastfeeding, and loss of menstrual periods.

A

Sheehan’s syndrome

90
Q

A bacterial skin infection that appears as a red, swollen, and painful area, often warm to the touch, that expands over time. This common infection can become serious if not treated promptly.

A

Cellulitis

91
Q

A bacterial infection that can cause symptoms ranging from mild diarrhea to life-threatening colitis, typically following antibiotic use.

A

Clostridioides difficile infection

92
Q

A genus of fungus that can cause infection typically in people with a weakened immune system. It can infect the lungs and can spread to other parts of the body, such as the brain and spinal cord, causing meningitis.

A

Cryptococcus

93
Q

A common virus that can infect almost anyone, often causing mild illness or no symptoms. However, it can cause serious health problems in people with weakened immune systems and in babies infected before birth. This virus is of particular concern in transplant recipients, where it can lead to organ rejection.

A

Cytomegalovirus

94
Q

A viral infection endemic to tropical regions worldwide, transmitted by Aedes aegypti mosquito bite. Symptoms can include sudden high fever, severe headache, pain behind the eyes, severe joint and muscle pain and skin rash. Severe cases may progress to hemorrhagic fever.

A

Dengue

95
Q

A fungal infection most commonly seen in individuals with weakened immune systems and can cause serious complications, such as sinusitis, pulmonary infection, and brain infection.

A

Mucormycosis (Mucor infection)

96
Q

A severe bacterial infection that results in the death of the affected soft tissue. Commonly referred to as ‘flesh-eating’ disease, it can spread quickly in the body and can be fatal.

A

Necrotizing fasciitis

97
Q

A type of pneumonia most common in individuals with weakened immune systems. It is characterized by shortness of breath, fever, and a dry cough. Diagnosis is often suggested by a ground-glass appearance on chest X-rays and confirmed by identification of the organism in sputum or bronchoalveolar lavage fluid.

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia

98
Q

A severe illness primarily caused by toxin-producing strains of the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus, and sometimes by other types of bacteria. Symptoms may include fever, rash, skin peeling, and low blood pressure, and can be rapidly progressive and life-threatening.

A

Toxic shock syndrome

99
Q

Criteria used for diagnosing infective endocarditis

A

Duke Criteria

100
Q

A reaction, often to an allergen, that causes swelling deep under the skin, especially around the eyes and lips, and on the hands, feet, and genitals. Unlike hives, the skin is not typically itchy but may be painful.

A

Angioedema

101
Q

A bluish discoloration of the skin resulting from poor circulation or inadequate oxygenation of the blood.

A

Cyanosis

102
Q

A rare syndrome which can result in cardiac failure, rhabdomyolysis, metabolic acidosis, and kidney failure, and is associated with the administration of high-dose propofol for sedation.

A

Propofol infusion syndrome

103
Q

Metabolic disturbance due to reintroduction of nutrition in malnourished patients.

A

Refeeding syndrome

104
Q

Tissue damage caused by freezing, typically affects extremities, can lead to permanent damage if severe

A

Frostbite

105
Q

A brand name for a common antiviral medication, specifically targets influenza viruses

A

Tamiflu

106
Q

Monobactam antibiotic, effective against gram-negative bacteria, safe in penicillin-allergic patients

A

Aztreonam

107
Q

Broad-spectrum beta-lactam antibiotics, highly effective against multi-drug resistant bacteria, includes drugs like imipenem and meropenem

A

Carbapenems

108
Q

Often used in tumor lysis syndrome. Contraindicated in G6PD

A

Rasburicase

109
Q

Rare, severe complication of prolonged propofol anesthesia, characterized by metabolic acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, and cardiac failure

A

Propofol Infusion Syndrome

110
Q

Antifungal medication, this form reduces toxicity, used in systemic fungal infections.

A

Liposomal Amphotericin B

111
Q

Used as a last resort for cancer or severe infection when other treatments have failed

A

Salvage Therapy

112
Q

The rate and extent at which a drug is absorbed into the systemic circulation, crucial for its effectiveness

A

Bioavailability

113
Q

A rapid method of administering medications and fluids through the bone marrow, used in emergency situations

A

Intraosseous Access

114
Q

A diagnostic test that measures the viscoelastic properties of blood clots, used to assess coagulation

A

Thromboelastography (TEG®)

115
Q

Another method for testing blood coagulation, focusing on the kinetics and stability of clot formation

A

Rotational Thromboelastometry (ROTEM®)

116
Q

A quick test to assess peripheral perfusion and circulatory status by measuring the time taken for color to return to an external capillary bed after pressure is applied

A

Capillary Refill Time

117
Q

A biomarker that significantly rises in the bloodstream with bacterial infections, aiding in the diagnosis of sepsis

A

Procalcitonin

118
Q

A surgical procedure involving an incision into the abdominal cavity, often for diagnosis or treatment of abdominal disorders

A

Laparotomy

119
Q

The surgical removal of adhesions, which are bands of scar tissue that can form between abdominal tissues and organs

A

Adhesiolysis

120
Q

A surgical procedure connecting two parts of the intestine to reestablish the continuity of the gastrointestinal tract

A

Bowel Anastomosis

121
Q

A surgically created opening in the body for the discharge of body wastes

A

Ostomy

122
Q

An alkalinizing agent used in medical settings to treat conditions like metabolic acidosis and certain drug overdoses

A

Sodium Bicarbonate

123
Q

Used in treating local anesthetic systemic toxicity, working by encapsulating and neutralizing the toxic substances

A

Lipid Emulsion

124
Q

Administered as an antidote in cases of beta-blocker or calcium channel blocker overdose, helping to increase heart rate and blood pressure

A

Glucagon

125
Q

A medication used to treat hyperthyroidism by decreasing the production of thyroid hormones

A

Propylthiouracil

126
Q

Another thyroid medication, similar to propylthiouracil, that inhibits the synthesis of thyroid hormones

A

Methimazole

127
Q

A condition where a person feels as if they or the environment around them is spinning, often related to inner ear problems

A

Vertigo

128
Q

A temporary loss of consciousness typically caused by a sudden decrease in blood flow to the brain

A

Syncope

129
Q

A form of low blood pressure that happens when standing up from sitting or lying down, often causing dizziness or fainting

A

Orthostatic Hypotension

130
Q

A medication used to treat heart failure, functioning as a phosphodiesterase inhibitor to increase cardiac output

A

Milirinone

131
Q

A specialized tube used for gastric decompression in cases of gastrointestinal hemorrhage

A

Blackmore Tube

132
Q

A potent vasodilator used in the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension

A

Epoprostenol

133
Q

A mechanical device used in cardiology to increase myocardial oxygen perfusion and improve cardiac output

A

IABP (Intra-Aortic Balloon Pump)

134
Q

A characteristic notch in the arterial pulse waveform, reflecting the closure of the aortic valve

A

Dicrotic Notch

135
Q

Removal of fluid from the abdominal cavity, often used to diagnose or relieve symptoms in ascites.

A

Paracentesis

136
Q

Aspiration of fluid or air from the pleural space, typically for diagnostic or therapeutic reasons related to pleural effusion.

A

Thoracentesis

137
Q

The extraction of fluid from the pericardial sac, often critical in cases of cardiac tamponade.

A

Pericardiocentesis

138
Q

The yellowish appearance of cerebrospinal fluid, indicative of a subarachnoid hemorrhage when detected several hours after symptom onset.

A

Xanthochromia

139
Q

An abnormal bulge that occurs in the wall of the aorta.

A

Aortic aneurysm

140
Q

A collection of three medical signs associated with acute cardiac tamponade: low arterial blood pressure, distended neck veins, and distant, muffled heart sounds.

A

Beck’s triad

141
Q

A temporary heart condition often brought on by stress, where the heart muscle becomes suddenly weakened or stunned.

A

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

142
Q

Painful, red, raised lesions found on the hands and feet, associated with a number of medical conditions, including infective endocarditis.

A

Osler’s nodes

Mnemonic

143
Q

A complication of a specific type of heart attack, where one of the muscles in the heart breaks down, potentially leading to severe regurgitation and heart failure.

A

Papillary muscle rupture

144
Q

A condition characterized by the presence of an additional electrical pathway in the heart, leading to episodes of rapid heart rate (tachycardia). It’s identifiable by a specific pattern on an EKG, called a ‘delta wave,’ which is a slurred upstroke in the QRS complex. This syndrome can cause symptoms such as palpitations, dizziness, or shortness of breath. Although usually present from birth, it may not cause symptoms until adolescence or adulthood.

A

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

145
Q

Autoantibodies often present in a specific syndrome, which is associated with increased risk of blood clots.

A

Antiphospholipid

146
Q

Autoantibodies specifically associated only with lupus, other than Anti-dsDNA,

A

AntiSm

147
Q

Autoantibodies often present in autoimmune hepatitis.

A

Antismooth muscle

148
Q

A subtype of antiphospholipid antibodies, associated with clotting events and recurrent miscarriages, commonly seen in autoimmune diseases like lupus.

A

Anticardiolipin

149
Q

A rare condition resulting from venous thrombosis in the lower extremities, which can lead to venous gangrene if not treated promptly.

A

Phlegmasia cerulea dolens

150
Q

Condition resulting from traumatic or non-traumatic muscle injury. Features include dark urine, muscle pain, and weakness. Elevated levels of creatine kinase (CK), myoglobinuria, potential acute kidney injury. Causes range from crush injuries, intense exercise, to certain medications and toxins.

A

Rhabdomyolysis

151
Q

A type of renal replacement therapy, Longer duration than standard hemodialysis but less continuous than CRRT, offering a middle ground in efficiency and hemodynamic stability

A

Sustained Low Efficiency Dialysis (SLED)

152
Q

A reaction to a certain fungus leading to inflammation of the airways and air sacs of the lungs.

A

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

153
Q

A potentially deadly condition caused by breathing a certain gas which prevents oxygen from being utilized in the body.

A

Carbon monoxide poisoning

154
Q

A clinical sign in which forced flexion of the neck induces involuntary flexion of the knee and hip, often associated with meningitis.

A

Brudzinski’s sign

155
Q

A physiological nervous system response to increased intracranial pressure, resulting in an increase in blood pressure, irregular respirations, and bradycardia.

A

Cushing’s reflex

156
Q

A physical examination procedure, also known as the “doll’s eye” maneuver, used to test for brainstem activity in comatose patients.

A

Oculocephalic maneuver

157
Q

A form of paraneoplastic syndrome characterized by autoimmune attack on presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels, leading to muscle weakness and often associated with small cell lung cancer.

A

Eaton-Lambert syndrome

158
Q

An autoimmune disorder causing skeletal muscle fatigue and weakness due to antibodies against acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction.

A

Myasthenia gravis

159
Q

Brain disorder from rapid correction of hyponatremia, leads to demyelination in brainstem

A

Osmotic Demyelination Syndrome? , Central Pontine Myelinolysis?

160
Q

Severe reaction to antipsychotic drugs, characterized by fever, muscle rigidity, and altered mental status

A

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)

161
Q

A condition associated with brain injury or surgery, leads to hyponatremia and urinary sodium excretion. Differentiated from SIADH by hypovolemia

A

Cerebral Salt Wasting (CSW)

162
Q

Acute, severe hypertension in spinal cord injury patients, triggered by noxious stimuli below injury level

A

Autonomic Dysreflexia

163
Q

Increased blood flow usually following revascularization procedures, can lead to tissue damage and neurological symptoms

A

Hyperperfusion Syndrome

164
Q

A condition where the esophageal lining undergoes metaplastic change, adopting characteristics similar to intestinal lining, often due to chronic acid reflux.

A

Barrett’s esophagus

165
Q

An emergent condition where forceful emesis causes a spontaneous tear in the esophagus.

A

Boerhaave syndrome

بور
هاف

166
Q

A liver condition characterized by blockage of the hepatic veins, disrupting the outflow of blood from the liver.

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

167
Q

A triad of clinical symptoms typically seen in ascending cholangitis: jaundice, right upper quadrant abdominal pain, and fever.

A

Charcot’s triad

168
Q

A periumbilical ecchymosis, frequently associated with severe pancreatitis.

A

Cullen’s sign

169
Q

A medical device inserted through the abdominal wall that provides nutrition directly to the stomach.

A

Gastrostomy tubes

170
Q

A sign of retroperitoneal hemorrhage, characterized by flank ecchymosis or bruising.

A

Grey Turner’s sign

171
Q

A syndrome characterized by dyspnea and hypoxemia resulting from intrapulmonary vascular dilatations in patients with liver disease.

A

Hepatopulmonary syndrome

172
Q

A condition characterized by the excessive accumulation of fat in the liver, typically associated with obesity, diabetes, hyperlipidemia, or hypertriglyceridemia.

A

Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)

173
Q

Elevated blood pressure in the arteries supplying the lungs, often seen in individuals with advanced liver disease.

A

Portopulmonary hypertension

174
Q

A calculation used to determine the cause of ascites based on serum and ascitic fluid albumin levels.

A

Serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG)

175
Q

A severe complication of inflammatory bowel disease or infection, resulting in rapid enlargement and potential perforation of the colon.

A

Toxic megacolon

176
Q

A genetic disorder characterized by abnormal copper metabolism, leading to copper accumulation in tissues and resulting in neurological, psychiatric symptoms, and liver disease.

A

Wilson disease

177
Q

A condition specifically characterized by the adrenal glands not producing sufficient hormones, particularly cortisol and aldosterone. This deficiency is primarily due to damage to the adrenal cortex, often caused by an autoimmune disease. Symptoms can include fatigue, low blood pressure, and hyperpigmentation.

A

Addison’s disease

178
Q

A clinical sign indicating nerve hyperexcitability due to low calcium levels (hypocalcemia), often characterized by twitching of the facial muscles in response to tapping over the area of the facial nerve.

A

Chvostek’s sign

179
Q

A serious complication of diabetes, characterized by extremely high blood sugar levels, severe dehydration, and concentration of the blood, often triggered by infection or illness.

A

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state

180
Q

A severe form of hypothyroidism, characterized by swelling in the hands, face, and feet due to an accumulation of mucopolysaccharides in the skin and other tissues.

A

Myxedema

181
Q

A rare, usually benign tumor that develops in an adrenal gland. The tumor can cause the release of excessive amounts of certain hormones leading to symptoms such as high blood pressure, heavy sweating, and rapid heart rate.

A

Pheochromocytoma

182
Q

A sign of latent tetany due to hypocalcemia, induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff on the arm above systolic pressure for 3 minutes, leading to a carpal spasm.

A

Trousseau’s sign

183
Q

An infection that occurs when bacteria enter the body through a central line.

A

Central line associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI)

184
Q

A type of necrotizing fasciitis that rapidly spreads and causes tissue death in the external genital or perineal regions. This severe infection often requires prompt surgery and can be life-threatening.

A

Fournier’s gangrene

185
Q

A condition where cholesterol crystals become lodged in small blood vessels and cause blockage, often triggered by certain medical procedures like angiography or vascular surgery.

A

Cholesterol emboli syndrome

186
Q

A serious condition that involves increased pressure in a muscle area, leading to reduced blood flow which can lead to muscle and nerve damage.

A

Compartment syndrome

187
Q

A condition that results from exposure to a high dose of a specific toxic compound, which prevents cells from using oxygen, leading to cell death.

A

Cyanide poisoning

188
Q

A severe form of alcohol withdrawal that involves sudden and severe mental or nervous system changes.

A

Delirium tremens

189
Q

Neurological disorder due to thiamine deficiency, often in alcoholics.

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

190
Q

Arterial vasodilator, primarily used to treat hypertension, may cause drug-induced lupus erythematosus

A

Hydralazine

191
Q

Older class of antidepressants, known for their anticholinergic effects.

A

Tricyclic Antidepressants

192
Q

Macrolide antibiotic, used specifically for Clostridioides difficile infections

A

Fidaxomicin

193
Q

Used to treat malignant hyperthermia and neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Dantrolene

194
Q

Mood stabilizer, primarily used in bipolar disorder, causes nephrogenic DI

A

Lithium