MEH Flashcards

1
Q

What leads to pituitary dwarfism?
How is this condition characterised?
How is it treated?

A

Growth hormone deficiency in childhood - complete or partial

Height below 3rd percentile, growth rate slower than expected for age, delayed or no sexual development during teen years.

Responds to growth hormone therapy

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2
Q

What condition does growth hormone excess lead to in childhood and adulthood?

A

Childhood - GIGANTISM - often caused by a pituitary adenoma which is therefore secreting too much GH

Adulthood - ACROMEGALY - literally means large extremities e.g. Hands, feet, lower jaw

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3
Q

What is Chronic Granulomatous Disease?

A
  • Genetic defect in NADPH oxidase (used to create superoxide in phagocytes to be used in oxidative burst)
  • Leads to enhanced susceptibility to bacterial infections e.g. Pneumonia, abscesses, impetigo, cellulitis.
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4
Q

Build up of which toxic compound leads to oxidative stress in paracetamol overdose? What does this lead to?

What is the treatment for this? What does it do?

A

NAPQI –> depletes glutathione levels

Acetylcysteine - replenishes depleted glutathione

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5
Q

Why are RBCs particularly susceptible to oxidative damage?
In which disease is this going to be a particular issue?
Why is pyruvate kinase deficiency a problem for RBCs?

A

They have no nuclei so can’t transcribe new proteins if they become damaged

Particular problem in glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency - no NADH from pentose phosphate pathway so can’t regenerate reduced glutathione (GSH) from oxidised glutathione (GSSG)

Pyruvate kinase deficiency - RBCs have no mitochondria so rely on glycolysis for energy. Pyruvate kinase is responsible for the final step in glycolysis which allows for the net production of 2 ATP molecules. Without the step there would be no overall gain in ATP.

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6
Q

What is hereditary spherocytosis?

What complications can arise from it?

A
  • Mainly autosomal dominant
  • Gene mutation most commonly affects ankyrin, but also spectrin, protein 4.2 and band 3 - these connect plasma membrane to cytoskeleton in RBCs
  • When these proteins are malformed or absent RBCs are spherical in shape
  • -> not as flexible so for passing through/leaving capillaries so can lead to infarct
  • -> smaller surface area for nutrient exchange

Complications:

  • Infarcts in spleen as spleen tries to remove –> splenectomy may be needed
  • Splenomegaly - spleen takes up spherocytes and macrophages of the RES invade to destroy
  • Increased bilirubin due to haemolysis of spherocytes –> jaundice, gallstones
  • Folate deficiency due to increased bone marrow requirement
  • Aplastic anaemia - More EPO has been released and bone marrow has been left empty
  • High MCV and reticulocyte count
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7
Q
What is hereditary haemochromatosis?
Which gene and protein are affected?
What happens as result?
Which organs are most susceptible to damage?
How do you treat?
A
  • Autosomal recessive disorder
  • Mutation in chromosome 6 in gene coding for HFE protein
  • HFE normally binds to transferrin receptors (transferrin binds to iron in blood to transport it to cells) on cells such as macrophages so that transferrin-iron complexes can’t bind and iron can’t be absorbed.
  • Mutated HFE can’t bind so too much iron is absorbed into cells.

Most susceptible organs: liver (cirrhosis), adrenal glands, heart (failure), joints (arthritis), pancreas (diabetes)

Treatment: venesection

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8
Q

What is transfusion-associated haemosiderosis?

How would you treat?

A

If not making enough RBCs, on chemo, have thalassaemia, sickle cell etc will be given blood transfusions.

Can get gradual accumulation and overload of iron.

Iron chelating agents, but mainly venesection.

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9
Q

Which syndrome can be caused by long-standing iron deficiency anaemia?
What does it involve?

A

Plummer-Vinson Syndrome

Changes to epithelia e.g. Oesophagus

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10
Q

What is sickle cell anaemia?

A
  • Caused by a mutation on chromosome 11
  • Leads to a mutation of glutamate to valine in B globin subunits of haemoglobin
  • Valine is hydrophobic so joins with valines from other haemoglobins to avoid contact with water
    Leads to clumps of deoxygenated Hb within red cells –> shape is distorted (sickle shaped)

Sickled cells are:

  • more prone to lyse –> SICKLE CELL ANAEMIA
  • more rigid - block capillaries –> SICKLE CELL CRISIS
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11
Q

What is thalassaemia?

A

Group of genetic disorders where there is an imbalance between the number of a and B globin chains

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12
Q

What is B-thalassaemia?
What are the major and minor forms?
When do symptoms appear? What are they?

A
  • Mutation on chromosome 11
  • Decreased/absent B globin chain production –> relative excess of alpha globin
  • Alpha globin unable to form stable tetramers

Major: Individual is homozygous for B-thalassaemia
Minor: heterozygous - fewer symptoms

SYMPTOMS:
Appear after birth - HbF (foetal) is made up of alpha and gamma globins so child is unaffected until HbF changes to HbA

  • Anaemia - can’t make proper Hb so can’t transport iron bound to O2
  • Leads to SOB, tiredness/fatigue
  • Palpitations
  • Pale skin
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13
Q

What is a-thalassaemia?
On what does the severity depend?
When is onset?
What are symptoms?

A
  • Mutation on chromosome 16 leads to decreased/absent a-globin chain production –> relative excess of B globin
  • The B globin chains form tetramers with high affinity for oxygen making them poor O2 transporters
- Severity depends on how many of the 4 relevant genes are affected:
1 - silent carrier
2 - mild
3 - severe/fatal
4 - dead!

Onset is before birth - foetal Hb (HbF) contains a-globins so will be affected

Symptoms: Tiredness/fatigue, palpitations, SOB

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14
Q

What leads to pernicious anaemia?

A

Intrinsic factor deficiency

IF binds to B12 in small intestine and the complex can then be absorbed in the ileum.

Without IF this is not possible, meaning RBC count is low as B12 is needed for DNA synthesis - can’t make more RBCs

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15
Q

How does G6PDH deficiency relate to anaemia?
What might be a sign of this?
What needs to happen before you prescribe any patient with a haemolytic drug?

A

When patients with G6PDH deficiency are in states of oxidative stress (such as infection or on certain medications) their red blood cells are more vulnerable to damage by reactive oxygen species.

They will then be removed by the RES –> HAEMOLYTIC ANAEMIA

Patient may become jaundiced due to damaged RBCs being phagocytosed in the spleen and their Hb being metabolised to bilirubin.

Ask lab to screen for G6PDH deficiency before giving haemolytic drugs.

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16
Q

How is pyruvate kinase deficiency related to anaemia?

A

Pyruvate kinase catalyses final step in glycolysis - without it there is not net ATP production

Na+/K+ATPase therefore stops working –> K+ lost to plasma and water follows –> cells shrink and die –> HAEMOLYTIC ANAEMIA

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17
Q

What abnormality will typically be seen on a blood film of someone with hyposplenism?
What are these?

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

Remnants of basophilic nuclei (clusters of DNA) in circulating red blood cells.

These cells would normally be removed by the spleen, so shows low splenic function.

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18
Q

What is neutropenic sepsis?

A

Patients who have received chemotherapy (which kills neutrophils) are at risk of developing sepsis - immune response depleted

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19
Q

What are Heinz Bodies?

When would you see them?

A

Oxidative damage leads to haemoglobin and other proteins becoming cross-linked by disulphide bonds, forming insoluble aggregates called Heinz bodies.

Would likely be seen in G6PDH deficiency.

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20
Q

What is the difference between Osteoporosis and Osteomalacia?

A

Osteoporosis - decreased bone density

Osteomalacia - Not enough mineral in bone due to vitamin D deficiency (not absorbing enough calcium) –> RICKETS

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21
Q

What causes cretinism? What are its features?

A

Hypothyroidism - discovered in infancy and correctable if treated within first few weeks

Dwarfed stature, mental deficiency, poor bone development, slow pulse, muscle weakness, GI disturbances

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22
Q

What causes myxedema? What are its features?

A

Hypothyroidism

Thick, puffy skin, muscle weakness, slow speech, mental deterioration, intolerance to cold

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23
Q

What is Hashimoto’s Disease? How do you treat it?

What T3, T4 and TSH levels would be seen?

A

Autoimmune destruction of thyroid follicles (contain the thyroglobulin used to make T3 and T4) –> hypothyroidism

Treatment: Oral thyroxine (T4)

Low T3 and T4
High TSH - T3 and T4 not exerting negative feedback. Thyroid not able to respond appropriately to the resulting high TSH

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24
Q

What causes Grave’s disease?
What are its features?
How do you treat it?

A

Autoimmune disease - Thyroid Stimulating Immunoglobulin (TSI) stimulates TSH receptors on follicle cells –> increased T3 and T4 –> decreased TSH due to negative feedback, but doesn’t affect T3 and T4 secretion.

Increase in BMR, excessive sweating, tachycardia, weight loss, muscle weakness, bulging eyes (sometimes)

Treat with Carbimazole (blocks formation of T3 and T4)

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25
Q

What are the cause, symptoms and treatment of growth hormone deficiency?

A

CAUSE: generally unknown, but can be due to genetic mutation or autoimmune inflammation

SYMPTOMS: Subtle - decreased tolerance to exercise, decreased muscle strength, increased body fat, reduced sense of ‘well-being’

TREATMENT: GH manufactured by recombinant DNA technology

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26
Q

What are the symptoms of gonadotropin (LH and FSH) deficiency?

A

Lack of libido, infertility, oligomenorrhea or amenorrhea

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27
Q

What are the possible causes of ADH deficiency? What does it lead to?

A

CAUSES: Hypothalamic tumour or one which has extended into the hypothalamus. Also cranial radiotherapy, pituitary surgery or infections such as meningitis

RESULT: Excess excretion of dilute urine –> dehydration, thirst, hypernatraemia = DIABETES INSIPIDUS

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28
Q

Which hormones regulate prolactin release?
What causes hyperprolactinaemia?
What are its symptoms?
How would you treat it?

A

Hormones: Prolactin releasing hormone (stimulates) and dopamine (PIH) (inhibits)

Causes: Pituitary adenoma that secretes prolactin = prolactinoma
Can also be due to pregnancy, stress, exercise, antipsychotics and antidepressants

Symptoms: Galactorrhea (unexplained milk production, gynecomastia (hard breast tissue), hypogonadism, amenorrhea, erectile dysfunction

Treatment: Dopamine receptor agonists - inhibits prolactin secretion
Sometimes trans-sphenoidal surgery if necessary

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29
Q

What generally causes growth hormone excess? What are the symptoms? What conditions can it cause? Treatment?

A

GH secreting adenomas - typically large and therefore associated with mass effects –> headache, visual field defects, cranial nerve palsies.

Symptoms: Broad nose, coarse facial features, thick lips enlargement of hands and feet, excessive sweating, greasy skin, deepening voice

CHILDREN: Gigantism
ADULTS: Acromegaly

DIABETES MELLITUS: GH antagonises insulin

Treatment: Surgery to remove adenoma, radiation therapy, SOMATOSTATIN analogues, GH receptor antagonists e.g. PEGVISOMANT

30
Q

What is pituitary apoplexy? What are the signs of this?

A

A sudden vascular event (bleeding into or impaired blood supply) in a pituitary tumour.

Signs: sudden onset headache, double vision, cranial nerve palsy, visual field loss, hypopituitarism (cortisol most dangerous)

31
Q

What is the sequence of events in starvation?

A
  • Reduction of blood glucose stimulates release of cortisol from adrenal cortex & glucagon from pancreas.
  • Stimulate gluconeogenesis breakdown of protein and fat.
  • Glycerol from fat provides important substrate for gluconeogenesis, reducing the need for breakdown of proteins.
  • Liver starts to produce ketone bodies & brain starts to utilise these sparing glucose requirement from protein
  • Kidneys begin to contribute to gluconeogenesis
  • Once fat stores depleted system must revert to use of protein as fuel
  • Death related to loss of muscle mass (respiratory muscle: infection).
32
Q

Where does the energy required for exercise come from?

A
  • Skeletal and cardiac muscle have enough ATP to last around 2 secs
  • Muscle CREATINE PHOSPHATE stores can rapidly replenish ATP to provide immediate energy - Still only enough for ~5 seconds worth of energy during a 100m sprint
  • Beyond initial burst of energy, further ATP must be supplied by GLYCOLYSIS (inefficient - only 2ATP per glucose) and OXIDATIVE PHOSPHORYLATION (requires oxygen!)
  • Additional intensive exercise (anaerobic) for up to ~2 minutes can be
    sustained by breakdown of muscle GLYCOGEN (broken down by glycogen phosphorylase)
  • For sustained low intensity exercise e.g. Marathon running, FATTY ACIDS are used once muscle and liver glycogen are used up
33
Q

How does the liver regulate blood glucose?

A
  • Liver is principal organ for regulating blood glucose
  • Exercise results in an increase in hepatic blood glucose production through GLYCOGENOLYSIS and GLUCONEOGENESIS
  • Liver recycles lactate produced by anaerobic metabolism (CORI CYCLE).
  • Muscle TAKES UP BLOOD GLUCOSE via GLUT4 transporter (insulin promotes translocation to plasma membrane) and GLUT1 (constitutively active)
34
Q

What is essential fructosuria? What is the sign of this?

A

Fructokinase is missing so fructose can’t be broken down –> fructose in urine

No clinical signs

35
Q

What is fructose intolerance? What does it lead to? How do you treat it?

A

Aldolase is missing –> Fructose-1-phosphate accumulates in the liver leading to damage

Treatment: remove fructose from diet

36
Q

How are monosaccharides absorbed from the bloodstream into cells?

A

Via GLUT1-5 transporters in cell membranes

GLUT 2 - Kidney, liver, pancreatic B cells, small intestine
(also gets monosaccharides from cells into blood, along with sodium dependent glucose cotransporter)

GLUT 4 - Adipose, striated muscle - insulin-dependent

37
Q

What is the role of pyruvate dehydrogenase?

What will a deficiency in it lead to?

A

Converts 3C pyruvate to 2C Acetyl CoA by the addition of CoA and the removal of CO2

Deficiency will lead to lactic acidosis

38
Q

What is the effect of cyanide on metabolism?

A

Blocks flow of electrons along ETC, which means H+ doesn’t mass out into intermembrane space –> no proton motive force established so no oxidative phosphorylation can occur

Lack of ATP leads to DEATH

39
Q

What molecules act as uncouplers of the electron transport chain? What does this mean?

A

Dinitrophenol, dinitrocresol, fatty acids

  • These increase the permeability of the mitochondrial membrane to H+
  • This means H+ flows back in from intermembrane space, but not through ATPase
  • This dissipates the proton motive force and oxidative phosphorylation doesn’t occur (ATP production)
  • But ETC continues to pass electrons along and allow H+ to flow out
  • -> electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation UNCOUPLED
40
Q

What is the purpose of brown adipose in newborns and how does it fulfil this purpose?

A

Protects the vital organs in newborns

Brown adipose contains THERMOGENIN - uncoupling protein

Less energy is used to synthesise ATP and more is released as heat

41
Q

Why does prolonged excessive alcohol consumption lead to fatty liver? What can this progress to?

A
  • Excess NADH and Acetyl CoA (products of alcohol metabolism) feed into the production of fatty acids.
  • Inadequate NAD+ for fatty acid oxidation means increased TAGs –> fatty liver
  • Increased Acetyl CoA leads to increased synthesis of fatty acids and ketones (TCA overloaded) –> increased synthesis of TAGs –> fatty liver

Fatty liver can lead to alcoholic hepatitis (inflammation) and alcoholic cirrhosis (scarring and fibrosis)

42
Q

How does Disulfiram treat chronic alcohol dependence?

A

Inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase - acetaldehyde will accumulate and it’s this which creates the feeling of a hangover - deterrent

43
Q

How does prolonged excessive alcohol consumption lead to lactic acidosis and gout?

A

Decreased NAD+
Inadequate NAD+ for conversion of lactate to pyruvate
Lactate accumulates in the blood –> LACTIC ACIDOSIS

High lactate means reduced ability of kidneys to excrete uric acid - urate crystals accumulate in tissues –> GOUT

44
Q

How does prolonged excessive alcohol consumption lead to hypoglycaemia?

A

Inadequate NAD+ for glycerol metabolism leads to deficit in gluconeogenesis –> HYPOGLYCAEMIA

45
Q

What are the cellular defences against oxidative stress?

A
  1. SUPEROXIDE DISMUTASE - converts the superoxide sometimes created by ETC to H2O2 and oxygen
    CATALASE - Converts the H2O2 to oxygen and water
  2. FREE RADICAL SCAVENGERS
    Vitamin E - lipid soluble - gives e- to a free radical - protects lipid bilayer
    Vitamin C - water soluble - helps regenerate reduced form of vitamin E
    Others - melatonin and uric acid
  3. GLUTATHIONE
    - Thiol group of cysteine within GSH donates H + e- to ROS –> forms S-S bond with another GSH to form GSSG via GLUTATHIONE PEROXIDASE
    - GLUTATHIONE REDUCTASE catalyses transfer of e- from NADPH to convert GSSG back to GSH (uses NADPH from pentose phosphate pathway)
46
Q

What are the types of galactosaemia and what do they result in?

A

TYPE 1 - Uridyl Transferase deficiency

  • Leads to increased galactose and galactose-1-P
  • Cataracts, tissue damage, jaundice
  • Need galactose-free diet

TYPE 2 - Galactokinase deficiency

  • Upregulation of aldose reductase
  • Cataracts - Aldose reductase consumes excess NADPH –> compromised defence against oxidative stress –> increased osmotic pressure in lens of eye due to build up of galacticol plus crystallin protein in lens denatured by ROS
  • Galactose-free diet

TYPE 3 - UDP-galactose epimerase deficiency

  • Cataracts, tissue damage, jaundice
  • If you have this deficiency will need to go on a galactose-free diet but won’t then be able to synthesise galactose from glucose, as need UDP-galactose epimerase to do this
  • -> Not good prognosis
47
Q

Why does refeeding syndrome occur?
What should a refeeding intake be for a malnourished person?
What are the risk factors for refeeding syndrome?

A

Urea cycle enzymes have been down-regulated due to malnutrition

Suddenly feeding these people normal amounts of protein will lead to a massive build up of toxic ammonia and they will die

Re-feed at 5-10kcal/kg/day - raise gradually to meet full needs within a week

Risk factors: BMI <16, unintentional weight loss of >15% in 3-6 months, 10+ days with little of no intake

48
Q

What is hyperammonaemia? Why does it happen? Symptoms? Treatment?

A

Ammonia toxicity

Due autosomal recessive defect leading to deficiency in one of the urea cycle enzymes

Symptoms: Vomiting, lethargy, irritability, mental retardation, seizures, coma

Management: Low protein diet, avoid artificial sweeteners (contain phenylalanine, replace amino acids in diet with ketoacids

49
Q

What is Phenylketonuria? What are the symptoms? What is the treatment?

A

Most common inborn error of metabolism

  • Deficiency in phenylalanine hydroxylase –> accumulation of phenylketones and tyrosine deficiency (Affects NA, adrenaline, dopamine and thyroid hormone synthesis)

Symptoms: severe intellectual disability, developmental delay, microcephaly, seizures, hypopigmentation - reversible if early

Treatment: Low phenylalanine diet, avoid protein-rich foods

50
Q

What is homocystinuria? What does it cause? For what other disease can it be confused? Treatment?

A

Problem breaking down methionine –> excess homocysteine in urine

Chronic elevated levels of homocysteine lead to disorders of connective tissue, muscle, CNS and CVS

Can sometimes be confused for Marfan’s Syndrome (same protein, fibrillin-I, affected and vascular disease and dislocated ocular lens)

Treatment: Low methionine diet, avoid protein-rich foods and nuts. Supplements: cysteine, vit B6, B12 and folate

51
Q

What is Von Gierke’s Disease? What does it lead to?

A

Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency

Leads to hepatomegaly as can’t release glycogen as glucose

52
Q

What is McArdle Disease? What does it lead to?

A

Muscle glycogen phosphorylase deficiency

Leads to exhaustion as can’t mobilise muscle glycogen stores

53
Q

What is the clinical relevance of LDLs?

How do HDLs combat this?

A

LDL half life in the blood is much longer than VLDL or IDL –> more susceptible to oxidative damage

Oxidised LDLs are taken up by macrophages –> foam cells –> atherosclerotic plaques

HDLs remove cholesterol from endothelial cells and returns it to the liver for degradation

54
Q

What is hyperlipoproteinaemia?
What are the three types? Are each of them associated with coronary artery disease?
What are the clinical signs?

A
  • Plasma TAG and/or cholesterol raised after 12 hour fast
  • Caused by either overproduction or under-removal

Type I: Defect in lipoprotein lipase - chylomicrons present in fasting plasma. No link with coronary artery disease.

Type IIa: Defect in LDL receptor on hepatocytes - LDLs not degraded –> can cause severe coronary artery disease

Type III: Defect in ApoE - normally present on chylomicrons and IDL, allowing them to be bound by hepatocytes and degraded –> coronary artery disease

Clinical signs: Xanthelasmas (eyelids), tendon xanthoma (nodules on tendons), corneal arcus (normal in older people)

55
Q

What is hyperaldosteronism? What are the two types? What are the renin and aldosterone levels like in each?
What are the signs and the treatment?

A

Too much aldosterone produced

PRIMARY
- Defect in adrenal cortex itself - generally due to bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, could be aldosterone secreting adrenal adenoma (CONN’S SYNDROME)
High aldosterone:renin ration

SECONDARY

  • Overactivity of RAAS due to either a renin-producing tumour or a renal artery stenosis leading to poor renal perfusion
  • Both aldosterone and renin are elevated but low aldosterone:renin ratio

Signs: High BP, LV hypertrophy, stroke, hypernatraemia, hyperkalaemia

Treatment: removal of aldosterone-producing adenomas
SPIRONOLACTONE (mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist)

56
Q

What are the two groups of causes of Cushing’s Syndrome?

What are the signs and symptoms?

A

Due to chronic excessive exposure to cortisol

EXTERNAL CAUSES

  • Prescribed glucocorticoids e.g. PREDNISALONE, DEXAMETHASONE
  • These are used as anti-inflammatories and to suppress immune system (asthma, RA, inflammatory bowel disease, post-organ transplant)

ENDOGENOUS CAUSES (rare)

  • Benign pituitary adenoma secreting ACTH - CUSHING’S DISEASE
  • Excess cortisol produced by adrenal tumour - ADRENAL CUSHING’S
  • Non-pituitary adrenal tumours producing ACTH and/or CRH - bizzare! E.g. Small cell lung cancer

Signs and symptoms:

  • Moon-shaped face, buffalo fat pad, abdominal obesity
  • purple striae (stretching due to obesity and increased proteolysis)
  • hyperglycaemia, hypertension, easy bruising
57
Q

What is the Dexamethasone suppression test? What can its findings be?

A

Test use in Cushing’s syndrome where high cortisol is being caused by high ACTH to determine what the cause is

Dexamethasone is a potent steroid that would normally negatively feedback to suppress ACTH and therefore cortisol.

  • If a small dose considerably lowers cortisol = NORMAL
  • If only a high dose lowers cortisol = CUSHING’S DISEASE (benign pituitary adenoma - lots of ACTH but -ve feedback does work)
  • If high dose has no effect = ECTOPIC TUMOUR - not part of the axis so negative feedback has no effect e.g small cell lung cancer
58
Q

Why must the dose of steroids be lowered gradually?

A

E.g. Glucocorticoids such as Dexamethasone

  • These steroids have been negatively feeding back on anterior pituitary to reduced ACTH and therefore cortisol
  • Body therefore needs a chance to get its normal physiological levels of these back up to replace the therapeutic steroids.
59
Q

Why might you have suppressed ACTH levels but high cortisol (Cushing’s syndrome)?

A
  • If prescribed glucocorticoids have been taken then will be due to this e.g. Prednisolone
  • If not, will be due to an adrenal tumour secreting too much cortisol which is then negatively feeding back on anterior pituitary (Adrenal Cushing’s)
60
Q

What is Addison’s Disease? What causes it?

What are the signs and symptoms?

A

Chronic adrenal insufficiency i.e. Decreased cortisol

Main cause used to be TB, but now generally due to autoimmune destruction of adrenal gland

Signs and symptoms: postural hypertension, lethargy, weight loss and anorexia, hypoglycaemia increased skin pigmentation

61
Q

Why does Addison’s Disease lead to hyperpigmentation?

A
  • Decreased cortisol leads to reduced -ve feedback on anterior pituitary
  • More POMC is required to make more ACTH
  • POMC makes ACTH and MSH (melanocyte stimulating hormone
  • These make melanocytes produce more melanin - patient looks tanned
62
Q

What’s an Addisonian Crisis? What brings it on? What are the signs/symptoms? How do you treat it?

A
  • Emergency situation due to severe lack of cortisol (adrenal insufficiency)
  • Brought on by severe stress, infection, cold exposure, abrupt steroid withdrawal

Signs/symptoms: nausea, vomiting, pyrexia hypotension, vascular collapse

Treatment: Fluid replacement, cortisol

63
Q

What is Synacthen?

A

ACTH analogue used to test adrenal function –> if plasma cortisol increases it’s not Addison’s Disease, as adrenal gland has not been destroyed

64
Q

What is pheochromocytoma? What does it result it?

How do you treat it?

A

Chromaffin cell tumour - secretes catecholamines (mainly NA)

Signs/symptoms:

  • Severe hypertension
  • Headaches
  • Palpitations
  • Anxiety

Phenoxybenzamine - irreversible competitive antagonist of a1 adrenoceptors in blood vessels - prevents adrenaline-mediated vasoconstriction

65
Q

What different methods are there for measuring adrenal cortex function?

A
  • 24 hour urine excretion of cortisol
  • 0900 cortisol test would confirm there was a problem if cortisol very high or very low, but if normal can’t rule out a problem - Cushing’s doesn’t follow normal circadian rhythm
  • Dexamethasone suppression test
  • Midnight cortisol test good if suspecting Cushing’s as should be lowest then
66
Q

What is the sequence of treatment in type 2 diabetes?

A

Diet and exercise
Metformin - oral hypoglycaemic therapy
Sulphonylureas - decrease K+ channel opening to stimulate insulin secretion
Insulin

67
Q

What is the HbA1c test?

A

Measure of glycated haemoglobin
Reflects average glucose levels over past few weeks giving an accurate diagnosis of glycaemic control - glycation of Hb happens in chronic hyperglycaemia

68
Q

What are the basic causes of Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes

A

Type 1 - destruction of pancreatic B cells - 90% autoimmune, 10% idiopathic

Type 2 - loss of pancreatic B cells AND decreased insulin sensitivity - ratio of these varies

69
Q

What is polycythaemia? What can it be due to?

What causes polycythaemia vera? What are its clinical features? How do you treat it?

A

A disease state in which haematocrit (volume of erythrocytes in blood) exceeds 55%.
Can be due to increased number of RBCs (absolute polycythaemia) or decrease in plasma volume (relative polycythaemia)

POLYCYTHAEMIA VERA

  • Arises from myeloproliferative neoplasm in bone –> overproduction of erythrocytes
  • Generally drive by oncogenic mutations that activate the JAK-STAT pathway –> proliferation

Clinical features: thrombosis, pruritis, splenomegaly
Treatment: venesection to keep haematocrit below 45%, aspirin unless contraindicated

70
Q

What is Kwashiorkor?

A

Adequate energy intake but no protein intake

Leads to fatty liver (Kwashy is squashy) as there’s no LDLs around (fat can’t leave liver). Oedema due to low albumin levels (osmotic imbalance)

KOALA
o Kwashiorkor
o Oedemitous (decreased liver function means fluid leaks into ECF)
o Anorexic/Apathetic
o Lethargic
o Ascites (oedema within abdominal cavity)