Memorise Flashcards

1
Q

Sentinel events

A
  • Australian Commission on Safety an Quality in Health Care
  • Sentinel event is a type of adverse patient safety event that is wholly preventable and results in serious harm to or death of a patient
  • 10 Australian sentinel events
    • Procedure on wrong side
    • Procedure on wrong patient
    • Wrong procedure performed
    • Unintended retention of a foreign object after surgery
    • Transfusion reaction from incompatible blood
    • Suicide fo a patient in a psychiatric ward
    • Medication error resulting in serious harm or death
    • Physical or mechanism restraint causing serious harm or death
    • Discharge or release of a child to an unauthorised person
    • Incorrectly positioned pro or nasogastric tube causing serious harm or death
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2
Q

Safe working hours

A
  • RACS has a position statement on safe working hours
    • Acknowledges that a standard 38 hour week is not realistic or ideal for surgical training
    • Also acknowledges that at times surgical trainees work hours that would be considered unsafe
    • Optimised between 50-60 Horus a week, maximum of 65, averaged over a 4 week period
    • Rostered hours should include time for teaching, audits, required assessments
    • Time made for recreational and study leave
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3
Q

Complications of tourniquet use

A
  • Nerve injury - most common complication
    • Compartment syndrome
    • Pressure sores
    • Digital necrosis
    • VTE
    • Rhabdomyolysis
    • Alcohol burn
    • Post-tourniquet syndrome - swollen, stiff, pale, weak limb after 1-6 weeks
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4
Q

Relative contraindications to tourniquet

A
  • Severe infection
    • Poor cardiac reserve
    • PVD
    • Concurrent DVT
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5
Q

Recommendations fo surgeons with BBV

A
  • Upon a diagnosis of a blood Bourne virus, must cease operating and first seek appropriate medical care
  • Doctors have a responsibility to be aware of their BBV status
  • To continue to perform operations
    • HBV - must be under the care of an appropriate specialist, undergo viral load monitoring every 6 months and have. Viral load below 200
    • HCV - must test HCV RNA negative if not treated, or have achieved a sustained virological response 12 weeks after treatment
    • HIV - must be under the care of an appropriate specialist, undergo viral load monitoring every 3 months and must be either:
      • On effective antiviral therapy and have a viral load below 200
      • Meet the definition of an elite controller - which is outlined in the Australian National Guidelines for Healthcare workers living with blood borne viruses
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6
Q

AHPRA mandatory reporting

A
  • Impairment
    • Intoxication while practicing
    • Significant departure from accepted professional standards
    • Sexual misconduct
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7
Q

DCP mandatory reporting

A
  • Must make a report to DCP if suspect on reasonable grounds that a child is or may be at risk of harm - is not required to prove
  • Reasonable grounds include
    • Observations of behaviour of child or their caregiver
    • Child tells you
    • Hearing from a third party who would be considered reliable
  • Specifically in South Australia it is mandatory to report suspicions of:
    • Physical abuse
    • Sexual abuse
    • Mental or emotional abuse
    • Neglect
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8
Q

AOA position on interaction with industry

A
  • Must act in patient’s best interest when recommending or using medical treatments or devices
    • Must not accept personal promotion or seek gifts
    • Gifts, money or benefits that exceed $100 represent a declarable financial interest
    • Reimbursement may occur for a genuine commercial relationship e.g. to learn a new surgical technique. Reimbursement must be limited to expenses that are strictly necessary and would withstand public scrutiny
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9
Q

MOA of TXA, aspirin, clopidogrel, NOAC, warfarin

A
  • TXA - Compound with anti-fibrinolytic properties through inhibition of plasminogen activation
  • Aspirin - COX1 enzyme inhibitor, redues thromboxane and thus reduces platelet aggregation
  • Clopidogrel - inhibits binding off ADP in platelets and thus reduces platelet aggregation
  • NOACS - inhibit factors in the clotting cascade and ultimately reduces the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
  • Warfarin - vitamin K antagonist, requiring for the clotting cascade, ultimately reduces the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
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10
Q

Contraindications to TXA

A
  • Allergy
  • Active clotting e.g. concurrent VTE
  • History of thrombosis
  • Coronary stent past 12 months
  • Uncontrolled seizure disorder
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11
Q

Red flags of back pain

A
  • Infection - fevers, IVDU, immunosuppression
    • Fracture - trauma mechanism, midline tenderness
    • Tumour - weight loss, fatigue, history of malignancy
    • Neurological deficit - motor weakness, bladder or bowel changes
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12
Q

How does diathermy work?

A
  • Diathermy is a high frequency alternate polarity radio-wave electrical current, used to coagulate or cut during surgery
  • Cutting - continuous waveform at low voltage
  • Coagulate - pulsating waveform at high voltage
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13
Q

Dangers of diathermy use

A
  • Channeling effect - using monopolar on structure with narrow pedicure
  • Ignition of flammable material e.g. chlorhex
  • Return plate burns - even contact, off bony prominences or metal prosthesis
  • Inadvertent activation burning skin
  • Personal injury - diathermy tip can remain very warm after use
  • Pacemakers - consult cardiology pre-op, have pacemaker checked. Use bipolar if possible, otherwise place plate so that correct directed away from pacemaker
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14
Q

What do you know about the AOA training program

A
  • Competency based program over a minimum of four years, including an introduction to orthopaedics, core orthopaedics, and transition to practice period.
  • Training requirements
    • In training assessment forms
    • Feedback entries
    • Electronic logbook
    • Research requirement
    • Bone school attendance
  • Examination
    • OPBS exam
    • Fellowship exam
  • Courses
    • Bone camp
    • ASSET
    • CCRIPST
    • TIPS
    • EMST
    • AOA workshops
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15
Q

RACS surgical competence and performance guide

A
  • 10 Topics
    • Medical expertise
    • Judgement and clinical decision making
    • Technical expertise
    • Professionalism
    • Health advocacy
    • Communication
    • Collaboration and teamwork
    • Leadership and management
    • Scholarship and teaching
    • Cultural competence and cultural safety
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16
Q

5 steps to an audit

A
  • Determine the scope of the audit and what specific area is to be reviewed
    • Select the standards by clearly describe what is good practice. This is what the results of the audit will be compared to.
    • Collect the data
    • Present and interpret the results in a peer review the process
    • Make changes and monitor the process
17
Q

What is your understanding of the differing levels of evidence and research?

A
  • In Australia the national health and medical research council has a evidence hierarchy listed
  • Level I – a systematic review of level two studies
  • Level II – randomised controlled trial
  • Level III-1 - pseudo-randomised controlled trial. For example a randomised control trial among non-consecutive patients
  • Level III-2 - a comparative study with concurrent controls
  • Level III-3 - a comparative study without controls
  • Level IV - a case series
18
Q

What do you understand by the tern “impact factor” as it relates to journals and research?

A
  • The impact factor of a journal is an indicator of how frequently the articles in publishes are cited.
  • It is a ratio between citations and recent citable items published.
  • Specifically it is calculated by dividing the number of citations in the current year for articles published in the previous two years, by the number of articles published in the previous two years
19
Q

Tell us about a research paper that has changed your practice

A
  • Study published in 2021 in Journal of American Academy of orthopaedic surgery
    • Aimed to look at the theoretical advantage of using a separate blade for the skin incision and for the deep layers, to present infection by carrying bacteria from the skin down to the deeper layers
    • Use microbiological testing using the RODAC (Replicate Organism Detection and Counting)
    • 344 knife blades were tested for organisms immediately after the skin incision for orthopaedic cases (THA, TKA, lumbar and cervical spine surgery), vs 344 control blades
    • 5.1% of specimens had a positive result and no difference was noted between the group
  • Evidence backed up by a 2016 study RCT published from Hong Kong
    • 184 patients treated for a closed fracture were randomised to have surgery with a single vs double blade technique
    • Looked at cultures from the blades as well as early surgical site infection
    • No difference seen between the groups suggesting that the double blade technique does not reduce the chance of an early surgical site infection
20
Q

Principles of informed consent

A
  • Understand the information
  • Understand and appreciate the risks and benefits
  • Be able to retain the information for a short period
  • Be able to adequately communicate their decision
21
Q

Define negligence

A
  • A breach of duty of care which results in harm or damage to a patient
22
Q

Define osteoporosis

A
  • Progressive decline in bone mass due to an imbalance of osteoclast and osteoblast activity - causing a disruption in the microarchitecture of bone
  • PBS criteria for bisphosphonates is a T-score of -2.5
23
Q

RACS surgical competence and performance guide topics

A
  • Framework to aid assessment and development of surgeons across all specialties
  • https://www.surgeons.org/-/media/Project/RACS/surgeons-org/files/reports-guidelines-publications/manuals-guidelines/surgical-competence-and-performance-framework_final.pdf?rev=a42cb2859d1c4b119708d59aaf61a8c5&hash=63E28C5EF5C544AE9C10768AE51F0697
  • 10 Topics
    • Medical expertise
    • Judgement and clinical decision making
    • Technical expertise
    • Professionalism
    • Health advocacy
    • Communication
    • Collaboration and teamwork
    • Leadership and management
    • Scholarship and teaching
    • Cultural competence and cultural safety
24
Q

RACS has a business plan specific to women in surgery that focusses on:

A
  • Leadership
    • Advocacy
    • Flexibility in training
    • Role modelling
25
Q

Major criteria for risk of PE

A
  • Hypercoagulable conditions - protein C/S deficiency, anti phospholipid syndrome, factor V Leiden deficiency
    • Metastatic cancer
    • Previous ischaemic stroke
    • COPD
    • Concurrent sepsis
26
Q

Kocher criteria

A
  • • Child with painful hip
    • o Non weight bearing
    • o ESR > 40
    • o Fever
    • o WCC > 12
    • 4/4 criteria = 99% chance
    • 3/4 criteria = 93% chance
    • 2/4 criteria = 40% chance
    • 1/4 criteria = 3% chance