Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

3rd year mock-exam > meds > Flashcards

meds Flashcards

1
Q

metronidazole use

A

Clostridium Difficile, Protozoa, anaerobes, bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

fidaxomicin use

A

c. difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

clindamycin use

A

Streptococci, staphylococci, anaerobes, gangrene, necrotising fasciitis, prophylaxis (fractures), bacterial vaginosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

penicillin examples

A

co-amoxiclav, benzylpenicillin, amoxicillin, flucloxacillin, piperacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

co-amoxiclav use

A

UTI, RTI, soft tissue infections, surgical wound infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

benzylpenicillin use

A

Soft tissue pneumococcal, meningococcal, gonorrhoea, syphilis, acute osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

amoxicillin use

A

UTI, RTI, lyme disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

flucloxacillin use

A

S. aureus, impetigo, necrotising fasciitis, S. Aureus bacteraemia, acute osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

cephalosporins examples

A

cefradine, cefuroxime, ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

cefradine use

A

UTI, soft tissue infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

cefuroxime use

A

UTI, RTI, surgical prophylaxis (fractures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ceftriaxone use

A

Hospital infection, Typhoid, Lyme disease, gonorrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

aminoglycoside example

A

gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

gentamicin use

A

Serious gram-negative infections (bacteraemia, endocarditis, neutropenic sepsis), necrotising fasciitis, chronic osteomyelitis, prophylaxis for fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

gentamicin SE

A

ototoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

macrolide examples

A

clarithromycin, erythromycin, azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

clarithromycin and erythromycin use

A

Resp infection, soft tissue infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

azithromycin use

A

Chlamydia, typhoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

quinolones examples

A

ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ciprofloxacin use

A

Complicated UTI, hospital acquired pneumonia, neutropenia prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

glycopeptides examples

A

vancomycin and teicoplanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

vancomycin and teicoplanin use

A

Gram positive bacteria. MRSA, D. difficile (oral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

vancomycin and teicoplanin SE

A

nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

trimethoprim use

A

Gram neg bacilli, streptococci, staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

co-trimoxazole use

A

Broad spectrum, pneumocystis Jiroveci pneumonia, CNS brucellosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Tetracycline, doxycycline use

A

Streptococci, staphylococci, chlamydia, brucella, rickettsiae, leptospirosis, lyme disease, chlamydia, syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

rifampicin use

A

Mycobacteria (TB), meningococcus, staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

linezolid use

A

Gram-positive bacteria only (streptococci, staphylococci, enterococci) good penetration into bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

linezolid SE

A

Blood and optic neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

daptomycin use

A

Gram positive, S. Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Neuraminidase examples

A

oseltamivir and zanamivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

oseltamivir and zanamivir use

A

antivirals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

oseltamivir SE

A

Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

zanamivir SE

A

bronchospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

anti-fungal examples

A

amphotericin B, echinocandins, flucytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

amphotericin B use

A

Cryptococcal meningitis, broad antifungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

echinocandins use

A

Invasive candidisasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Azoles examples

A

clotrimazole and fluconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

azole use

A

Vulvovaginal candidiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Anti-viral HIV drugs

A

protease inhibitor, non-nucleoside, protease inhibitor and integrase inhibitor, nucleoside inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

nucleoside SE

A

Marrow toxicity, neuropathy, lipodystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

non-nucleoside SE

A

Skin rashes, hypersensitivity, drug interactions, neuropsychiatric effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

protease inhibitor SE

A

Drug interactions, diarrhoea, lipodystrophy, hyperlipidaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

quinine SE

A

Nausea, tinnitus, deafness, cardiac depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

drugs for malaria

A

quinine, artemisinin, malarone, riamet, eurartesim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

praziquantel use

A

schistosomiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

NSAIDs SE

A

Risk of hyperuricaemia via under excretion. Delayed union of fracture. Orofacial clefts and cardiac septal defects teratogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

ethambutol and isoniazid use

A

tb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

colchicine use

A

gout acute flare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

xanthine oxidase inhibitor example

A

allopurinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

lowering uric acid examples

A

allopurinol, febuxostat, uricosuric agents, canakinumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

uricosuric agents

A

probenecid, sulphinpyrazone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

NO use

A

Plantar Fasciitis

ankle arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

methotrexate use

A

Uveitis, Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis, SLE, ANCA associated Vasculitis, GCA, auto-immune myositis, Sjogren’s syndrome, Scleroderma, psoriatic arthritis, reactive arthritis, enteropathy arthritis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, ectopic pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

methotrexate SE

A

microcytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

cyclosporine use

A

Uveitis, Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis, psoriatic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

anti-TNF use

A

Uveitis, Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, enteropathy arthritis, Rheumatoid Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Mydratic and clycloplegic agents use

A

Uveitis,Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

IL-1 antagonist and IL-6 antagonist use

A

Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis, Rheumatoid Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

tocilizumab is an

A

IL 6 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

anakinra is an

A

IL-6 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

bisphosphonate example

A

zoledronic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

zoledronic acid use

A

Paget’s disease
Osteogenesis imperfecta
osteoporosis
myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

SE with zoledronic acid

A

oesophagitis, iritis, uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

HRT CI

A

Breast or endometrium cancer, active liver disease, abnormal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

HRT SE

A

Increased risk of Blood Clots, breast cancer, heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

clomifene is a

A

Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

clomifene use

A

Osteoporosis, ovulation induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

clomifene SE

A

Hot flushes, increased clotting, lack of protection at hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Monoclonal antibody against RANKL

A

Denosumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

denosumab use

A

osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

SE of denosumab

A

Allergy, rash, symptomatic hypocalcaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

teriparatide use

A

osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

hydroxychloroquine, mycophenolate, azathioprine, cyclophosphamide se

A

SLE, ANCA associated Vasculitis, GCA, auto-immune myositis, Sjogren’s syndrome, Scleroderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

anti-B cell therapy agent

A

rituximab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

rituximab use

A

SLE, ANCA associated Vasculitis, GCA, auto-immune myositis, Sjogren’s syndrome, Scleroderma, Rheumatoid arthritis, non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

capsaicin use

A

topic for OA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

anti-IL-17 use

A

ankylosing spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

sulfasalazine use

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, reactive arthritis, enteropathy arthritis, rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Anti-IL-23 use

A

psoriatic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

leflunomide use

A

psoriatic arthritis, Rheumatoid Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

abatacept is a

A

Anti T cell therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

abatacept is used for

A

RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

oxytocin use

A

Induction of labour, post partum haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

anti-coagulant examples

A

heparin, rivaroxaban, dabigatran, warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

platinum and taxane use

A

ovarian cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

tamoxifen use

A

Refractory ovarian cancer, breast cancer, endometrial cancer

88
Q

tamoxifen SE

A

Thromboembolic

89
Q

anti-hypertensives in pregnancy

A

labetolol, nifedipine, methyldopa

90
Q

ACEI example

A

Ramipril

91
Q

pre-eclampsia seizure requires

A

Hydralazine + IV labetalol

92
Q

medical abortion requires

A

misoprostol and mifepristone

93
Q

prostaglandin abortion drug

A

misoprostol

94
Q

mifepristone is an

A

anti-progestogen

95
Q

ergometrine and carbaprost is used for

A

Post-partum haemorrhage

96
Q

anti-fibrinolytic drug example

A

tranexamic acid

97
Q

tranexamic acid use

A

Post-partum haemorrhage, heavy menstrual bleeding, bleeding diathesis, Von Willebrand disease

98
Q

COCP, POP, injectable progestogen, implant and mirena IUS use

A

Contraception
Endometriosis
heavy menstrual bleeding, PCOS

99
Q

COCP CI

A

Gall bladder disease, liver tumour

100
Q

COCP SE

A

DVT, MI, stroke, cervical cancer, breast cancer, breast tenderness, nausea, headache, irregular bleeding, weight gain, mood

101
Q

POP SE

A

Appetite, hair loss, mood change, bloating, headache, acne, amenorrhea, alters P450 enzymes

102
Q

injectable progestogen SE

A

Delay to fertility, reversible reduction in bone density, amenorrhea weight gain, problematic bleeding, alters P450 enzymes

103
Q

implant SE

A

Prolonged bleeding, mood changes, amenorrhea, alters P450 enzymes

104
Q

Mirena IUS SE

A

Perforation, expulsion, infection risk, amenorrhea

105
Q

Yentreve (duloxetine) use

A

Urinary incontinence

106
Q

gonadotrophins use

A

Ovulation induction, endometriosis

107
Q

anti-muscarinic examples

A

oxybutynin, lyrinel, fesoteridine

108
Q

anti-muscarinic use

A

overactive bladder syndrome

109
Q

opioids examples

A

morphine, diamorphine, pethidine, remifentanil

110
Q

prostaglandin inhibitor is

A

mefenamic acid

111
Q

mefenamic acid use

A

heavy menstrual bleeding

112
Q

isotretinoin is a

A

retinoid drug

113
Q

Trastuzumab use

A

monoclonal antibody against HER-2 breast carcinoma

114
Q

SNRI antidepressants examples

A

venlafaxine, clonidine, duloxetine, mirtazapine, buproprion

115
Q

SNRI antidepressant use

A

Menopause symptomatic treatment
depression
anxiety
neuropathic pain

116
Q

venlafaxine SE

A

Bad discontinuation syndrome, QT prolongation, sexual side effects

117
Q

bupropion SE

A

Increase seizure risk, doesn’t treat anxiety, potentially abused, agitation, insomnia

118
Q

anti-androgen use

A

spironolactone

119
Q

spironolactone use

A

PCOS

120
Q

aromatase inhibitor use

A

breast cancer

121
Q

aromatase inhibitor examples

A

letrozole and arimidex

122
Q

anthracycline use

A

breast cancer

123
Q

CMF use

A

breast cancer

124
Q

aciclovir use

A

Herpes, neutropenia prophylaxis

125
Q

lidocaine use

A

symptomatic herpes

126
Q

podophyllotoxins examples

A

warticon, condyline for anogenital warts

127
Q

SSRI’s examples

A

paroxetine, fluoxetine, sertraline, citalopram, escitalopram, fluvoxamine

128
Q

SSRI’s symptoms

A

Treat anxiety and depression, panic disorders (not fluoxetine), prolonged grief disorder, OCD, high dose for eating disorders

129
Q

SSRI’s SE

A

GI upset, anxiety, restlessness, nervousness, insomnia, fatigue, sedation, dizziness, discontinuation syndrome, do not start for bipolar

130
Q

TCA’s examples

A

imipramine, amitriptyline, doxepin, clomipramine

131
Q

TCA’s use

A

Overactive bladder syndrome, Anxiety, PTSD, neuropathic pain

132
Q

TCA’s SE

A

Anticholinergic, antiadrenergic, antihistaminic, lethal in overdose, QT lengthening

133
Q

monoamine oxidase inhibitors use

A

depression

134
Q

monoamine oxidase inhibitors CI

A

Tyramine rich foods or sympathomimetics

135
Q

Monoamine oxidase inhibitor SE

A

Hypertensive crisis, weight gain, orthostatic hypotension, sedation, sexual dysfunction, sleep disturbance

136
Q

lithium use

A

Depression, reducing suicide rate, prophylaxis for mania

137
Q

lithium inv

A

Requires U+E’s, TSH, pregnancy test, TSH, creatinine monitoring

138
Q

lithium SE

A

GI distress, reduced appetite, nausea, thyroid abnormalities, leucocytosis, polyuria, har loss, acne. Do not exceed 1.5-2.0 mmol

139
Q

anti-convulsant examples

A

valproic acid, carbamazepine, lamotrigine

140
Q

anticonvulsant use

A

mania and prophylaxis

141
Q

SE with valproic acid

A

Thrombocytopenia, platelet, nausea, vomiting, weight, gain, sedation, tremor, hair loss

142
Q

SE with carbamazepine

A

Rash, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, sedation, dizziness, ataxia, confusion, AV conduction delays, drug interactions

143
Q

baseline assessments for valproic acid

A

baseline liver, pregnancy tests, FBC. Need folic acid

144
Q

carbamazepine inv

A

Baseline liver function tests, FBC, ECG

145
Q

Lamotrigine Se

A

Sedation, dizziness, ataxia, confusion, toxic epidermal necrolysis, blood dyscrasias

146
Q

typical antipsychotics examples

A

fluphenazine, haloperidol, pimozide

147
Q

typical antipsychotics use

A

schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, bipolar disorder, psychotic depression, treatment resistant anxiety, delirium

148
Q

typical antipsychotics SE

A

Extrapyramidal side effects -> acute dystonia, Parkinson syndrome, akathisia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, tardive dyskinesia

149
Q

Low potency typical antipsychotics: examples

A

chlorpromazine and thioridazine

150
Q

chlorpromazine SE

A

Cardiotoxic anticholinergic adverse effects, sedation, hypotension

151
Q

atypical antipsychotics examples

A

risperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine, ariprazole

152
Q

atypical antipsychotics use

A

schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, bipolar disorder, psychotic depression, treatment resistant anxiety, mania with psychosis

153
Q

low weight anorexia drug

A

olanzapine

154
Q

SE for risperidone

A

Extrapyramidal side effects, hyperprolactinemia, Weight gain and sedation

155
Q

SE for olanzapine

A

Weight gain, hypertriglyceridemia, hyperglycaemia, hyperprolactinemia, abnormal LFT

156
Q

SE for quetiapine

A

Weight gain, hypertriglyceridemia, hypercholesterolemia, hyperglycaemia, orthostatic hypotension

157
Q

clozapine use

A

Treatment resistant patients

schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, bipolar disorder, psychotic depression, treatment resistant anxiety

158
Q

clozapine SE

A

Agranulocytosis, risk of seizures, sedation, weight gain, abnormal LFT’s, hypertriglyceridemia, hypercholesterolemia, hyperglycaemia, nonketotic hyperosmolar coma

159
Q

anxiolytic example

A

buspirone

160
Q

buspirone use

A

panic disorder, generalized Anxiety disorder, substance-related disorders and their withdrawal, insomnias and parasomnias, OCD

161
Q

benzo’s use

A

Used to treat insomnia, parasomnias and anxiety disorders.

Often used for CNS depressant withdrawal protocols ex. ETOH withdrawal.

162
Q

Benzo’s SE

A

Somnolence, amnesia, cognitive deficits, disinhibition, tolerance, dependence, avoid use for anxiety long term, avoid panic attacks

163
Q

hypnotics examples

A

zolpidem and zopiclone

164
Q

SE with hypnotics

A

addictive

165
Q

anti-craving meds for alcohol

A

naltrexone and nelmefene, baclofen and disulfiram

166
Q

aversion medication for alcohol addiction requires

A

disulfiram

167
Q

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome Requires

A

thiamine

168
Q

stimulants use

A

atomoxetine, Ritalin and guanfacine

169
Q

acetylcholinesterase examples

A

donepezile and rivastigmine, galantamine

170
Q

SE for acetylcholinesterase

A

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, fatigue, insomnia, muscle cramps, headaches, dizziness, syncope, breathing problems, delirium

171
Q

acetylcholinesterase use

A

dementia mild

172
Q

memantine use

A

dementia severe

173
Q

desmopressin use

A

moderate haemophilia

174
Q

thrombopoietin analogues use

A

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura ITP

175
Q

thrombopoietin analogues examples

A

eltrombopag and romiplostim

176
Q

leukotriene antagonist use and example

A

airway inflammation in allergy, Montelukast

177
Q

anti-platelets example

A

aspirin, clopidogrel and abciximab

178
Q

SE of anti-platelets

A

Can trigger haemolysis in G6PD deficiency, bronchospasm in asthmatics, GI and renal side effects

179
Q

cytokine therapy examples

A

Pegylated IFN alpha and GM-CSF

180
Q

Pegylated IFN alpha use

A

melanoma

181
Q

GM-CSF use

A

neutropenia

182
Q

infliximab is an example of

A

Anti-TNF therapy

183
Q

infliximab use

A

Akylosing spondylitis, Chron’s disease, Ulcerative colitis

184
Q

proteasome inhibitor examples

A

bortezomib and carfilzomib

185
Q

proteasome inhibitor use

A

myeloma

186
Q

IMiDS examples

A

lenalidomide and pomalidomide

187
Q

IMiDS use

A

myeloma

188
Q

Bi-specific T cell engagers and Chimeric antigen receptor T-cells use

A

Acute lymphoblastic lymphoma

189
Q

Bi-specific T cell engagers example

A

Blinatumumab

190
Q

Chimeric antigen receptor T-cells SE

A

Cytokine release syndrome (ITU), neurotoxic

191
Q

cytotoxic chemotherapy bendmustine and fludarabine use

A

chronic lymphocytic lymphoma

192
Q

Tyrosine kinase inhibitor examples

A

midostaurin, ibrutinib and imatinib

193
Q

TKI midostaurin use

A

Acute myeloblastic leukaemia

194
Q

TKI imatinib use

A

Chronic myeloid leukaemia

195
Q

ibutinib TKI use

A

Chronic lymphocytic lymphoma

196
Q

Gemtuzumab ozogamicin,CPX-351, All-trans retinoic acid, Arsenic trioxide , Cytosine arabinoside , Daunorubicin used in

A

Acute myeloblastic leukaemia

197
Q

hydroxycarbamide use

A

Polycythemia vera, essential thrombocythaemia, sickle cell anaemia

198
Q

JAK 2 inhibitor

A

Ruxolitinib

199
Q

alpha interferon and ruxolitinib are used in

A

polycythemia vera

200
Q

anagrelide use

A

essential thrombocythemia

201
Q

Iron chelation therapy example

A

Desferrioxamine

202
Q

Desferrioxamine use

A

Beta thalassaemia major blood transfusions

203
Q

gas induction halothane drug

A

sevoflurane

204
Q

General anaesthetic induction drugs

A

Propofol

Thiopentone

205
Q

vasopressors

A

Metaraminol

Noradrenaline

206
Q

inotropes

A

Adrenaline

dobutamine

207
Q

tramadol is a

A

Mixed opiate and 5HT/NA reuptake inhibitor

208
Q

nefopam is a

A

NMDA R antagonist, 5HT/MA reuptake inhibitor

209
Q

ketamine is a

A

NMDA receptor antagonist

210
Q

ketamine use

A

spinal cord target for pain

211
Q

gabapentin is a

A

anticonvulsant

212
Q

Tamsulosin is a

A

alpha blocker

213
Q

finasteride is a

A

anti-androgen

214
Q

drugs for BPH

A

Tamsulosin

Finasteride

215
Q

mirabegron is a

A

Beta 3 adrenoceptor agonists

216
Q

mirabegron use

A

relax detrusor

3rd year mock-exam (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions