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ACLS-Adv Cardiac > meds > Flashcards

meds Flashcards

1
Q

An analgesic that relaxes smooth muscle & dilates peripheral arteries & veins; causes decreased venous return to heart to decrease preload

A

Nitroglycerin

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2
Q

A narcotic analgesic which causes venodilation and can lower heart rate by increased vagal tone; reduces myocardial O2 demand

A

Morphine

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3
Q 
What type of drugs produce vasodilation by blocking conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II; since angiotensin is a potent vasoconstrictor it decreases peripheral vascular resistance reducing the pressure that heart must pump against which decreases myocardial workload.
A.  Beta blockers
B.  Calcium channel blockers
C.  Ace inhibitors
D.  Vasopressors
A

C. Ace Inhibitors

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4
Q 
These type of drugs inhibit beta 1 adrenergic receptor sites to reduce myocardial contractility, SA node rate, and AV node conduction velocity to decrease cardiac work & myocardial O2 demand
A.  Beta Blockers
B.  Calcium Channel Blockers
C.  Ace inhibitors
D.  Vasopressors
A

A. Beta Blockers

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5
Q

Potent antiplatelet medications that act on GP receptors on platelet membrane to inhibit & prevent platelets from binding with fibrinogen?

A

Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors

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6
Q

What is the dose of aspirin given?

A

162 to 325 mg orally

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7
Q

Clopidogrel is what type of medication?

A

Antiplatelet agent

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8
Q

This medication stimulates beta1 & beta2 receptors, produces vasodilation and has immediate onset of action; It is a beta-adrenergic receptor agaonist & anti-arrhythmic used when atropine not appropriate or while waiting for availability of pacemaker; is alternative to dopamine

A

Isoproterenol

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9
Q

Antidiuretic hormone & powerful vasoconstrictor; increases cerebral & cardiac blood flow

A

vasopressin

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10
Q

What is the dose of epinephrine?

A

1 mg flush every 3-5 min

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11
Q

T or F: Epinephrine will increase myocardial O2 demand

A

T

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12
Q

What is a dose for epinephrine for continuous infusion?

A

0.1 to .5 mcg/kg per minute or via ET tube 2 - 2.5 mg diluted in 10 ml of NS

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13
Q

This medication will increase CO by decreasing afterload; it directly depresses automaticity & inhibits alpha & beta receptors

A

Amiodarone

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14
Q

T or F: Lidocaine should be used as alternative medication in bradycardia or ventricular escape Rhythm

A

False: It can be lethal with bradycardia and Vent escape rhythms

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15
Q

T or F: Lidocaine should not be given with 3rd degree HB or bradycardia related PVC’s

A

True

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16
Q

What is the dose for Lidocaine?

A

1-1.5 mg/kg iv bolus; can repeate in 5-10 min at 0.5 - 0.75; not to exceed max dose of 3 mg/kg

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17
Q

What medication is indicated for torsades?

A

Mg Sulfate

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18
Q

This anti-arrhythmic medication can be used in asthmatics since it brings down respiratory drive.

A

Mg Sulfate

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19
Q

These medications are as effective as TCP in the bradycardia algorhythm & used after atropine?

A

Dopamine
Epinephrine
2-10 mcg /kg/min

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20
Q

What is atropine dose?

A

0.5 mg bolus every 3-5 min
repeat every 3-5 min
max dose of 3 mg

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21
Q

T or F: Atropine may be given & is effective in type II or III HB

A

False

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22
Q

This medication is a vagolytic and parasympathetic blocker, considered anticholinergic it relaxes bronchial smooth muscle to increase HR and increase conduction velocity?

A

Atropine

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23
Q

Antiarrhythmic drug with short half life; main use is to suppress SVT but does not work on a fib or a flutter or vt

A

Adenosine

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24
Q

What is the dose for Adenosine:

A

6 mg rapid IV push

12 mg if needed for 2nd dose

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25
Q

Antiarrhythmic used for stable wide QRS tachycardia

A

Procainamide

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26
Q

What is the dose for Procainamide?

A

20-50 mg/min until arrhythmia suppressed or

maintenance at 1-4 mg/min

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27
Q

A beta blocker or antiarrhythmic medication used to treat stable monomorphic VT, SVT’s & ventricular arrhythmias; is avoided with prolonged QT

A

Sotalol

Dose: 100 mg over 5 minutes

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28
Q

This is a calcium channel blocker which is used as an alternative to adenosine for SVT’s narrow complex tachycardia with adequate BP?

A

Verapamil

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29
Q

A Chronotripic/Ionotropic: This medication increases the strength & vigor of heart contractions and useful in heart failure; alternative drug to reentry SVT to slow vent response in A fib/A flutter but toxic effects are common

A

Digoxin

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30
Q

This medication can be used in torsades if MG sulfate not available; also used at temporizing measure if external pacer not available but should not be used in cardiac arrest;

A

Isoproterenol

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31
Q

Name medications used in treatment of ACS according to the guidelines?

A 
O2
Aspirin
Nitroglycerin
Morphine
Fibrinolytics
Heparin
Beta blockers
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32
Q

What medications are used in treatment of acute stroke per guidelines?

A 
tPA (tissue plasminogen activator)
Glucose
Labetalol
Nitroprusside
Nicardipine
Aspirin
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33
Q

What medications can be given via ET tube in cardiac emergencies?

A 
Lidocaine
epinephrine
Vasopressor
Narcan
Atropine
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34
Q

Enalapril, captopril, lisinopril, ramipril are all what type of medication?

A

ACE inhibitors or angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors

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35
Q

What does of aspirin should be administered?

A

160 mg to 325 mg non enteric coated tablet asap

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36
Q

Any person experiencing pressure, heavy weight, squeezing, crushing suggestive of ischemic pain should be given?

A

aspirin

37
Q

What is the IV/IO dose of epinephrine?

A

1 mg every 3-5 minutes or 1:10,000 solution

38
Q

Medication given for respiratory depression from sedative effects of benzo OD?

A

Flumazenil

39
Q

Used to slow ventricular response in A Fib or A-flutter; alternative to reentry SVT but carries toxic effects and electrical cardioversion must be avoided

A

Digoxin

40
Q

This medication can be used for pump problems associated with CHF or pulmonary congestion with no signs of shock?

A

Dobutamine

41
Q

Can be used for toxic effects of calcium channel blocker or beta blocker?

A

Glucagon

42
Q

This medication used in ACS especially for UA/NSTEMI; it inhibits thrombin generation

A

Heparin

43
Q 
Phosphodiesterase enzyme inhibitor used in severe congestive heart failure refractory to diuretics, vasodilators, conventional inotripic agents?
A.  Isoproterenol
 B.  Inamrinone
C.  Beta blockers
D.  Alpha adrenergic agent
A

B: Inamrinone

44
Q 
Used in intracranial pressure management in neurological emergencies?
A.  Lidocaine
B.  Aspirin
C.  Mannitol
D.  Milrinone
A

C. Mannitol

45
Q 
Often used in CHF post op patients and can be used with shock with high systemic vascular resistance?
A.  Lidocaine
B.  Aspirin
C. Mannitol
D.  Milirinone
A

D. Milrinone

46
Q 
Reduces afterload in heart failure and acute pulmonary edema, indicated in HTN crisis but contraindicated for patients who have taken ED medications?
A.  Naloxone
B.  Nitroprusside
C.  Norepinphrine
D.  Adenosine
A

B. Nitroprusside

47
Q

Can be used in ketoacidosis, hyperkalemia, prolonged resuscitation efforts but not recommended for routine use in cardiac arrest patients

A

Sodium Bicarbonate

48
Q

These types of drugs inhibit movement of CA ions across cell membranes in the heart & vascular smooth muscle resulting in relaxation, dilation, & decreased myocardial O2 demand?

A

CA channel blockers

49
Q 
Adenosine is an example of what type of medication?
A.  CA channel blocker
B.  Beta Blocker
C.  Antiarrhythmic
D.  ACE inhibitor
A

C. Antiarrhythmic

50
Q 
Diltiazem or verapamil, Isoptin is an example of what type of medication?
A.  CA channel blocker
B.  Beta Blocker
C.  Antiarrhythmic
D.  ACE inhibitor
A

A. CA channel blockers

51
Q

During a ventricular escape rhythm ______ should not be given because it may cause asystole by abolishing ventricular activity.

A

Lidocaine

52
Q

What medication in the bradycardia algorhythm are given if atropine is ineffective & are as effective as TCP?

A

Dopamine & Epinphrine

2-10 mcg kg/min

53
Q

What dose of atropine is given?

A

0.5 mg bolus with max dose of 3mg

54
Q

What medications are given in ROSC, and what dose?

A

IV bolus of normal saline or lactated ringers; 1-2 l;
epinephrine IV infusion 0.1 to 0.5 mcg/kg/min
dopamine IV infusion 5-10 mcg/kg/min
Norepinephrine 0.1 to 0.5 mcg/kg per min

55
Q

A substance that increases heart rate is

A

chronotropic

56
Q

A substance that increases force of contraction?

A

Inotrope

57
Q

Are natural catecholamines, adrenergic agonists and work on alpha and beta receptors

A

epinephrine

Dopamine

58
Q

When beta 1 receptors are stimulated the release of renin occurs which promotes production of angiotensin; this works to cause?
A. Vasodilation
B. Vasoconstriction
C. Smooth muscle of bronchi dilation

A

A. Vasoconstriction

59
Q

When beta 2 sites are stimulated which are found in heart lungs, and skeletal muscles which occur
A. Vasodilation
B. Vasoconstriction
C. dilation of bronchi when smooth muscle is stimulated

A

C. dilation of bronchi

60
Q

When alpha 1 receptors are stimulated what results?
A. Vasodilation
B. constriction

A

b. constriction

61
Q

When alpha 1 is stimulated ______ results; when beta 1 receptors are stimulated ______ results; when beta 2 receptors are stimulated then _____ results.

A

Alpha 1= constriction
Beta 1 = vasoconstriction
Beta 2= dilation

62
Q

Angiotensin is a powerful _____.
A. Vasodilator
B, Vasoconstrictor

A

A. Vasoconstrictor

63
Q

______ promotes production of angiotensin.

A

Renin

64
Q

What are the 5 main sympathetic receptors?

A

A1, A2, B1, B2, dopamine

65
Q

A drug that is alternative to adenosine?

A

verapamil

66
Q

Used in cardiogenic shock, increases myocardial O2 demand, causes peripheral vasoconstrictor & severe hypotension not caused by hypovolemia?

A

Norepinephrine: .1 to .5 mcg/kg

67
Q

Blocks parasympathetic nervous system; allows heart to return to own inherent rate used in bradycardia but does not work on HB

A

Atropine

68
Q

Suppresses SA & AV node activity but does not work on A fib or A flutter; not useful for 2nd or 3rd HB; can use in wide monorphic vt; has quick action time of 5 seconds

A

adenosine

69
Q

Furosemide is an example of_____.

A

diuretic

70
Q

Used in chest pain unresponsive to nitrates with ACS;

A

Morphine, 2-4 mg IV over 1-5 min every 5-30 min

71
Q

List medications that may be administered in tachycardia?

A 
Adenosine
Diltiazem
Beta blockers
Amiadarone
digoxin
verapamil
Mg sulfate
72
Q

This medication is also known as ______.

A

ADH

73
Q

If you have a wide QRS that does not respond to vagal maneuvers or adenosine if regular than ______ or ______ can be given.

A

Beta blockers or calcium channel blockers

74
Q

What is the dose for sotalol via IV

A

100 mg over 5 minutes

75
Q 
According to ACS algorhythm \_\_\_\_\_ can be given for ST depression.
A.  Adenosine
B.  Atropine
C.  Amiodarone
D.  Clopidogrel
A

D. clopidogrel

76
Q 
In hemorrhagic stroke \_\_\_\_\_\_ should be administered.
A.  Clopidogrel
B.  morphine
C.  Beta blockers
D.  Aspirin
A

D. aspirin

77
Q 
Indications for this diuretic include glaucoma, metabolic alkalosis, altitude sickness.
A.  Lasix
B.  Isosorbide
C.  Diamox
D.  Ringers solution
A

C. Diamox

78
Q

______ can be used in hydration, replacement therapy of D5W.

A

Crystalloids

79
Q

What is the formula for FR?

A

Vt X RR x (I + E)

80
Q

What is RSBI formula?

A

Frequency/VT

81
Q

What is formula for duration of E tank?

A

Pressure x 0.28/ flow (lpm)

82
Q

What is formula for desired PaCO2 for known Ve?

A

Known Ve x known PaCo2= desired Ve x desired PaCO2

83
Q

What is formula for MAP?

A

Systolic + 2(diastolic) / 3

84
Q 
What rhythm should not be given with lidocaine?
A.  2nd degree HB
B.  Ventricular escape rhythms
C.  Bradycardia
D.  All of the above
E.  Both B & C
F.  A & B
A

B & C

85
Q

What medication is used for unstable heart block?

A

epinephrine

86
Q

Digitalis should not be used in the treatment of ______.

A

AVRT

87
Q

Nebulized albuterol can be used in treatment of ____.

A

Hyperkalemia

88
Q

Digoxin may be of limited use but can be used in _____ or _______ and is alternative drug for SVT. Toxic effects are common will react with amiodarone.

A

A fib, A flutter

89
Q

What is the dose for amiodarone?

A

1st dose is 150 mg

2nd dose is 300 mg

ACLS-Adv Cardiac (10 decks)

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